12946144
Descripción
Test por Cara Carter, actualizado hace más de 1 año
|
Creado por Cara Carter
hace más de 6 años
|
|
Pregunta 1
Pregunta
When is a glucose tolerance test conducted during pregnancy?
Respuesta
-
As soon as the pregnancy is discovered
-
At 36 weeks when the pregnancy is at term
-
24-28 weeks
-
35-37 weeks
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
When should a group B strep culture be conducted during a pregnancy?
Respuesta
-
At the end of the 1st trimester
-
35-37 weeks
-
24-28 weeks
-
27-36 weeks
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
During what time period should a pregnant mother receive a Tdap?
Respuesta
-
27-36 weeks
-
Prior to conception
-
At birth/delivery
-
35-37 weeks
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
What are the ABC's of initial pediatric assessment? (Check all that apply)
Respuesta
-
Breathing
-
Activity
-
Appearance
-
Blinking
-
Conciousness
-
Circulation
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
Newborn screening test newborns for conditions that are not detected by physical examination.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
What diseases can be detected by newborn screening? (Check all that apply)
Respuesta
-
Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
-
Sickle Cell Disease
-
Cystic Fibrosis
-
Endometriosis
-
Rheumatoid Arthritis
-
Homocystinuria
-
PKU
-
Primary Congenital Hypothyroidism
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
Breastfeeding should be started within the first [blank_start]hour[blank_end] of life and continued for at [blank_start]least[blank_end] [blank_start]six[blank_end] months.
Respuesta
-
day
-
hour
-
minute
-
week
-
least
-
most
-
twelve
-
five
-
nine
-
six
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
Babies being placed on their back to sleep came from the 1994 "Back to Sleep" campaign to reduce what?
Respuesta
-
Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome
-
Infant Suffication
-
Asthma
-
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
At what age should children play peek-a-boo, say mama or dada and stand alone or take steps?
Respuesta
-
12 months
-
18 months
-
24 months
-
9 months
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
Children should display what developmental milestones at 2 years? (Select all that apply)
Respuesta
-
Name items in a picture book
-
Complete potty-training
-
Show defiant behavior
-
Construct short sentences
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
An oral syringe should always be used to dose liquids for children.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
[blank_start]1-800-222-1222[blank_end] is the phone number to poison control.
Respuesta
-
1-800-222-1222
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
Things that can fit through a toilet paper roll can kill a child under 5.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
Which of the following are reasons that pediatric pharmacokinetics are different than adult pharmacokinetics?
Respuesta
-
CYP450 enzymes are still developing
-
Infants lack significant stomach acid
-
All of these are reasons
-
Infants have more body water
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a reason for increased percutaneous drug absorption in pediatrics?
Respuesta
-
Children have larger surface area to mass ratio
-
Children have greater skin hydration
-
Children have greater muscle mass
-
Children have thinner skin
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
A higher percentage of body water in infants leads to a larger volume of distribution
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Why do infants and neonates have higher free fraction of drugs?
Respuesta
-
Higher body water percentage
-
Lower protein stores
-
Lower muscle mass
-
Higher surface area to body mass ratio
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
What dose should be the absolute maximum dose for an obese child?
Respuesta
-
The extrapolated dose based on the child's weight
-
The dose at which results are seen
-
The adult maximum dose
-
The dose at which providers are comfortable with based on individual factors
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
What is meconium?
Respuesta
-
A term used for the first cry
-
A term used for the first bowel movement
-
A term used to describe the birth crawl
-
An element on the periodic table that only infants possess
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
Why is the APGAR scoring system used?
Respuesta
-
To determine if an infant is normal at birth
-
To determine if the infant will experience genetic abnormalities through out life
-
To assess for disease at birth
-
To put parents at ease
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
The first A in APGAR stands for [blank_start]appearance[blank_end] and is used to determine if a neonate's [blank_start]color[blank_end] is normal.
Respuesta
-
appearance
-
activity
-
angiogenesis
-
color
-
muscle tone
-
visible blood vessels
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
The P in APGAR stands for [blank_start]pulse[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
pulse
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
The GAR in APGAR stands for which of the following
Respuesta
-
Grimace, Activity, Respiration
-
Grin, Action, Respiration
-
Grimace, Action, Reflex
-
Grim, Activity, Reflex
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
Which of the following prophylaxis treatments and disorders are correctly matched
Respuesta
-
Gonococcal ophthalmia-erythromycin ointment or silver nitrate solution
-
Chlamydia- Oral amoxicillin
-
Vitamin K deficiency- IM phytonadione
-
Platelet aggregation-enoxaparin
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
What is respiratory distress syndrome?
Respuesta
-
The name given to a condition in which infants are born with only one lung
-
A developmental disorder in which lungs are immature at birth
-
Cystic Fibrosis when diagnosed in utero
-
Lack of airway operation due to asthma or COPD at birth
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
[blank_start]Surfactant[blank_end] deficiency, poor [blank_start]muscle[blank_end] development and incomplete development in the lungs are common causes of respiratory distress syndrome and typically seen in neonates less than [blank_start]28[blank_end] weeks.
Respuesta
-
28
-
Surfactant
-
muscle
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Which of the following is a common sign that an infant is struggling to breath?
Respuesta
-
Nasal flaring
-
Nasal salute
-
Excessive sleeping
-
Hyperactivity
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
Why is surfactant given to neonates experiencing respiratory distress syndrome? (Select all that apply)
Respuesta
-
It is the most simple and quickest treatment
-
To cause an increase in alveolar surface tension
-
It has been proven to reduce mortality and morbidity
-
None of these
-
All of these
-
To replace deficient amounts
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
What are tocolytics?
Respuesta
-
Drugs used to induce labor or contractions
-
Drugs used to stop labor or contractions
-
Drugs used during a cesarean section
-
Drugs used to increase fetal lung development
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
[blank_start]Indomethacin[blank_end] is given at 24-32 weeks to halt labor while [blank_start]calcium channel blockers[blank_end] are given at 32-34 weeks. [blank_start]magnesium sulfate[blank_end] is used for neuroprotective effects.
Respuesta
-
Indomethacin
-
Calcium Channel Blockers
-
Magnesium sulfate
-
calcium channel blockers
-
magnesium sulfate
-
indomethacin
-
magnesium sulfate
-
indomethacin
-
calcium channel blockers
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
Antenatal steroids are given to treat respiratory distress syndrome. Why?
Respuesta
-
They are thought to decrease overall morbidity and mortality
-
They decrease the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage
-
They decrease the incidence of patent ductus arteriosus
-
All of these are reasons to give antenatal steriods
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs and drug classes is correctly matched as first line therapy for bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
Respuesta
-
HCTZ (Diuretic)
-
Theophylline (Bronchodialator)
-
Inhaled Prednisone (Corticosteroid)
-
Furosemide (Potassium supplement)
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
Hypoxemia, reflex bradycardia, resuscitation and organ damage are concerns of what condition associated with prematurity?
Respuesta
-
Low birth weight
-
Respiratory distress syndrome
-
Apnea
-
Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
There is a positive correlation between the incidence of neonatal apnea and [blank_start]low birth weight[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
low birth weight
-
fetal lung development
-
cystic fibrosis
-
asthma
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
Prevention of apnea is thought to occur by competitively inhibiting adenosine. Which of the following drugs is thought to do this and thus is used to treat apnea?
Respuesta
-
Carbon dioxide
-
Theophylline
-
Caffeine
-
Azothioprine
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
In utero the blood flow from the placenta goes through the [blank_start]right[blank_end] side of the heart and bypasses the lungs via the [blank_start]ductus arteriosus[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
ductus arteriosus
-
right
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
What is the name of the condition when the ductus does not normally close on its own?
Respuesta
-
Open ductus
-
Patent ductus arteriosus
-
Infantile coronary artery syndrome
-
Early onset atrial fibrilation
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
What pharmacologic therapy is used to treat patent ductus arteriosus?
Respuesta
-
ACE inhibitors
-
Calcium Channel Blockers
-
Beta Blockers
-
Prostaglandin inhibitors
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
Ductal dependent [blank_start]congenital heart disease[blank_end] is the only reason to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.
Respuesta
-
congenital heart disease
-
congenital heart defect
-
arteriole bypass
-
arteriole stenosis
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
This drug causes vasodilation by direct effect on vascular and ductus arteriosus smooth muscle to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.
Respuesta
-
Ibuprofen
-
Indomethacin
-
Pseudophedrine
-
Alprostail
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
Match each of the congenital heart defects with their descriptions
[blank_start]Atrial Septal Defect[blank_end] -Opening between atria
[blank_start]Ventricular Septal Defect[blank_end] -Opening between ventricles
[blank_start]Coarctation of Aorta[blank_end] -Narrowing of the aorta
[blank_start]Transposition of Great Arteries[blank_end] -Vessel connection of aorta and pulmonary artery
[blank_start]Tetralogy of Fallot[blank_end] -Opening between ventricles, right ventricular outflow obstruction and right aorta shift
[blank_start]Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome[blank_end] -Underdeveloped left ventricle, opening between atria, small aorta, vessel connecting aorta and pulmonary artery
Respuesta
-
Transposition of Great Arteries
-
Atrial Septal Defect
-
Ventricular Septal Defect
-
Coarctation of Aorta
-
Tetralogy of Fallot
-
Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
-
Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
-
Tetralogy of Fallot
-
Atrial Sepatal Defect
-
Ventricular Septal Defect
-
Coarctation of Aorta
-
Transposition of Great Arteries
-
Atrial Septal Defect
-
Ventricular Septal Defect
-
Coarctation of Aorta
-
Transposition of Great Arteries
-
Tetralogy of Fallot
-
Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
-
Ventricular Septal Defect
-
Atrial Septal Defect
-
Coarctation of Aorta
-
Transposition of Great Arteries
-
Tetralogy of Fallot
-
Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
-
Coarctation of Aorta
-
Transposition of Great Arteries
-
Tetralogy of Fallot
-
Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
-
Atrial Septal Defect
-
Ventricular Septal Defect
-
Tetralogy of Fallot
-
Transposition of Great Arteries
-
Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
-
Atrial Septal Defect
-
Ventricular Septal Defect
-
Coarctation of Aorta
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
Early onset sepsis occurs in the first [blank_start]7 days[blank_end], typically manifests as [blank_start]pneumonia[blank_end] and is caused by bacteria from [blank_start]the mother[blank_end]. Late onset sepsis occurs afters the first [blank_start]7 days[blank_end], typically manifests as [blank_start]meningitis and sepsis[blank_end] and is caused by bacteria from [blank_start]the environment[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
7 days
-
14 days
-
30 days
-
90 days
-
pneumonia
-
ear infection
-
difficulty breathing
-
heart problems
-
the mother
-
the environment
-
formula
-
neonatal cleaning
-
7 days
-
14 days
-
30 days
-
90 days
-
meningitis and sepsis
-
cold
-
pneumonia
-
cystic fibrosis
-
the environment
-
formula feedings
-
the mother
-
nosicomial setting
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
Listeria monocytogenes, E. Coli, Group B strep and H. influemzae are the common bacteria causing what?
Respuesta
-
The common cold
-
Hospital Acquired Pneumonia in infants
-
Early Onset Sepsis
-
Late Onset Sepsis
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
Which of the the following are typically used to treat early onset sepsis? (Select all that apply)
Respuesta
-
Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate
-
Ampicillin
-
Levofloxacin
-
Zosyn
-
Aminoglycosides
-
Cefotaxime
-
Ceftriaxone
-
Ceftaroline
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Late onset sepsis is usually treated with what?
Respuesta
-
Rest and BRAT diet
-
Broad spectrum antibiotics
-
Anti-viral or anti-retroviral therapy
-
Amoxicillin
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
TORCH is an acronym for a group of diseases that cause what due to in utero exposure?
Respuesta
-
congenital conditions
-
chronic conditions
-
neurodegenerative conditions
-
genetic conditions
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
The acronym TORCH stands for [blank_start]taxoplasmosis[blank_end], [blank_start]other[blank_end], [blank_start]rubella[blank_end], [blank_start]cytomegalovirus[blank_end], [blank_start]herpes infection[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
taxoplasmosis
-
trichomoniasis
-
other
-
oligobacteria
-
rubella
-
rabies
-
cytomegalovirus
-
Chlamydia
-
herpes infection
-
H. influenzae
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
Toxoplasmosis is caused by [blank_start]Toxoplasma gondii[blank_end] which is a [blank_start]protozoan parasite[blank_end] found in the feces of [blank_start]cats[blank_end] and contaminated [blank_start]meat or vegetables[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
Toxoplasma gondii
-
Treponema pallidum
-
Toxoplasma denticola
-
bacteria
-
protozoan parasite
-
virus
-
cats
-
dogs
-
fish
-
hamsters/rodents
-
meat or vegetables
-
fruit or vegetables
-
beans or poultry
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
Select all correctly matched congenitally acquired infectious diseases and their treatments
Respuesta
-
Vibrio cholerae- Amoxicillin
-
Trepodema pallidum -Penicillin G for 10 days
-
E. coli -Vancomycin
-
Streptococcus faecalis - Ceftriaxone
-
Klebsiella pneumoniae -Metronidazole
-
Cytomegalovirus -Ganciclovir
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
Match the congenitally acquired infectious diseases with their treatment.
Chlamydia trachomatis -[blank_start]systemic erythromycin or azithromycin[blank_end]
[blank_start]Hepatitis B[blank_end] - Vaccine and HBIG within 12 hours of birth
Herpes Simplex - [blank_start]High dose acyclovir[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
systemic erythromycin or azithromycin
-
oral vancomycin
-
IM cefazolin
-
Hepatitis A
-
Hepatitis B
-
Hepatitis C
-
HIV
-
High dose acyclovir
-
Low dose valacyclovir
-
Gancyclovir
-
Valgancyclovir
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
Finnergan Score is used to assess [blank_start]neonatal abstinence syndrome[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
neonatal abstinence syndrome
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
Which of the following are first line treatments for neonatal abstinence syndrome? (Select all that apply)
Respuesta
-
diazepam
-
morphine
-
hydromorphone
-
oxycodone
-
phenobarbital
-
methadone
-
clonidine
-
pseudoephedrine
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
[blank_start]TDAP[blank_end] vaccine is recommended more for the protection of children and infants and should be given every 10 years.
Respuesta
-
TDAP
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
What recombinant vaccine is recommended for immunocompromised individuals aged 50 and older?
Respuesta
-
Tdap
-
Shingrix
-
HiB
-
Prevnar 13
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
[blank_start]High dose[blank_end] or [blank_start]adjuvanted IIV[blank_end] are formulation of influenza vaccines recommended for people aged 65 and older.
Respuesta
-
High dose
-
IM
-
Intranasal
-
low dose
-
adjuvanted IIV
-
recombinant
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
Prevnar (PCV 13) and Pneumovax (PPSV23) are pneumococcal vaccinces recommended for whom?
Respuesta
-
Adults 65 and older
-
Adults 55 and older with a comorbidity
-
Immunocompetent individuals
-
A and C
-
All of the above
-
None of the above
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
The maximum number of doses of Pneumovax (PPSV23) that any person should receive is [blank_start]three[blank_end] with each dose being a minimum of [blank_start]five[blank_end] [blank_start]years[blank_end] apart.
Respuesta
-
three
-
two
-
four
-
five
-
five
-
three
-
two
-
four
-
years
-
months
-
days
-
weeks
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
When is the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine given?
Respuesta
-
At the first well baby check up
-
At birth
-
At 3 months
-
At hospital discharge
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
The minimum age for HPV vaccination is what?
Respuesta
-
thirteen in boys and nine in girls
-
nine
-
thirteen
-
nine in boys and thirteen in girls
-
puberty in box sexes
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
The [blank_start]second[blank_end] dose of the meningococcal vaccine is given at [blank_start]sixteen[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
second
-
first
-
third
-
thirteen
-
sixteen
-
eighteen
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
IIV formulation of the influenza vaccine can be given at what age minimum?
Respuesta
-
No age minimum
-
5 years
-
12 months
-
6 months
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
What vaccines are recommended for all pregnant women? (Select all that apply)
Respuesta
-
Tdap
-
Influenza
-
DTap
-
HiB
-
Herpes Zoster
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
Adults younger than 60 years old with [blank_start]diabetes[blank_end] are a high risk indication for the [blank_start]Hepatitis B[blank_end] vaccine
Respuesta
-
Hepatitis B
-
diabetes
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
Patients who smoke cigarettes should receive what vaccine if they are older than 18 and younger than 65?
Respuesta
-
Influenza
-
Hepatitis B
-
Pneumovax (PPSV23)
-
Tdap
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
Which of the following should be given to an AIDs patient (CD4 less than 200)?
Respuesta
-
Shingles
-
Varicella
-
MMR
-
All of these
-
None of these
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
An aspleenic person should be given which of the following vaccines to protect against encapsulated organisms? (Select all that apply)
Respuesta
-
HiB
-
Pneumococcal
-
Meningococcal
-
Influenza
-
Varicella
-
MMR
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
Proper hydration and arm movement do what post-immunization?
Respuesta
-
Nothing
-
Reduce soreness
-
Provide synergistic effects for the vaccine
-
Prevent post-vaccine illness
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
What year was mercury removed from vaccines except multidose flu vials?
Respuesta
-
1995
-
2000
-
2005
-
2010
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
Acetaminophen and Ibuprofen have been shown to reduce what?
Respuesta
-
Inflammation after vaccination
-
Immune response after vaccination
-
Vaccine associated fever
-
All of these
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
Undervaccinated or unvaccincated people exposed to diseases in other countries are typically patient 0 during outbreaks.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
What vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy
Respuesta
-
All vaccines
-
Live vaccines
-
Conjugate vaccines
-
Toxoid vaccines
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
What is the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices?
Respuesta
-
The group who approves vaccine schedules
-
A division of the CDC
-
A division of the FDA
-
A division of the Department of Health and Human Services
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
The first dose followed by a second dose in 1 to 2 months and a third dose in 6 months is the dosing schedule for what vaccine?
Respuesta
-
HPV
-
HiB
-
Influenza
-
Varicella
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
A patient should first be given [blank_start]PCV13[blank_end] followed by [blank_start]PPSV23[blank_end] [blank_start]one year[blank_end] later.
Respuesta
-
PCV13
-
PPSV23
-
Menactra
-
Influenza vaccine
-
PPSV23
-
PCV13
-
HiB
-
Yellow fever vaccine
-
six months
-
one year
-
two years
-
five years
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
Andrew Wakefield is the British physician who fabricated data in a publication that lead to the belief that vaccines cause autism. What was the name of the publication?
Respuesta
-
The Needle Stick
-
Autism Errupts
-
Autism Conspiracy
-
The Lancet
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