Pregunta 1
Pregunta
Which of the following are non-depolarizing NMBAs?
Respuesta
-
Rocuronium
-
Succinylcholine
-
Atracurium
-
Nimbex
-
Edrophonium
-
Neostigmine
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Which of the following is a long-acting NMBA?
Respuesta
-
pancuronium
-
succinylcholine
-
mivacurium
-
atracurium
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
Which of the following is a contraindication in the use of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
A patient with myotonic dystrophy who receives succinylcholine is at increased risk for which of the following?
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs has the longest duration of action in a patient with renal failure?
Respuesta
-
Neostigmine
-
Rocuronium
-
Succinylcholine
-
Vecuronium
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
Which of the following best explains the failure of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents to produce fasciculation?
Respuesta
-
Absence of acetylcholine receptor activation
-
Binding in the iron channel of the acetylcholine receptors
-
Binding to agonist and antagonist sites on the acetylcholine receptors
-
Binding to presynaptic and postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
Excessive potassium release and subsequent elevated serum level would most likely occur following administration of succinylcholine to which of the following patients?
Respuesta
-
Quadriplegic with recent burn injury
-
Asthmatic with recent bronchospasm
-
Old stroke patient taking oral magnesium
-
Young healthy patient taking oral potassium
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
The characteristics of non-depolarizing NMBAs differ from that of depolarizing except that both exhibit ____________.
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
Pharmacologic and physiologic variables that enhance non-depolarizing NMBAs include all of the following EXCEPT:
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
A series of four twitches at 2Hz every half-second for two seconds: [blank_start]train-of-four[blank_end]
Two short bursts of 50Hz tetanus separated by 0.75 seconds: [blank_start]double-burst simulation[blank_end]
A supramaximal electrical stimulus ranging from 0.1-1.0hz: [blank_start]single twitch[blank_end]
50Hz tetanus for 5 seconds, a 3-second pause, then single twitches of 1Hz: [blank_start]posttetanic count[blank_end]
Consists of rapid delivery of a 30-, 50-, or 100Hz stimulus for 5 seconds: [blank_start]tetanus[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
train-of-four
-
double-burst simulation
-
single twitch
-
posttetanic count
-
tetanus
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
What term refers to the time from drug administration to its maximum effect?
Respuesta
-
onset time
-
clinical duration
-
recovery index
-
none of the above
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
The time from drug administration to 90% recovery of a twitch response is known as:
Respuesta
-
clinical duration
-
total duration of action
-
recovery index
-
none of the above
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
Correctly number the sequence during onset of paralysis from the first to the last.
Abdominal muscles - [blank_start]4[blank_end]
Chest (Intercostals) - [blank_start]3[blank_end]
Diaphragm - [blank_start]5[blank_end]
Extremities - [blank_start]2[blank_end]
Eye lids - [blank_start]1[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
1
-
2
-
3
-
4
-
5
-
1
-
2
-
3
-
4
-
5
-
1
-
2
-
3
-
4
-
5
-
1
-
2
-
3
-
4
-
5
-
1
-
2
-
3
-
4
-
5
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
The brief duration of succinylcholine is due principally to its rapid hydrolysis in plasma by cholinesterase enzymes.
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
A low dibucaine number and normal enzyme activity indicates: (Select 2)
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
A dibucaine number of 78 with decreased enzyme activity indicates: (select 2)
Respuesta
-
normal enzyme with low level of enzyme activity
-
atypical enzyme with low level of enzyme activity
-
prolonged apnea
-
another reason for prolonged apnea
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Which of the following are related to Hofmann elimination and nonspecific esterases?
Respuesta
-
atracurium
-
cisatracurium
-
mivacurium
-
vecuronium
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
Plasma cholinesterase is the mechanism of elimination for which of the following:
Respuesta
-
succinylcholine
-
mivacurium
-
pancuronium
-
rocuronium
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
Which of the following cause histamine release and may produce hypotension and tachycardia?
Respuesta
-
atracurium
-
pancuronium
-
mivacurium
-
succinylcholine
-
none of the above
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
The administration of _____________ can cause sudden, abrupt bradycardia with repeat doses in adults and any dose in children.
Respuesta
-
atracurium
-
succinylcholine
-
pancuronium
-
none of the above
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
Which of the following agents should be used together because of their rapid onset? (Select 2)
Respuesta
-
neostigmine
-
edrophonium
-
atropine
-
glycopyrrolate
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
Sugammadex is classified as a selective relaxant binding agent.
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
Sugammadex is effective in reversing all of the following EXCEPT:
Respuesta
-
rocuronium
-
vecuronium
-
pancuronium
-
atracurium
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
Which of the following local anesthetics are esters?
Respuesta
-
lidocaine
-
ropivacaine
-
bupivacaine
-
all of the above
-
none of the above
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
Amides tend to be shorter acting due to their rapid metabolism.
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
If a patient has an allergy to an ester drug, all other ester drugs should be avoided.
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Match the max dose to the correct drug.
Procaine - [blank_start]14[blank_end]
Ropivacaine - [blank_start]3[blank_end]
Chloroprocaine - [blank_start]14[blank_end]
Tetracaine - [blank_start]1[blank_end]
Mepivacaine - [blank_start]7[blank_end]
Bupivacaine - [blank_start]3[blank_end]
Lidocaine - [blank_start]7[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
1
-
3
-
7
-
14
-
1
-
3
-
11
-
14
-
1
-
3
-
7
-
14
-
1
-
3
-
7
-
11
-
1
-
7
-
11
-
14
-
1
-
3
-
7
-
11
-
3
-
7
-
11
-
14
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
Which of the following LAs has an increased risk of causing cardiotoxicity because of its greater electrophysiologic effects?
Respuesta
-
Lidocaine
-
Bupivacaine
-
Ropivacaine
-
None of the above
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
Which of the following agents is purely alpha?
Respuesta
-
phenylephrine
-
norepinephrine
-
dopamine
-
epinephrine
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
The lower the pKa of a drug (closer to pH of 7.4), the faster the onset.
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
The maximum safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine in tumescent anesthesia for liposuction is:
Respuesta
-
35-55 mg/kg
-
25-35 mg/kg
-
45-65 mg/kg
-
10-20 mg/kg
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
The following characteristics relate to which of the following agents?
1.) direct and indirect acting
2.) alpha and beta stimulating
3.) central and peripheral
Respuesta
-
ephedrine
-
phenylephrine
-
epinephrine
-
norepinephrine
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
Which of the following is the best choice to give to a pregnant patient?
Respuesta
-
atropine
-
scopolamine
-
glycopyrrolate
-
none of the above
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
In what classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs do beta blockers belong?
Respuesta
-
Class I
-
Class II
-
Class III
-
Class IV
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
Match the classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs with their effects.
[blank_start]Class III[blank_end] : block potassium channels
[blank_start]Class II[blank_end] : beta-adrenergic blocking effects
[blank_start]Class IV[blank_end] - calcium channel blocking effects
[blank_start]Class I[blank_end] - block sodium channels
Respuesta
-
Class III
-
Class II
-
Class IV
-
Class I
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
Which drug should you choose to treat torsades de pointes?
Respuesta
-
magnesium sulfate
-
adenosine
-
diltiazem
-
amiodarone
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
What drug should you choose to treat ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation?
Respuesta
-
amiodarone
-
esmolol
-
diltiazem
-
digoxin
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
A patient with a BP of 126/78 would be classified in what category?
Respuesta
-
Normal
-
Elevated
-
Stage 1 HTN
-
Stage 2 HTN
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
A patient with a blood pressure of 138/89 would be classified under what category?
Respuesta
-
Normal
-
Elevated
-
Stage 1 HTN
-
Stage 2 HTN
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
What drug should you choose to treat hypertension with a low heart rate?
Respuesta
-
hydralazine
-
labetalol
-
adenosine
-
none of the above
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
In what classification of angina is a patient that has slight limitation of ordinary activity such as, walking or climbing stairs?
Respuesta
-
Class I
-
Class II
-
Class III
-
Class IV
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
Exertional (stable) angina should be treated with:
Respuesta
-
beta-blockers
-
calcium channel blockers
-
ACE inhibitors
-
diuretics
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
Variant angina should be treated with:
Respuesta
-
beta-blockers
-
calcium channel blockers
-
nitrates
-
ACE inhibitors
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
Which drug decreases preload by causing venous dilation?
Respuesta
-
hydralazine
-
nitroglycerin
-
labetalol
-
none of the above
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Renin release is the cause of rebound HTN following cessation of a nipride drip.
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
______________ is a PDE3 inhibitor; interferes with the second messenger system.
Respuesta
-
Milrinone
-
Clonidine
-
Methyldopa
-
Dobutamine
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
Match the effects seen with the following doses of dopamine.
Low doses (2-5 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]dopamine agonist[blank_end]
Medium doses (5-10 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]dopamine and beta stimulation[blank_end]
High doses (>10 -15 mcg/kg/min) - [blank_start]alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
dopamine agonist
-
dopamine and beta stimulation
-
alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction
-
dopamine agonist
-
dopamine and beta stimulation
-
alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction
-
dopamine agonist
-
dopamine and beta stimulation
-
alpha receptors cause vasoconstriction
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
Atropine causes mydriasis and loss of accommodation.
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
The more protein bound a local anesthetic is, the shorter the duration of action.
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
All of the following are true regarding the addition of vasoconstrictors to local anesthetics EXCEPT: