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Flight Chief QC 2016

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Quiz on Flight Chief QC 2016, created by donale paine on 07/02/2017.
donale paine
Quiz by donale paine, updated more than 1 year ago
donale paine
Created by donale paine almost 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Each LF is protected by how many sensors?
Answer
  • Two
  • Three
  • Nine
  • One

Question 2

Question
What does an OZ alarm detect?
Answer
  • Penetration attempts to the launcher
  • Intrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF
  • Intrusions access points within the LCC
  • Intrusions to the SCC access door

Question 3

Question
What does an IZ alarm detect?
Answer
  • Penetration attempts to the launcher
  • Intrusions within a perimeter inside the topside of the LF
  • Unauthorized access to the LCC
  • Unauthorized intrusion point at the SCC

Question 4

Question
While on Alert who is in command of the flight area?
Answer
  • MSC
  • Flight Leadership
  • MCC
  • FSC

Question 5

Question
What is reported to the MCC that provides indications of potential intrusions into protected areas of the LF?
Answer
  • Weapons System Alarms
  • IZ only
  • WALM only
  • OZ only

Question 6

Question
What program ensures personnel design and operate nuclear weapons and nuclear weapons systems to satisfy the safety standards in department of defense?
Answer
  • Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program
  • Air Force Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)
  • Air Force Nuclear Weapons Security Program
  • Air Force Surety Standards

Question 7

Question
What Department of Defense (DOD) Directive governs the Nuclear Weapon System Surety Program?
Answer
  • Directive 3510.2
  • DoD 5210.41M
  • DoD 5210.41R
  • Directive 3150.02

Question 8

Question
Which DoD surety standard is not correct?
Answer
  • There shall be positive measures to prevent nuclear weapons involved in accidents or incidents, or jettisoned weapons, from producing a nuclear yield
  • There shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE pre-arming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons, except upon execution of emergency war orders or when directed by competent authority
  • There shall be positive measures to prevent DELIBERATE pre-arming, arming, launching, or releasing of nuclear weapons in all abnormal and credible normal environments
  • There shall be positive measures to ensure adequate security of nuclear weapons, pursuant to DODM S-5210.41-R_AFMAN31-108V1

Question 9

Question
Who may cancel a COVERED WAGON report?
Answer
  • Flight Commander
  • MCC
  • Installation Commander
  • Squadron Commander

Question 10

Question
All Airmen should exercise prudent discretion in taking immediate action when it is clear that an attack is ___________?
Answer
  • Probable
  • Likely
  • Imminent or in progress
  • Inadvertent

Question 11

Question
Teams transporting guidance information, Propulsion System Rocket Engine (PSRE) movement, or a missile stage movement best describes which missile category
Answer
  • Mission CAT III
  • Mission CAT II
  • Mission CAT V
  • Mission CAT IV

Question 12

Question
Teams transporting Code Components best describes which mission category?
Answer
  • Mission CAT III
  • Mission CAT II
  • Mission CAT V
  • Mission CAT IV

Question 13

Question
Teams transporting classified critical components, other than code components best describes which Mission Category
Answer
  • Mission CAT III
  • Mission CAT II
  • Mission CAT V
  • Mission CAT IV

Question 14

Question
Which Mission Category does Security Forces Fall under?
Answer
  • Mission CAT III
  • Mission CAT II
  • Mission CAT VII
  • Mission CAT V

Question 15

Question
The SET is routinely dispatched with who?
Answer
  • Missile Maintenance
  • ART's
  • SRT's
  • Fire Teams

Question 16

Question
Units will take appropriate measures to ensure whose survivability during an adversary engagement in order to guarantee activation of LF delay features and adversary attrition?
Answer
  • ART
  • Alarm Monitor
  • SET
  • Fire Team

Question 17

Question
Who will be provided a copy of the Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix?
Answer
  • MSC and all SCC's
  • MCC and MSC
  • SCC's and MCC
  • MCC, MSC and all SCC

Question 18

Question
The Flight Time-Dispatch Response Matrix will be considered what classification when filled in?
Answer
  • Secret
  • DCNI
  • unclassified
  • Top Secret

Question 19

Question
What security situation describes Attack/Seismic Indications?
Answer
  • Situation 1
  • Situation 2
  • Situation 3
  • Situation 4

Question 20

Question
What security situation describes Duress Indications?
Answer
  • Situation 1
  • Situation 2
  • Situation 3
  • Situation 4

Question 21

Question
What security situation describes UNAUTHRORIZED/UNIDENTIFIED personnel on or Attempting Entry?
Answer
  • Situation 1
  • Situation 2
  • Situation 3
  • Situation 4

Question 22

Question
What security situation describes LF down (LFDN)?
Answer
  • Situation 2
  • Situation 3
  • Situation 4
  • Situation 5

Question 23

Question
What Security Situation describes LF Alarm Situations
Answer
  • Situation 2
  • Situation 3
  • Situation 4
  • Situation 5

Question 24

Question
You are in the Mike flight area and Recon 2 states "the road condition is green", what weather condition is Recon 2 talking about?
Answer
  • <35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation
  • 35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation
  • >45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 miles and > 6'' snow accumulation
  • None of the above

Question 25

Question
Travel condition yellow represents what weather conditions?
Answer
  • <35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation
  • 35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation
  • >45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 and >6'' snow accumulation
  • None of the above

Question 26

Question
You are in the Alpha canyons and Dog relays "there is patchy snow/ice on the roads and they can't see 1 mile in front of them". What travel condition would this be?
Answer
  • Travel condition Normal
  • Travel condition Green
  • Travel condition Yellow
  • Travel condition Red

Question 27

Question
Travel Condition RED represents what weather condition?
Answer
  • <35 Knot winds, visibility of >0.5 miles and no snow accumulation
  • 35-45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of 0.1-0.5 miles and 0.5'' to 6'' snow accumulation
  • >45 Knot sustained winds, visibility of <0.1 miles and >6'' snow accumulation
  • None of the above

Question 28

Question
Wing commander permission is required for any lone member dispatching during travel condition what?
Answer
  • Green
  • Yellow
  • Red
  • All of the above

Question 29

Question
Commercial facility stops are authorized to combat driver fatigue, health and safety issues. When will SF teams notify their respective control center?
Answer
  • Prior to Guardmount
  • Upon resuming travel
  • Notifications are not required
  • Prior to stopping and upon resuming travel

Question 30

Question
Brief rest or safety stops at gas stations, convenience stores or eating establishments are allowed outside a _________ radius from the base.
Answer
  • 10 mile
  • 25 mile
  • 15 mile
  • 20 mile

Question 31

Question
When armed and stopping at commercial facilities one team member will remain with the vehicle at all times to ________?
Answer
  • Monitor radio communications and safeguard team weapons
  • Monitor radio communications
  • Safeguard duty gear to include weapons along with RON gear
  • Not required if the members have a mobile radio turned on

Question 32

Question
If SCCs are unable to perform their function, responsibility transfers to any surviving mobile element having communications capability with whom?
Answer
  • MSC
  • FSC
  • MCC
  • Flight Leadership

Question 33

Question
Who must establish procedures for the wing command post (WCP) to determine the current status of missile security control (MSC)?
Answer
  • The Pentagon
  • Each MAJCOM Command
  • Each Group/CC or designated representative in writing
  • Each Installation

Question 34

Question
Upon declaration of a security situation by the MCC, who will immediately direct security response?
Answer
  • FSC
  • MSC
  • MCC
  • MSC and MCC

Question 35

Question
Who can make a visual assessment of a site but is not allowed to conduct a complete investigation during multiple alarm situations?
Answer
  • Two armed SF personnel
  • A single individual
  • RVA will be used to visually assess a site
  • Two MEED equipped personnel

Question 36

Question
Who can be diverted to assist in assessing alarms, but must be coordinated with the missile maintenance operations center (MMOC)?
Answer
  • Maintenance Teams with SET Guards traveling through the area. (if meeting security criteria)
  • Maintenance Teams traveling though the area
  • SET Guards traveling through the area
  • Capsule Teams traveling through the area to clearly identify the alarm status

Question 37

Question
The concept for protection of nuclear weapons mandates what?
Answer
  • That the security system stops an intruder AFTER unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved
  • That the security system stops an intruder BEFORE unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved
  • That the security system stops and intruder DURING unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved
  • That the security system stops an intruder BEFORE authorized access to a weapon can be achieved

Question 38

Question
All of the following accomplish the concept for protection of nuclear weapons EXCEPT which one?
Answer
  • Physical security technologies deployed from the weapon outward
  • implementation of planned actions to disrupt adversary planning cycles
  • immediate response and action by dedicated and well-trained security forces
  • perform delay/withdraw procedures

Question 39

Question
What are the five Integrated Defense (ID) principles?
Answer
  • Damage, Destroy, Destruction
  • Safe, Secure, Reliable
  • Deter, Detect, Delay, Deny, Defeat
  • Observation, Cover and Concealment, Obstacle, Key Terrain, Avenues of approach

Question 40

Question
Vegetation within the limited areas will not exceed how many inches?
Answer
  • Eight
  • Four
  • Six
  • Seven

Question 41

Question
Restricted area signs will be positioned on or outside the outer perimeter fence at not greater than ______________ intervals?
Answer
  • 50 m
  • 50 ft
  • 100 m
  • 100 ft

Question 42

Question
A typical missile squadron has how many ARTs on duty 24hrs a day?
Answer
  • five two person ARTs
  • Four two person ARTs
  • Three two person ARTs
  • One two person ART

Question 43

Question
After LF entry, SETs will inspect sites for security deficiencies and report deficiencies to who?
Answer
  • MCC
  • MSC
  • FSC
  • MMOC

Question 44

Question
What security requirement needs to be in place when MCC has the inability to monitor LF security status or simultaneous Outer Zone (OZ) and Inner Zone (IZ) malfunctions?
Answer
  • Response Force (15x5)
  • 2 person ART
  • 4 person CAT
  • 2 person CAT

Question 45

Question
An area where the Two-Person Concept must be enforced because it contains a nuclear weapon, nuclear weapon system, or certified critical component is a _______?
Answer
  • No Lone Zone
  • Safe Area
  • Safe Haven
  • PAH

Question 46

Question
Vehicles entering and exiting limited/exclusion areas shall be given at least a ________ inspection of readily accessible areas (e.g. driver and passenger compartments, cargo carrying area, engine compartment, and undercarriage)?
Answer
  • Hands on
  • visual
  • Simple frisk
  • Complete

Question 47

Question
A person authorized escorted entry to exclusion areas will present what item to the person controlling entry?
Answer
  • picture identification
  • AFGC 246
  • authentication
  • finger print

Question 48

Question
This person is responsible for ensuring personnel entering the exclusion area are members of a unauthorized two person concept team and have a valid reason to be in the exclusion area?
Answer
  • Team Chief
  • FSC
  • Sole Vouching Authority
  • MSC

Question 49

Question
The ___________ is a Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) -led intelligence community assessment of the capabilities and intentions of a variety of actors to gain unauthorized physical access to a U.S. nuclear weapon?
Answer
  • Random Antiterrorism Measures
  • Route Vulnerability Assessment
  • COVERED WAGON
  • Nuclear Security Threat Capability Assessment

Question 50

Question
An unexpected event involving the release or potential release of nuclear material caused by adversary (insider or outsider) actions defines what?
Answer
  • Mishap involving nuclear weapon
  • Incident involving nuclear weapon
  • Explosion involving nuclear weapon
  • Detonation involving nuclear weapons

Question 51

Question
Lettering of warning signs, surrounding a limited area shall be legible from how many feet away?
Answer
  • 25 ft
  • 75 ft
  • 50 ft
  • 100 ft

Question 52

Question
What type of padlocks can be used on manually operated gates?
Answer
  • Type I
  • Type III
  • Type II
  • Both B and C

Question 53

Question
Opportunity to tamper with or modify a nuclear weapon, critical nuclear weapon system component or positive control/Nuclear Command and Control (NC2) material describe what nuclear surety term?
Answer
  • Access
  • Opportunity
  • Custody
  • Exclusion Area

Question 54

Question
Responsibility for the control of, transfer and movement of, and access to nuclear weapons and components describes what nuclear surety term?
Answer
  • Secure
  • Custody
  • Observation
  • Detection

Question 55

Question
The intentional separation of an unarmed weapon from its delivery system or transport carrier in response to an emergency describes what nuclear surety term?
Answer
  • Launching
  • Deliberate
  • Jettison
  • Inadvertent

Question 56

Question
Which certification describes a PRP screening process to help ensure active duty military individuals meet PRP standards before assignment, or while at training for PRP duties?
Answer
  • Interim Certification
  • Recertification
  • Administrative Qualification
  • Certification

Question 57

Question
Which position, where an individual is assigned nuclear duties, has access, but no technical knowledge?
Answer
  • Controlled
  • Critical
  • Formal
  • Technical

Question 58

Question
____________shall be accomplished by or through a combination of sentries and patrols, towers, security fences, electronic sensors, barriers, lights, clear zones, and observation devices.
Answer
  • intrusion detection system (IDS)
  • Detection
  • Defeat
  • Random Anti-terrorism Measures (RAM)

Question 59

Question
Nuclear weapons facilities will be equipped with _______ and __________ to incapacitate an adversary who has achieved unauthorized entry to such facility before unauthorized access is possible?
Answer
  • external delay and denial systems
  • M240B and MK19
  • Internal and External SRT
  • Internal Delay and Denial systems

Question 60

Question
Each installation that stores or routinely supports transit of nuclear weapons shall conduct recapture and recovery exercises how often? This exercise must include the participation of all military agencies and forces that would be expected to assist in the recapture and recovery of a weapon.
Answer
  • Annually
  • Monthly
  • Bi-Weekly
  • Semi-Annually

Question 61

Question
During exigent circumstances related to the recapture and recovery of a nuclear weapon what suffices for FBI entry into a limited or exclusion area(s)?
Answer
  • Presentation of credential
  • Restricted area badge
  • Sign/Countersign
  • Code Words

Question 62

Question
Actions taken to regain custody of a U.S. nuclear weapon within the boundaries of a storage or operational site, convoy, facility, or military installation where it has been seized by a hostile force or unauthorized person(s) defines what term?
Answer
  • Recovery
  • Recapture
  • Custody
  • Regain

Question 63

Question
_________ are used to safeguard classified defense information and protect DOD equipment and/or material outside the confines of a military installation, but within the territory of the US
Answer
  • National Defense Areas
  • Recapture events
  • Dull Swords
  • Restricted Areas

Question 64

Question
Nuclear weapons inspections and visits shall focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the requirements of __________?
Answer
  • Integrated Defense Plan
  • Nuclear Weapons Security Standards
  • Weapons System Safety Rules
  • Site Defense Plan

Question 65

Question
Which cryptographic control groups does security forces belong to?
Answer
  • A side
  • B side
  • C side
  • D side

Question 66

Question
Security Forces primary goal while posted within the missile complex is to ensure ___________ weapons are postured for deployment.
Answer
  • Safe
  • Secure
  • Reliable
  • All of the above

Question 67

Question
All of the following are categories of deviations except which one?
Answer
  • Technical
  • Suspended
  • Temporary
  • Permanent

Question 68

Question
What teams will not be used to conduct visual assessments, nor will they respond to investigate alarms
Answer
  • Carrying classified material (other than MEED)
  • Carrying critical components, or classified material (other than MEED)
  • Carrying Code Components or classified material (other than MEED)
  • Carrying Code Components, Critical components, or classified material (other than MEED)

Question 69

Question
Who establishes a program to selectively exercise SF elements and identifies, in writing, individuals authorized to conduct SRE's?
Answer
  • Wing/CC
  • SFG/CC
  • MXG/CC
  • OG/CC

Question 70

Question
Exercise termination requires how many authentications from the team that initiated the exercise?
Answer
  • One
  • Two
  • Three
  • None are required

Question 71

Question
What will posted SF not remove during exercises?
Answer
  • Vest
  • Helmet
  • Magazines
  • Cold Weather Gear

Question 72

Question
During incident response procedures, who approves access through the ECP?
Answer
  • IC or designated representative
  • Wing Commander
  • Group Commander
  • FSC

Question 73

Question
Select ECP locations for temporary restricted areas based upon what factors?
Answer
  • Operational requirements
  • Logical routes of travel
  • Elevation
  • Both A and B

Question 74

Question
What is used to secure crime scenes and major accidents?
Answer
  • Cordon
  • White Chalk
  • Tent
  • Red Tape

Question 75

Question
MSgt Smith whom is attempting to process through the Golf MAF gate held at gun point exchanges pleasantries with the FSC while using "Temple" in a normal sentence over the gate phone. The FSC clearly recognizes "Temple" as the current primary duress word and immediately up-channels the incident. This is an example of what type of duress?
Answer
  • Sign, Counter Sign
  • Subliminal Duress
  • Passive Duress
  • Active Duress

Question 76

Question
Amn Doe, assigned to Hotel 60 is dispatched to a 5G at H-3. While conducting an access road sweep the team is taken hostage. Hotel control prompts a status check, with Hotel 60 passing the call sign of November 60. This is an example of what type of duress?
Answer
  • positive duress
  • passive duress
  • sign, counter sign
  • active duress

Question 77

Question
Units will publish procedures for active and passive duress in what document?
Answer
  • Installation Defense Plan (IDP)
  • DoD 5210.41M
  • Special Security Instructions (SSI's)
  • Operational Instructions (OI's)

Question 78

Question
When conducting physical checks of unguarded LF's, what activations must be included?
Answer
  • Inner and Outer zone IDS
  • IZ only
  • OZ only
  • WALM, PGLV, IZ and OZ

Question 79

Question
How frequently will you physically check secure unguarded LFs
Answer
  • Once every 14 days
  • Once every 15 days
  • Once every 12 days
  • Once every 7 days

Question 80

Question
Teams generating IZ alarms during an LF check are not required to authenticate upon IZ illumination if two team members have authenticated within how many minutes?
Answer
  • 10
  • 5
  • 15
  • 30

Question 81

Question
What form is used at any installation, office, controlled or restricted area where visitors must be registered?
Answer
  • AF form 1190
  • DD form 1190
  • AF form 1109
  • AFGSC 1109

Question 82

Question
A change in a Response Condition (RC) does not automatically change what?
Answer
  • Information protection condition (INFOCON)
  • Travel Condition (TC)
  • Force Protection Condition (FPCON)
  • Road Conditions (RC I or RC II)

Question 83

Question
Normal conditions exist and LF(s) is/are accessible to SF best describes what
Answer
  • Road Condition I
  • Travel Condition "Green"
  • Road Condition II
  • Travel Condition "Yellow"

Question 84

Question
Weather or road conditions have affected response, or the ability to respond to the LF(s) and the site(s) is/are not accessible best describes what?
Answer
  • TC II
  • RC I
  • RC II
  • TC I

Question 85

Question
What filter is the M50 gas mask equipped with?
Answer
  • M4A3 filter
  • C2A1 filter
  • C1A2 filter
  • M61 filter

Question 86

Question
What does the M50 mask use to protect against CBRN threats?
Answer
  • The mask uses a single filter positioned on the face-piece
  • The mask uses twin filters positioned on the face-Piece
  • the mask uses a seal designed to suction around the jaw line
  • the mask uses twin C2A1 filters positioned on the face piece

Question 87

Question
The M50 Joint Service General Purpose Field Mask is designed to provide what?
Answer
  • 24 hours continuous head-eye-respiratory Chemical/Biological, radiological particulates, and toxic industrial chemical protection
  • Protection from biological particulates and toxic industrial chemical protection
  • head-eye respiratory chemical/biological and radiological protection
  • provide a high level of protection form all airborne threats

Question 88

Question
Which agency identifies the need for a team to be dispatched to the missile field?
Answer
  • Initiating Agency
  • Dispatch Agency
  • KCCC
  • KCCC and the dispatch agency jointly identify the need

Question 89

Question
Who confirms the need for sending the team into the missile field
Answer
  • the owning CO
  • KCCC
  • Dispatch Agency
  • Initiating Agency

Question 90

Question
Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel assigned to PRP duties have their PRP status verified prior to being placed on the AFGSC Form 246/MADO?
Answer
  • Initiating Agency
  • Squadron CO
  • Dispatch Agency
  • PRP Monitor

Question 91

Question
Who assigns the mission category?
Answer
  • Dispatch Agency
  • Initiating Agency
  • KCCC
  • Initiating Agency or Dispatch agency

Question 92

Question
Specific individuals within each initiating agency must be appointed in writing using what form?
Answer
  • A memorandum with the appropriate header and signature block
  • AFGSC Form 577
  • AFGSC Form 527
  • AFGSC Form 257

Question 93

Question
What is recommended but not required for trips dispatching to the missile field that will not require entry to LFs and MAFs?
Answer
  • AFGSC Form 277
  • AFGSC Form 247
  • AFGSC Form 245
  • AFGSC Form 246

Question 94

Question
What is utilized to gauge the effectiveness of flight level exercises?
Answer
  • Specific Security Instructions
  • Operations Instructions
  • Training Exercise Evaluation outlines and Task Performance Checklists
  • Remote Visual Assessment

Question 95

Question
An official military function conducted at the start of Security Forces shift, and is the first communication between SF members is known what?
Answer
  • Weapons Inspection
  • Roll Call
  • Open Ranks
  • Guardmount

Question 96

Question
Security Forces shall not consume alcoholic beverages within _______________ hrs of duty?
Answer
  • 6 hrs
  • 8 hrs
  • 12 hrs
  • 4 hrs

Question 97

Question
Which arming group consists of DoD military, civilian and contract personnel performing law enforcement, security or force protection duties or personnel serving in an AFSC that specifies qualification to bear firearms as a mandatory requirement?
Answer
  • Group A
  • Group C
  • Group B
  • Group D

Question 98

Question
Temporary withdrawal to bear firearms for less than how many hours can be made by verbal notification?
Answer
  • 48 hrs (2 Days)
  • 72 hrs (3 days)
  • 24 hrs (1 day)
  • 12 hrs

Question 99

Question
Written notification must be made from the commander or designated representative to the affected person for any instances of a weapons withdrawal lasting longer than _____________ hrs?
Answer
  • 48
  • 24
  • 72
  • 12

Question 100

Question
What is conducted to ensure posted personnel are alert and knowledgeable of the assigned duties and responsibilities?
Answer
  • Post Checks
  • No-notice evaluations
  • Flight level exercises
  • Open ranks

Question 101

Question
Who assigns personnel to a duty position for posting?
Answer
  • Group CC
  • Squadron CC
  • Flight Chief
  • Supervisors

Question 102

Question
As a flight chief, proper management of your personnel is vital to the success of your mission. The following areas should be considered when managing your personnel:
Answer
  • Orient new personnel to the unit, mission and duty position
  • Ensure personnel maintain proper qualifications for their assigned posts
  • Be familiar with and qualified to perform subordinates duties
  • All of the above

Question 103

Question
As a leader focused on Integrated Defense, when deciding on priorities of work, what must be known to position weapons effectively?
Answer
  • Characteristics, Capabilities, and limitations of the weapons
  • Effects of terrain
  • Tactics used by the enemy
  • All of the above

Question 104

Question
What is not stored in a HHU after the A circuit is opened?
Answer
  • Combinations
  • Last known location
  • Your authenticator
  • Your pin

Question 105

Question
Deadly force is authorized under 8 circumstances. One of these circumstances is to protect inherently dangerous property. Which of the below is NOT an example of inherently dangerous property?
Answer
  • Special Nuclear Material
  • Weapons/Ammunition
  • Taser
  • Chemical Agents

Question 106

Question
LF subsequent/follow-on teams do not need to do what, if the on-site team chief or assistant team chief (at the direction of the team chief), personally recognizes and vouches for the team chief requesting entry?
Answer
  • Authenticate
  • Pass a valid trip number
  • Pass dispatch information
  • Vouch for individuals in the vehicle

Question 107

Question
What are unclassified and may be transmitted over unprotected communication lines?
Answer
  • Generator numbers and page numbers
  • Convoy composition and time of departure
  • LF combinations un-encrypted
  • Authenticators un-encrypted

Question 108

Question
MEED-equipped individuals will prevent unauthorized personnel from monitoring what, during authentication and combination processing?
Answer
  • Keyboard actions
  • Radio Frequencies
  • 360 degree security
  • The authenticator/combination written in the notepad

Question 109

Question
What does the acronym PCCs stand for?
Answer
  • Post convoy checks
  • Pre Combat Checks
  • Pre Convoy Checks
  • Post Combat Checks

Question 110

Question
What does the acronym PCI stand for?
Answer
  • Pre Combat Inspections
  • Post Combat Inspections
  • Pre Convoy Inspections
  • Post Convoy Inspections

Question 111

Question
The PCIs and PCCs process is used on all SF assigned duty ______.
Answer
  • Gear
  • Weapons
  • Vehicles
  • All of the above

Question 112

Question
Who is responsible for conducting changeover?
Answer
  • On coming SF member(s)
  • Off going SF member(s)
  • Both on coming and off going SF members
  • none of the above

Question 113

Question
What can be activated on the hand held radios to indicate duress?
Answer
  • Encrypt button
  • Push to talk button
  • Home button
  • Duress button

Question 114

Question
What is the purpose of challenging an individual?
Answer
  • Determine hostile from non-hostile
  • Place the suspect in a difficult situation
  • make a positive ID
  • Both A and C

Question 115

Question
Military members who violate any firearm safety standard are subject to administrative or disciplinary proceedings under article _________ of the UCMJ?
Answer
  • Article 104
  • Article 36
  • Article 92
  • Article 87

Question 116

Question
What must be present prior to clearing a firearm?
Answer
  • trained clearing barrel attendant
  • an authorized clearing area
  • clearing barrel
  • all of the above

Question 117

Question
When is a LACE report typically upchanneled?
Answer
  • During contact of enemy engagement
  • before sf engagement
  • After SF engagement with enemy
  • Once enemy contact has taken place

Question 118

Question
What does SALUTE stand for?
Answer
  • Size, Activity, Liquid, Unit, Time, Enemy
  • Size, Activity, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment
  • Size, Activity, Location, Unit,Time, Equipment
  • Size, Ammo, Location, Uniform, Time, Enemy

Question 119

Question
Which factors affect range estimates?
Answer
  • Nature of the object
  • Nature of terrain
  • Light Conditions
  • All of the above

Question 120

Question
Which method of range determination is best used at night?
Answer
  • Appearance of object method
  • 100 meter unit of measure method
  • flash and sound method
  • the mil-relation method

Question 121

Question
Operational keying material is classified as what?
Answer
  • TOP SECRET
  • SECRET/CRYPTO/NOFORN
  • CLASSIFIED
  • DoD UCNI

Question 122

Question
How often should PCCs and PCIs be performed?
Answer
  • Daily
  • Weekly
  • Monthly
  • Upon leadership request

Question 123

Question
Flight leaders ensure sectors of fire are adjacent with other sectors. This happens when more than one position can fire a weapon system at the same target.
Answer
  • FPL
  • PDF
  • Interlocking fields of fire
  • sectors of fire

Question 124

Question
_______________ are designated to ensure adequate distribution and interlocking of fire across the flight front?
Answer
  • Weather and road conditions
  • Availability of personnel
  • Sectors of fire
  • Structures used during implantation

Question 125

Question
Individuals receiving authenticators must not make any record (written or electronic) of the authenticator nor permit its compromise at any time. Who will remind individuals receiving authenticators of these requirements?
Answer
  • KCCC
  • MSC
  • MOCC
  • TCC

Question 126

Question
Individuals receiving what must not make any record (written or electronic) of it, nor permit its compromise at any time?
Answer
  • Authenticators
  • KL-86A
  • COMSEC FORM 16
  • KL-85A

Question 127

Question
What gives SF the authority to apprehend military members?
Answer
  • UCMJ, Title 18
  • The Manual for Courts-artial, Rules for Courts-Martial Rule 302 (B) (1), and UCMJ, Article 7(b)
  • U.S. Constitution, Defense Force Commander
  • U.S. Government and the U.S. Armed Forces

Question 128

Question
Which act prevents Army and Air Force personnel from executing the laws of the states or the laws of the U.S. except when acting under the authority of the U.S. Constitution?
Answer
  • Posse Comitatus Act
  • Assimilative Crimes Act
  • LOAC
  • Lautenberg Act

Question 129

Question
A MEED can hold how many field keys?
Answer
  • Three
  • Two
  • One
  • Four

Question 130

Question
What maintenance is Security Forces authorized to conduct on a MEED unit?
Answer
  • Changing the batteries
  • adjusting bent pins
  • cleaning the connector and battery compartment
  • All of the above

Question 131

Question
One field key can encrypt or decrypt how many messages?
Answer
  • 1000 Messages
  • 2000 Messages
  • 500 Messages
  • 800 Messages

Question 132

Question
What type of maintenance of MEED devices is prohibited?
Answer
  • Internal maintenance
  • All maintenance is authorized (KCCC must be notified for internal maintenance)
  • wiping the screen (Causes abrasion scuffs)
  • Exterior maintenance

Question 133

Question
Battery life for the PVS-14 is typically how many hours?
Answer
  • 20 hours
  • 85 hours
  • 70 hours
  • 110 hours

Question 134

Question
What is accomplished when an individual believes the device in their possession may be compromised by overt or covert means, or when ordered by competent authority?
Answer
  • Routine Zeroization
  • Zeroization
  • Emergency Zeroization
  • Turn the MEED off

Question 135

Question
When does the routine zeroization of a field key in the HHU occur?
Answer
  • When the team member issued that key returns the HHU to KCCC
  • Anytime the individual believes the device in their possession may be compromised
  • When the team member returns to the MAF after LF checks
  • When told to do so by competent authority because the MEED may be compromised by overt or covert means

Question 136

Question
To be considered for this particular specialty, you must have graduated Close Precision Engagement Course or M107, .50 cal rifle course
Answer
  • Sharp-shooters
  • Marksmen
  • Expert
  • Sniper

Question 137

Question
Upon graduating Close Precision Engagement Course, Sharp-shooters will always be a what?
Answer
  • 4-man fire team
  • 2-man team
  • TRF team
  • .50 cal certified

Question 138

Question
What does the acronym ADM stand for?
Answer
  • Aeronautical Decision Making
  • Architectural Development Method
  • Advanced Development Model
  • Advanced Designated Marksman

Question 139

Question
What is the LF security guarding requirements for an open launcher at a site with a RS present?
Answer
  • 15/5 RF + 2 Person SET
  • 15/5 RF + 1 Person SET
  • 15/5 RF + 2 Person SRT
  • 15/5 RF + 2 Person ESET

Question 140

Question
One MFT must be positioned where during all penetrated sites and open launchers at a site with a RS present?
Answer
  • One MFT must be positioned on or adjacent to the access road
  • At the closest main intersection
  • On the right side of the road in such a manner as to slow down oncoming traffic
  • within weapons range to the 3 o'clock of the LF

Question 141

Question
What is the LF guarding requirements for a penetrated site with a RS present?
Answer
  • Two person armed SET with external access road team
  • 15/5 RF + 2 SET
  • 2 Person CAT
  • 4 Person CAT

Question 142

Question
What is the LF guarding requirements for B-plug maintenance?
Answer
  • 15/5 RF + 2 Person SET
  • 15/5 RF
  • 2 Person SET + External Team
  • External 3-man only

Question 143

Question
How will SF personnel patrol the topside of the LF for B-plug maintenance?
Answer
  • Two SET guards must remain in vehicle at all times
  • Both SF members remain outside of vehicle
  • One SF will patrol the LF surface and one may be in vehicle
  • Both SF members patrol in vehicle constantly

Question 144

Question
What are the LF guarding requirements for RS present (insecure B-plug) without a Maintenance team on site?
Answer
  • 15/5 RF
  • 15/5 RF + 2-Person SET
  • 2-Person SET
  • 15/5 RF + 4-Person CAT

Question 145

Question
The Metal-frisk Trans frisker functions by creating an electromagnetic field around the probe (wand) with a radius of approximately how many inches?
Answer
  • 18 inches
  • 16 inches
  • 15 inches
  • 17 inches

Question 146

Question
What type of maintenance is an SF member authorized to perform on a MEED device?
Answer
  • Cleaning and adjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts
  • Adjusting bent pins
  • Adjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts
  • Cleaning and adjusting the connector to include the battery compartment contacts and adjusting bent pins

Question 147

Question
The KL-86 and KL-85 are given what classification when unkeyed
Answer
  • DoD UCNI
  • UNCLASSIFIED
  • SECRET
  • CONFIDENTIAL

Question 148

Question
The KL-86 and KL-85 are handled as and controlled as what?
Answer
  • Cryptographic items
  • Confidential items
  • Classified items
  • Secret items

Question 149

Question
The KL-86 and KL-85 perform what functions
Answer
  • Sensitive cryptographic functions
  • Sensitive functions
  • Online cypher functions
  • Classified functions

Question 150

Question
When transferring HHUs, complete what sections of the AFGSC FORM 247?
Answer
  • One and Two
  • One and Three
  • Two and Three
  • Only section Three

Question 151

Question
Use what form to issue, transfer, and receipt for a MEED unit from the location the MEED unit is assigned?
Answer
  • AFGSC FORM 245
  • AFGSC FORM 246
  • AFGSC FORM 247
  • AFGSC FORM 577

Question 152

Question
What must a team arriving at the MAF gate pass the FSC?
Answer
  • Their trip number, team chief's name and number of personnel
  • Team chief's name and rank, and number of personnel
  • Their trip number, team chief's name and rank, and status
  • Their trip number, team chief's name and rank, and number of personnel

Question 153

Question
What form(s) must your information be verified against prior to the FSC allowing entry to the MAF?
Answer
  • AFGSC FORM 245/MADO/EAL
  • AFGSC FORM 246/MADO/EAL
  • AFGSC FORM 246/EAL
  • AFGSC FORM 245/MADO

Question 154

Question
What are the standard methods of passing dispatch information for MAF entry?
Answer
  • Vehicle radios only
  • Gate phone
  • Vehicle radios or the gate phone
  • Vehicle radios, Cell phone or the gate phone

Question 155

Question
Visual inspections of personnel requiring escorted entry to the SCC, elevator shaft way, LCEB and/or LCC will consist of what?
Answer
  • Removing all items from pockets and a visual inspection of the individual and all hand-carried items
  • A visual inspection of the individual and all hand-carried items
  • A physical search of personnel requesting entry and a visual inspection of all hand-carried items
  • Removing all items from pockets and a visual inspection of the individual

Question 156

Question
Emergency vehicles transporting seriously injured personnel will not be what?
Answer
  • Delayed for inspections
  • Authorized on the MAF
  • Monitored closely while in secured areas
  • None of the above

Question 157

Question
Who is the approval authority for teams entering LFs
Answer
  • Flight Leadership
  • FSC
  • MCC
  • MSC

Question 158

Question
Who will grant permission for all trips to depart the site?
Answer
  • MSC and MCC
  • FSC and MSC
  • FSC and Flight Leadership
  • FSC and MCC

Question 159

Question
What must all teams requesting entry into an LF pass the FSC prior to entry?
Answer
  • Their trip number, team chief's name and rank, number of personnel and the LF number
  • Their trip number, rank, number of personnel and LF number
  • Their trip number, Team Chiefs name and rank, number of personnel and status
  • They are required two good authentications prior to entry

Question 160

Question
Who is the exception and may be allowed on to a site with a security situation in progress?
Answer
  • Transient capsule crews
  • Team Chief
  • Maintenance teams
  • Responding security teams

Question 161

Question
Subsequent follow-on teams may not need to do what if the on-site team chief, or assistant team chief personally recognizes and vouches for the team chief requesting entry?
Answer
  • pass combinations
  • crew composition
  • Authenticate
  • Personal recognition is not authorized

Question 162

Question
What must be passed to penetrate the LF?
Answer
  • "A" and "B" combinations
  • "A" combinations
  • "B" combinations
  • proper authentications

Question 163

Question
The "A" circuit combination known only to the SET, holds what classification?
Answer
  • DoD UCNI
  • UCNI
  • SECRET
  • CLASSIFIED

Question 164

Question
What circuit combination must be changed by maintenance personnel trained and qualified to accomplish the task?
Answer
  • "A" side
  • "B" side
  • Team chief and Set guard
  • "A" or "B" side may open the pit vault door

Question 165

Question
What combinations must be changed at least annually or immediately when compromised?
Answer
  • maintenance combinations
  • "B" Circuit combinations
  • locally selected unclassified combinations
  • "A" Circuit Combinations

Question 166

Question
Security Forces may perform critical emergency maintenance tasks as directed by MMOC. What emergency maintenance tasks are SF personnel authorized to perform and if not accomplished in minimum time would result in damage to equipment?
Answer
  • Environmental control system resets
  • Primary power system resets
  • A only
  • A and B

Question 167

Question
When SF are performing critical emergency maintenance tasks, who must specifically authorize and control those tasks?
Answer
  • MSC and MCC
  • MMOC
  • MCC
  • MMOC, MSC, FSC and Flight Leadership

Question 168

Question
At a minimum, all information that would reveal a movement is planned or scheduled shall be classified as what?
Answer
  • CONFIDENTIAL
  • FOUO
  • SECRET
  • DoD UCNI

Question 169

Question
When a nuclear weapon movement destination, route, and timeline are combined into a single document or briefing, the document or briefing is classified what, until the movement is complete?
Answer
  • CONFIDENTIAL/FRD
  • FOUO
  • SECRET
  • DoD UCNI

Question 170

Question
Upon completion of the movement, a document or briefing that contains a nuclear weapon movement, destination, route, and timeline reverts to what classification?
Answer
  • CONFIDENTIAL/FRD
  • FOUO
  • SECRET
  • DoD UCNI

Question 171

Question
Information concerning times, routes and destinations shall be handled on _________ and controlled as appropriate.
Answer
  • A strict need to know basis
  • A strict confidential basis
  • A commander level
  • A strict secret or higher level

Question 172

Question
Dissemination, display, and access to information concerning impending or actual movements shall be limited to whom?
Answer
  • The minimum essential personnel to support the mission
  • Group commanders or their designated representatives
  • The public Affairs committee
  • 341 MW leadership

Question 173

Question
During all types of movement, progress reports shall be made to a control center tasked with plotting the progress of the movement and initiating a response in case of alarm or loss of communication at least every how many minutes?
Answer
  • 10
  • 15
  • 20
  • 30

Question 174

Question
Prior to entering the LF, who pre-announces the convoy composition to the FSC or MCC
Answer
  • The Convoy CC
  • The Convoy FC
  • CC's Driver
  • The Highest ranking in the convoy movement

Question 175

Question
If the on-site team chief cannot make positive personal recognition, the convoy CC and another MEED equipped member must contact who, and authenticate after the PT has entered the LF?
Answer
  • FSC
  • MSC
  • MCC
  • MOC

Question 176

Question
If the on-site team chief cannot make positive personal recognition, the convoy CC and another MEED equipped member must contact the FSC and authenticate when?
Answer
  • After the PT has entered the LF
  • Before the PT has entered the LF
  • After the Convoy CC has entered the LF
  • Before the Convoy CC has entered the LF

Question 177

Question
Prior to entering the WSA, the Convoy CC pre-announces the convoy composition to whom?
Answer
  • The SSCC and EC
  • The parent FSC
  • MSC
  • MMOC

Question 178

Question
Who visually observes the convoy's approach and continues to keep the vehicles under visual observation until entry procedures are completed?
Answer
  • The EC, or designated individual
  • Panther Lead
  • CSC via RTES
  • CFC

Question 179

Question
Prior to entering the MAF, who pre-announces the convoy composition to the FSC or MCC?
Answer
  • The Convoy CC
  • The Convoy FC
  • CC's Driver
  • The highest ranking in the convoy movement

Question 180

Question
During MAF entry procedures, who visually observes the convoy's approach and continues to keep the vehicles under visual observation until entry procedures are completed?
Answer
  • FSC
  • MCC
  • MSC
  • CFC

Question 181

Question
The RF shall arrive before a hostile force can penetrate the secure portions of the LF, but in not more than how many minutes?
Answer
  • 45
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90

Question 182

Question
The BF shall be dispatched concurrently with the RF and shall arrive at the threatened LF in not more than how many minutes?
Answer
  • 45
  • 30
  • 60
  • 90

Question 183

Question
During a Recapture Operation, those actions, proportional to the threat, that disrupt the adversary and delay them from meaningful work in order to prevent theft, damage, sabotage, destruction, or detonation of a nuclear weapon best describes what?
Answer
  • Denial/Final Denial Fire
  • Containment
  • Assess
  • Immediate Sufficient Duress

Question 184

Question
The ability of the security forces to place effective fire on the entrances to facilities or platforms containing nuclear weapons best describes what?
Answer
  • Immediate sufficient duress
  • Denial
  • Containment
  • Final Denial

Question 185

Question
What is the immediate determination of the level of access an enemy force has achieved or their physical proximity in relation to areas containing nuclear resources?
Answer
  • Assess
  • Control
  • Immediate Sufficient Duress
  • Final Denial

Question 186

Question
The actions taken by the security force to neutralize hostile persons in the area surrounding the nuclear weapon defines what?
Answer
  • Control
  • Assault
  • Assess
  • Denial

Question 187

Question
To physically regain possession of resources and locations containing nuclear weapons and ensure a minimum of two personnel are positioned to control entry to the affected area (as determined by the on-scene commander) during Recapture or Recovery Operations defines what?
Answer
  • Control
  • Assess
  • Final Denial
  • Restore Government Control

Question 188

Question
A payload transporter carrying a nuclear weapon with a malfunction, breakdown, or other non-hostile condition(s) off base and deemed long-term may require a what?
Answer
  • Dull Sword
  • National Defense Area (NDA)
  • Covered Wagon
  • Safe Haven

Question 189

Question
Who approves establishment of the National Defense Area (NDA)?
Answer
  • Convoy Commander
  • Squadron level or higher commander
  • Group level or higher commander
  • Wing level or higher commander

Question 190

Question
Who will establish the initial area and direct actions to expedite NDA approval?
Answer
  • Convoy Flight Chief
  • Convoy CC
  • A MEED equipped convoy member
  • Two MEED equipped convoy members
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