11589742
Pregunta 1
Pregunta
What is used for Oxacillin Screens?
Respuesta
-
MH + oxacillin
-
MH + 4% NaCl + oxacillin
-
MH with Sheep blood + 4% NaCl + oxacillin
-
MH with sheep blood + Oxacillin
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
What is used in a vancomycin screen?
Respuesta
-
BHI + vanc
-
BHI + vanc + 4% NaCl
-
MH + vanc + 4% NaCl
-
MH + vanc
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
If the MIC is 0.08ug/mL for a staphylococcus aureus organism, how should we report this?
Respuesta
-
report as resistant
-
report as susceptible
-
it is not relevant
-
confirm susceptibility with penicillin zone edge test
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Which of these are associated with infection control significant VRE organisms?
Respuesta
-
vanC gene
-
vanA and VanB gene
-
yellow pigment of colonies
-
motility observed on wet prep
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
what should you expect to see on an MRSA select II agar?
Respuesta
-
magenta colonies
-
no growth
-
blue colonies
-
growth if it is MRSA
-
growth if it is MSSA
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
What additional testing should you do if you see growth on MRSA select II agar?
Respuesta
-
staphaurex
-
tube coagulase
-
PBP2' agglutination
-
oxacillin screen
-
vancomycin screen
-
oxidase
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
What are the next steps for growth on a brilliance VRE?
Respuesta
-
gram stain and catalase
-
gram stain
-
gram stain and oxidase
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
what do you expect to see with an VRE organism?
Respuesta
-
gram positive cocci in chains and pairs
-
catalase negative
-
PYR positive
-
DNase positive
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
What are the next steps after PYR is performed on a VRE suspect?
Respuesta
-
vitek GPI
-
vitek AST
-
vancomycin screen
-
oxacillin screen
-
penicillin screen
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
What will grow on a BEAA plate?
Respuesta
-
staphylococcus species
-
enterobacteriacaea species
-
haemophilus species
-
enterococcus species
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
A [blank_start]positive[blank_end] penicillin zone edge test will give a [blank_start]cliff[blank_end] edge.
Respuesta
-
positive
-
cliff
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
Penicillin zone edge test is more sensitive for [blank_start]beta lactamase[blank_end] detection.
Respuesta
-
beta lactamase
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
A negative penicillin zone edge test will have a beach edge.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
when do we call ICP (infection control practitioner)?
Respuesta
-
isolated a super bug i.e. MRSA
-
isolated GC
-
isolated S.pneumoniae
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
Methicillin [blank_start]resistant[blank_end] Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) isolated. Please follow [blank_start]infection control[blank_end] procedures. Further report to follow.
Respuesta
-
resistant
-
infection control
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
How do we differentiate between a class A ESBL and a class C ESBL?
Respuesta
-
Phenotypic confirmatory testing
-
PYR
-
Staphaurex
-
Bile Esculin hydrolysis
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Class A ESBL organisms are inhibited by?
Respuesta
-
beta-lactamase inhibitors
-
clavulanic acid
-
penicillins
-
clindamycin
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
What classifies a class A ESBL?
Respuesta
-
potentiation when combined with clavulanic acid
-
susceptible to cefoxitin
-
resistance to cefoxitin
-
zone of >15mm on cefoxitin
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
class C ESBLs are resistant to 3rd generation cephalosporins, clavulanic acid and cephamycins such as cefoxitin.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
SPICE group are intrinsically resistant to ampicillin, cephalosporins and cefoxitin.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
What antibiotics are used in PCT?
Respuesta
-
cefotaxime
-
cefotaxime + clavulanic acid
-
ceftazidime
-
ceftazidime + clavulanic acid
-
cefoxitin
-
vancomycin + clavulanic acid
-
ampicillin + clavulanic acid
-
ampicillin
-
vancomycin
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
Escherichia coli class [blank_start]A[blank_end] ESBL. Please follow [blank_start]infection control[blank_end] procedures.
Respuesta
-
infection control
-
A
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
SPICE organisms are;
Respuesta
-
Serratia spp.
-
pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
indole positive proteus (morganella and providencia spp.)
-
citrobacter spp.
-
enterobacter spp.
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
Which antibiotics are reported as resistant with a class A ESBL?
Respuesta
-
all beta-lactam drugs
-
carbapenems
-
cephamycin
-
beta-lactam inhibitor combinations
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
Which antibiotics are not reported as resistant for a class A ESBL?
Respuesta
-
carbapenems
-
cephamycins
-
penicillin
-
oxacillin
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
Bacterial meningitis in neonates can be caused by
Respuesta
-
Group B streptococcus
-
E.coli
-
Listeria monocytogenes
-
Neisseria meningitidis
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Bacterial meningitis in infants 6 months to 5 years old can be caused by?
Respuesta
-
Haemophilus influenza type b
-
Neisseria meningitidis
-
Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
E.coli
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
Bacterial meningitis in older children and adults can be caused by?
Respuesta
-
Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
Neisseria meningitidis
-
Listeria monocytogenes
-
Group B Streptococcus
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
What is normal skin flora?
Respuesta
-
Bacillus spp
-
Corynebacterium spp. diphtheroids, urea negative
-
coagulase negative Staphylococcus species except for S. lugdunensis
-
Proprionibacterium spp
-
Alpha hemolytic streptococcus
-
Nonpathogenic Neisseria spp
-
Bacteroides spp
-
Enterobacteriaceae spp
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
For an aerotolerance test, what disks do you use for a GPC?
Respuesta
-
bile
-
SPS
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
For an aerotolerance test, what disks would you use for a GNB?
Respuesta
-
bile
-
SPS
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
You must report AST for superficial ear and eye isolates.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
When do you use a NYC plate?
Respuesta
-
When GC is requested by doctor
-
When GC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1
-
When the patient is under 2 weeks old
-
When GPDC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
Bodily fluids such as CSF or tympanocentesis fluid will contain some normal flora.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
What organism is this? oxidase+, nitrate reduced to nitrite, GNDC, strict aerobic, on BA-sm, grey, NH, dry
Respuesta
-
Moraxella catarrhalis
-
Neisseria meningitis
-
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase-, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need V factor
Respuesta
-
Haemophilus parainfluenza
-
Haemophilus influenzae
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase+, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need X and V factor
Respuesta
-
Haemophilus influenzae
-
Haemophilus parainfluenzae
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
What organism is this? strict anaerobe, large GPB, double zone hemolysis, reverse camp+, catalase-
Respuesta
-
Clostridium perfringens
-
Clostridium spp
-
Bacillus spp
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
what organism is this? large GPB, large tan colonies, BH, motile at RT and 35 degrees
Respuesta
-
Bacillus spp
-
Clostridium perfringens
-
corynebacterium spp
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
What organism is this? sm GNB, on BA-med grey NH, catalase+, strict anaerobe
Respuesta
-
Bacteriodes spp
-
Enterobacteriacaea spp
-
Listeria monocytogenes
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
What organism is this? facultative, sm GPB, urea negative, on BA-sm white NH
Respuesta
-
Corynebacterium diphtheroid
-
Corynebacterium ulcerans
-
Listeria monocytogenes
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
What causes the Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease?
Respuesta
-
Enterovirus
-
Hentavirus
-
Parvovirus
-
Rubivirus
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
What is the role of micro RNA?
Respuesta
-
keeps latent virus-infected cells alive
-
it is a part of prions
-
RNA codes for micro proteins
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
A 55-year old make just returned from a trip from Saudi Arabia. He was rushed to the ER with symptoms of acute respiratory illness. His condition rapidly progressed to pneumonitis and multi-organ failure. This patient has:
Respuesta
-
Tularemia
-
Cat Scratch disease
-
Rat bite fever
-
MERS
-
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
What animals have been found to be carriers of MERS?
Respuesta
-
Bat
-
Rabbit
-
Camel
-
All of the above
-
Camel and Bats
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
Which of these viruses causes MERS?
Respuesta
-
Hantavirus
-
Coronavirus
-
Lentivirus
-
Enterovirus
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
What is the gold standard for laboratory diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Respuesta
-
Culture
-
Clinical presentation
-
Immunofluorescence
-
PCR
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
A 22-year old female was hiking in the Rocky Mountains. A few days later she had a headache, fever and flat pink macules on her trunk and ankles. The lab found Rickettsii rickettsia. What is the vector of this infection?
Respuesta
-
Mosquito
-
Tick
-
Black fly
-
Rat
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
What is the Gram stain and motility of the Rickettsii rickettsia infection?
Respuesta
-
GPB, motile
-
GPB, non-motile
-
GNB, motile
-
GNB, non-motile
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
What is the atmospheric preference of Brucella?
Respuesta
-
facultative anaerobe
-
strict anaerobe
-
strict aerobe
-
capnophile
-
strict aerobe and capnophile
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT ta type of Brucella species?
Respuesta
-
Brucella suis
-
Brucella canis
-
Brucella abortus
-
Brucella melitensis
-
Brucella tigris
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
What clinical manifestation of Brucellosis?
Respuesta
-
arthritis
-
valve endocarditis
-
malta fever
-
Bieber fever
-
arthritis and malta fever
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for leptospirosis?
Respuesta
-
microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
-
MALDI
-
Latex agglutination
-
PCR
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
What does leptospirosis look like under dark-field microscopy?
Respuesta
-
tumbling motility
-
long bacilli
-
question mark/interrogation points
-
branching bacilli
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
A patient presents with meningoencephalitis with multi system involvement (jaundice, kidney failure). Chemistry results reveal elevated kidney and liver enzymes. Culturing the organism proved to be difficult. What bacterial disease is suspected?
Respuesta
-
Brucellosis
-
Leptospirosis
-
MERS
-
Plague
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
Which organism causes the plague?
Respuesta
-
Francisella tularensis
-
Leptospira interrogans
-
Yersinia pestis
-
Bartonella henselae
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
What is the main reservoir for the organism responsible for the plague?
Respuesta
-
birds
-
deer ticks
-
fleas of rats
-
cats
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
Which of the following correctly describes the Gram stain of the organism responsible for the plague?
Respuesta
-
GNB with 'safety pin' appearance
-
GPC pairs
-
Filamentous GPB
-
large GPB with subterminal spores
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
What organism causes Rat Bite Fever?
Respuesta
-
Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
-
Streptobacillus moniliformis
-
Pasteurella multocida
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
What is the virulence factor of Streptobacillus moniliformis?
Respuesta
-
inhibits phagocytosis
-
convert to D form allowing it to survive in the host
-
convert to L form allowing it to survive in the host
-
secretes pyogenic toxin
-
none of the above
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Streptocbacillus moniformis?
Respuesta
-
molar tooth
-
fried egg
-
dry, hockey puck
-
medusa head
-
no distinct characteristic
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Laboratory diagnosis of hantavirus includes the following techniques except?
Respuesta
-
IgM antibody detection
-
PCR
-
Viral culture
-
Rising IgG antibody titre
-
Immunohistochemistry
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
Which zoonotic microorganism is associated with potentially fatal pulmonary symptoms which have been described as a sensation of ‘tight band around chest’ or ‘pillow over the face’?
Respuesta
-
Zika virus
-
Francisella tularensis
-
Bartonella henselae
-
Hantavirus
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
What is the primary strategy for preventing hantavirus infection?
Respuesta
-
Usage of insect repellent
-
Avoidance of contact with feral cats
-
Improved water quality and sanitation
-
Avoidance of pigeon droppings
-
Rodent control in and around the home
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
Which of the following causes microcephaly in infants?
Respuesta
-
Zika Virus
-
Cytomegalovirus
-
Rubella
-
All of the above
-
None of the above
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a mode of transmission for Zika virus?
Respuesta
-
Mosquito bite
-
Airborne
-
Sexual contact
-
Infected mother to child
-
Blood transfusion
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
What condition can be associated with Zika virus?
Respuesta
-
Malaria
-
West Nile Fever
-
Yellow Fever
-
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
-
Chikungunya
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
Bartonella henselae is the specific cause of:
Respuesta
-
Rat bite fever
-
Beaver fever
-
Cat Scratch Disease
-
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
-
Zika
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
A patient presents lack of appetite, wounds with lesions and has a history of working at an animal shelter. Biopsy of the lesion shows GNB but no growth or cultures was seen after 24 hours. What is the best reason for this?
Respuesta
-
Organism is an anaerobe
-
Organism is a slow grower
-
Organism requires special media
-
Organism is a capnophile
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
What is not a symptom of Cat Scratch Disease?
Respuesta
-
Papule or Pustule at bite on scratch site
-
Lymphadenpathy
-
Anorexia for 1-3 weeks
-
Tissue necrosis at wound area
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
Which form of oropharyngeal tularemia causes photophobia?
Respuesta
-
Pneumonic form
-
Oculoglandular form
-
Systemic typhoidal form
-
Exudative form
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
A patient at a clinic showed fevers, chills and headache. A swab of the lesions was sent for culture and sensitivity. After questioning, it was determined the patient was an avid rabbit hunter. The Gram showed GNB organism intracellularly in reticuloendothelial cells. It grew only aerobically and grew on special media containing iron and cysteine. What probable disease could have caused the infection?
Respuesta
-
Cat Scratch Disease
-
Tularemia
-
Zika virus
-
Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
What organism causes Tularemia?
Respuesta
-
Neisseria species
-
Legionella
-
Francisella
-
Salmonella
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
Scabies
Respuesta
-
itching
-
rash
-
Sarcoptes scabiei
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
Respuesta
-
self limiting
-
sandfly
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
Herpes
Respuesta
-
latent, lifelong infection
-
neuronal ganglia
-
Type 1 - cold sores
-
Type 2 - sexually transmitted infections
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
Varicella zoster
Respuesta
-
chicken pox
-
shingles
-
highly contagious, rash, red spots
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
Fifth Disease
Respuesta
-
Parvovirus B19
-
slapped cheek
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
Actinomyces
Respuesta
-
sulphur granules
-
anaerobe
-
acid fast negative
-
chronic, granulomatous infectious disease
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
Nocardia
Respuesta
-
ubiquitous in nature
-
aerobic
-
acid fast negative
-
GPB, branching
-
modified acid fast positive
-
BA- white, chalky, dry, smooth
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
Madura Foot
Respuesta
-
Nocardia and S.aureus
-
Madurella mycetomi, Actinomadura, others
-
outdoor labourers
-
no person to person transmission
-
All of them
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
Tinea versicolor
Respuesta
-
Malassezia furfur
-
superficial skin infection
-
lipid loving fungus
-
spaghetti and meatballs under the microscope
-
All of the above
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
Bacillus anthracis
Respuesta
-
dormant spore form can survive for long periods of time and in harsh conditions
-
highly lethal
-
transmitted by inhalation, ingesting and contact with skin lesions
-
glutamic acid capsule - evades phagocytosis
-
lethal factor + edema factor + protective factor = becomes active
-
eschar - black ulcerative skin lesion
-
GPB with subterminal spores, aerobic, non-motile, NH, Cat+
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
Mycobacteria
Respuesta
-
thin bacilli, non-motile, aerobe
-
N-glucolymuramic acid and mycolic acids in cell wall
-
acid fast positive
-
All of the above
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
Mycobacterium leprae
Respuesta
-
mainly affects skin and nerves
-
claw hand and drop foot
-
Tuberculoid and Lepromatous form
-
not highly contagious
-
all of the above
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
what is rhabdomyolysis?
Respuesta
-
breakdown of skeletal muscle
-
overproduction of collagen
-
inflammation or swelling of muscles
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
how are diabetic patients affected in muscle disorders?
Respuesta
-
vascular insufficiency
-
poor blood supply
-
antibiotic ineffectiveness
-
insulin deficiency
-
increased in glucose makes them more prone
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
Osteomyelitis:
Respuesta
-
pyogenic organisms
-
occurs rapidly in children
-
occurs rapidly in adults
-
S.aureus is the most common cause
-
in children under 2, spreads into the diaphysis
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
Capnocytophaga canimorsus:
Respuesta
-
GNB
-
zoonotic
-
treat with cephalosporins
-
common in asplenic patients
-
all except for 'treat with cephalosporin'
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
Pasteurella multocida:
Respuesta
-
dog bites
-
can cause osteomyelitis or endocarditis
-
GPB
-
spot indole +
Pregunta 91
Pregunta
septic arthritis:
Respuesta
-
inflammation of synovial membrane
-
damage to cartilage
-
examining the joint fluid is diagnostic
-
this is not real
-
mild and preventable
Pregunta 92
Pregunta
what can cause septic arthritis?
Respuesta
-
S.aureus
-
Peptostreptococcus
-
Brucella
-
Mycobacteria
Pregunta 93
Pregunta
Reactive arthritis:
Respuesta
-
non-infectious inflammatory joint disease
-
Neisseria meningitidis
-
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
-
GAS
-
GBS
Pregunta 94
Pregunta
what do we make note of when inspecting synovial fluid?
Respuesta
-
volume
-
color
-
odor
-
turbidity
-
protein content
-
glucose content
-
WBC
Pregunta 95
Pregunta
Osteoarthritis:
Respuesta
-
the most common form of arthritis
-
thinning of cartilage
-
synovial hypertrophy
-
in both male and females
-
all of the options
Pregunta 96
Pregunta
Artificial arthritis:
Respuesta
-
biofilm formation
-
difficult to treat
-
normal skin flora is agent
-
cannot treat, will result in amputation
Pregunta 97
Pregunta
what can cause bacterial conjunctivitis?
Respuesta
-
Neisseria spp
-
S. pneumoniae
-
S. aureus
-
Candida spp
-
anaerobes
Pregunta 98
Pregunta
cause of viral conjunctivitis?
Respuesta
-
herpes simplex type 1 and 2
-
adenovirus
-
HIV
-
hentavirus
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