13890526
Pregunta 1
Pregunta
R 62.6.5.0 (4845)
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
three dimensional fix?
Respuesta
-
4
-
3
-
5
-
6
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
R 62.6.5.0 (4846)
What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?
Respuesta
-
3
-
4
-
6
-
5
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
R 62.6.5.0 (4852)
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?
Respuesta
-
WGS 84
-
ED 87
-
ED 50
-
EUREF 92
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
R 71.1.1.0 (4904)
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
Respuesta
-
while at their station.
-
only during take off and landing.
-
only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.
-
from take off to landing.
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
R 71.1.2.4 (4946)
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :
Respuesta
-
a decision height of at least 100 ft
-
a decision height of at least 200 ft
-
a decision height of at least 50 ft
-
no decision height
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
R 71.1.2.4 (4948)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
Respuesta
-
550 m 1800FT
-
350 m
-
800 m
-
500 m
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
R 71.1.2.4 (4949)
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
Respuesta
-
200 m = 700 FT
-
100 m
-
250 m
-
50 m
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
R 71.1.2.4 (4951)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :
Respuesta
-
a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
-
a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.
-
a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.
-
no decision height.
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
R 71.1.3.1 (4989)
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :
Respuesta
-
reduced range
-
increased manoeuvring limits
-
increased flight envelope
-
increased Mach number stability
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
R 71.1.3.3 (5032)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:
Respuesta
-
285 and 420.
-
280 and 400.
-
280 and 390.
-
275 and 400.
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
R 71.1.3.3 (5046)
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within
NAT region?
Respuesta
-
Between FL290 and FL410.
-
Between FL275 and FL400.
-
Between FL245 and FL410.
-
Below FL290.
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
R 71.2.0.0 (5061)
According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :
Respuesta
-
1 500 ft
-
3 000 ft
-
2 000 ft
-
1 000 ft
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
R 71.2.2.0 (5070)
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs
on :
Respuesta
-
The aircraft front areas.
-
The upper and lower wingsurfaces.
-
The upper and lower rudder surfaces.
-
Only the pitot and static probes.
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
71.2.2.0 (5082)
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
Respuesta
-
the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.
-
the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.
-
the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
-
the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied HOT
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
R 71.2.4.0 (5104)
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :
Respuesta
-
300 m (1000 ft)
-
450 m (1500 ft)
-
150 m (500 ft)
-
600 m (2000 ft)
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
R 71.2.4.0 (5108)
According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :
Respuesta
-
1 000 ft
-
500 ft
-
1 500 ft
-
3 000 ft
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
R 71.2.5.0 (5111)
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
Respuesta
-
useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
-
possible and recommended.
-
useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
-
useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
R 71.2.5.0 (5139)
A class B fire is a fire of:
Respuesta
-
liquid or liquefiable solid
-
solid material usually of organic nature
-
electrical source fire
-
special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
R 71.2.6.0 (5142)
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate :
Respuesta
-
a rate of climb
-
a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
-
zero
-
a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
R 71.2.6.0 (5149)
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:
Respuesta
-
12 seconds.
-
30 seconds.
-
5 minutes.
-
1 minute.
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
R 71.2.7.0 (5161)
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :
Respuesta
-
can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
-
occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
-
occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
-
can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
R 71.2.7.0 (5162)
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?
Respuesta
-
Indicated airspeed.
-
Pitch angle.
-
Vertical speed.
-
Groundspeed.
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
R 71.2.8.0 (5179)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?
Respuesta
-
7.4 km (4 NM)
-
9.3 km (5 NM)
-
11.1 km (6 NM)
-
3.7 km (2 NM)
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
R
71.2.8.0 (5187)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar 431 separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000
kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the
approach to the same runway ?
Respuesta
-
9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
-
11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
-
7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
-
9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
R 71.2.8.0 (5188)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?
Respuesta
-
3 minutes
-
4 minutes
-
5 minutess
-
2 minutes
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
R 71.2.8.0 (5190)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?
Respuesta
-
3 minutes
-
4 minutes
-
5 minutes
-
2 minutes
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
R 71.2.8.0 (5193)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied :
Respuesta
-
to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold
-
to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m
-
to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross
-
Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
R 71.2.8.0 (5194)
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :
Respuesta
-
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway
-
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
-
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
-
MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
R 71.2.8.0 (5195)
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are
using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar
separation minima of :
Respuesta
-
5 NM
-
4 NM
-
3 NM
-
2 NM
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
R 71.2.8.0 (5196)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied to :
Respuesta
-
MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
-
LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
-
LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)
-
LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
R 71.2.9.0 (5200)
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
Respuesta
-
you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.
-
you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.
-
you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.
-
you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
71.2.10.0 (5214)
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :
Respuesta
-
90 seconds
-
132 seconds
-
60 seconds
-
120 seconds
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
RED 71.2.13.0 (5251)
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :
Respuesta
-
24 hours
-
12 hours
-
6 hours
-
3 hours
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
R 71.2.13.0 (5255)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
Respuesta
-
its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.
-
it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
-
it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
-
surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
R 71.2.13.0 (5254)
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :
Respuesta
-
poor
-
unreliable
-
medium
-
good
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
R 81.1.3.1 (5307)
The lift formula is:
Respuesta
-
L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S
-
L= W
-
L= CL 2 RHO V² S
-
L= n W
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
R 81.1.6.0 (5355)
What will happen in ground effect ?
Respuesta
-
the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases
-
the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases
-
an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices
-
a significant increase in thrust required
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
R 81.1.6.0 (5356)
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect
Respuesta
-
the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
-
the effective angle of attack is decreased.
-
the induced angle of attack is increased.
-
drag and lift are reduced.
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
R 81.1.6.4 (5357)
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur :
Respuesta
-
when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface
-
when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface
-
when a higher than normal angle of attack is used
-
at a speed approaching the stall
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
R 81.1.6.4 (5358)
Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance :
Respuesta
-
increases.
-
increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
-
does not change.
-
decreases.
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
R 81.1.8.2 (5377)
The stall speed :
Respuesta
-
increases with an increased weight
-
decreases with an increased weight
-
does not depend on weight
-
increases with the length of the wingspan
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
R 81.1.8.2 (5381)
The following factors increase stall speed :
Respuesta
-
an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.
-
a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.
-
increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.
-
a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
R 81.1.8.2 (5383)
The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Respuesta
-
pulling up from a dive.
-
weight decreases.
-
minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.
-
spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
R 81.1.8.4 (5393)
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is:
Respuesta
-
greater than VS.
-
1.20 VS.
-
1.30 VS.
-
1.12 VS.
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
R 81.1.8.5 (5409)
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the
stall :
Respuesta
-
tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
-
wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
-
tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
-
leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
R 81.1.9.0 (5414)
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?
Respuesta
-
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
-
Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.
-
Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation.
-
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
R 81.1.10.1 (5448)
When ""spoilers"" are used as speed brakes:
Respuesta
-
at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.
-
CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.
-
they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.
-
at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
R 81.2.1.1 (5454)
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:
speed of sound: mach / tas 0.8/400= 500
Respuesta
-
500 kts
-
320 kts
-
480 kts
-
600 kts
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
R 81.2.2.1 (5465)
Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:
Respuesta
-
somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.
-
the critical angle of attack is reached.
-
shockstall occurs.
-
Mach buffet occurs.
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
R 81.2.2.2 (5488)
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of :
Respuesta
-
Higher critical Mach number
-
Greater strength
-
Increased longitudinal stability
-
Lower stalling speed
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
R 81.2.2.3 (5491)
How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
Respuesta
-
It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.
-
It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.
-
It remains constant.
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
R 81.2.2.3 (5493)
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):
Respuesta
-
increases
-
decreases
-
decreases until the tropopause
-
remains the same
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
R 81.4.3.5 (5552)
A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:
Respuesta
-
a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.
-
an increasing static longitudinal stability.
-
a better recovery performance in the spin.
-
an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
81.5.1.1 (5580)
Rotation about the lateral axis is called :
Respuesta
-
pitching.
-
rolling.
-
slipping.
-
yawing.
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
R 81.5.2.4 (5583)
The centre of gravity moving aft will:
Respuesta
-
increase the elevator up effectiveness.
-
decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
-
not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
-
increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
R 81.5.5.0 (5599)
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Respuesta
-
Rolling and yawing.
-
Pitching and rolling.
-
Pitching and adverse yaw.
-
Pitching and yawing.
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
R 81.6.3.2 (5643)
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :
Respuesta
-
swept wings
-
winglets
-
straight wings
-
wing dihedral
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
R 81.8.1.5 (5672)
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding
altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:
Respuesta
-
increase thrust and angle of attack.
-
increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
-
increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.
-
increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
R 81.8.1.5 (5676)
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:
Respuesta
-
TAS.
-
weight.
-
load factor
-
wind.
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
R 81.8.2.10 (5683)
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?
Respuesta
-
Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.
-
Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
-
Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground.
-
Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
R
How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?
Respuesta
-
decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density
-
increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder force
-
increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases
-
1998-10-05 0:00
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