14377775
Descripción
Test por Hannah Hailey, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Hannah Hailey
hace alrededor de 6 años
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Pregunta 1
Pregunta
The AFI that governs the current wing organization and operation is
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53-3
-
39-1
-
21-166
-
21-101
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Who is responsible for directing the maintenance effort using available resources and participating in the development and execution of the monthly, weekly flying and maintenance schedules/plans?
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Pro super
-
MOO
-
QA
-
Wing commander
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
What flight in the maintenance squadron primarily performs off-equipment maintenance of avionics components and electronic warfare systems?
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-
TMDE flight
-
Avionics flight
-
Accessory flight
-
Maintenance support flight
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Informational publications that include procedures for implementing Air Force policies are called
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-
indexes
-
pamphlets
-
directories
-
supplements
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
If you need to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job, which MDC system data element do you use?
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Work unit code
-
Work center code
-
Job control number
-
Identification number
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
The number entered in the TAG NUMBER block of AFTO Form 349 comes from
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-
a WUC manual
-
AFTO Form 350
-
the manufacturer's data plate
-
the illustrated parts breakdown
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
What block of AFTO Form 349 is checked to indicate actions that affect the historical records of an end-item?
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UNITS
-
SCH CODE
-
TYPE MAINT
-
RECORDS ACTION
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
The IMDS is event oriented and user friendly, which means that it
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accepts any input
-
requires no password
-
restricts unauthorized access
-
checks keyboard entries for compatability
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
Which is not a function of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System?
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Mission scheduling
-
Maintenance scheduling
-
Personnel leave scheduling
-
Personnel training management
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
One of the basic principles of supply discipline is to
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use supplies to fulfill any purpose
-
know all equipment items on hand
-
stock excess property until needed
-
effectively safeguard and preserve property
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
One way you can be relieved of property responsibility is to
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turn the property in to supply
-
have the property declared surplus
-
have the property declared unserviceable
-
call the base equipment management office
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?
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Through process standardization
-
Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle
-
Allows investigative findings to be applied to reappearances
-
Provides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
The TO numbering system is explained in detail in TO
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0-4-2
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0-1-01
-
00-5-1
-
00-5-18
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
Which Air Force technical manuals contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment?
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Job guides
-
Aircraft TOs
-
Commercial manuals
-
Other equipment TOs
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
Which index lists all Air Force MPTOs?
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-
TO 0-1-1
-
TO 0-1-02
-
TO 00-1-02
-
TO 00-1-20
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
Before an AFTO Form 22 is submitted, the submitter’s supervisor assesses it in terms of mission impact, personnel and system safety, and
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budget constraints
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time required to implement
-
urgency of need for change
-
approving official's workload
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
A GS manual provides
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general overview of the aircraft.
-
detailed schematics of systems wiring.
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fault descriptions and fault isolation procedures.
-
detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance.
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
The ACPINS provides a standardized system that performs all of the tasks listed below except
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manage software
-
develop software
-
identify software
-
distribute software
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
How many CPIN identifier fields are there?
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Three
-
Four
-
Five
-
Six
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?
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Hardware
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Operational data
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Performance and capabilities
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Funding, procurement, and production
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
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Doors
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Nacelles
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Windows
-
Plates and skins
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
Which is not an offensive avionics system?
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Built-in test system
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Controls and displays
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Central computing complex
-
Navigation and weapons delivery
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
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1 foot
-
3 feet
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5 feet
-
10 feet
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?
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Frequent nausea
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Temporary weight gain
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Permanent hearing loss
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Small overdose have little or no effect
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
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Minor
-
Major
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Phase
-
Periodic
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft
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inspections
-
flight records
-
configurations
-
component repair
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?
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Aircrew
-
Pro super
-
Crewchief
-
Comm/Nav technician
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
To “flag” a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use
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AFTO Form 244
-
AFTO Form 781K
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AF Form 1492
-
AF Form 979
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?
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Using protective tote boxes
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Covering LRU connector plugs
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Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
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Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Which is not a type of connector coupling?
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Friction
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Bayonet
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Insertion
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Threaded
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures
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connectors will mate properly
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solder will adhere properly
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RF will not be impeded
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proper connection
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
One purpose of crimper positioners is to
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align crimper handles to pin contact.
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put pin contacts in the proper position.
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put the turret head in line with pin contact.
-
adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins.
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
As a flight line technician, you can repair up to
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20 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
-
20 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
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25 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
-
25 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
The circuit used in an AM transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is
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a buffer amplifier
-
an audio amplifier
-
a power amplifier
-
a frequency multiplier
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
In an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the
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reactance modulator
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power amplifier circuit
-
frequency multiplier circuit
-
frequency discriminator circuit
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
In single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator’s output consists of
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the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband
-
the upper and lower sidebands
-
lower sideband only
-
upper sideband only
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
The purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to
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add amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal
-
remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal
-
remove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal
-
rectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by
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accepting and amplifying the minute current
-
removing the radio frequency carrier wave
-
converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force
-
electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
The primary reason the high-frequency radio uses single sideband modulation is
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that fidelity is greatly increased
-
the transmitter output power is 10 watts
-
the system can use a very wide-band pass
-
that it provides many channels to operate on
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
You are using a learned preset for the ARC–190 high-frequency radio system. For this application, the transmit tune time is less than
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5 milliseconds
-
25 milliseconds
-
35 milliseconds
-
50 milliseconds
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
Which very-high frequency radio system uses two antennas?
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FM homing
-
AM communications
-
FM communications
-
AM direction-finder
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
The Have Quick II frequency-hopping pattern and rate is programmed by the
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-
time-of-day
-
word-of-day
-
net number used
-
universal time coordinated
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
What LRU provides primary control of the ARC–210 radio system?
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Radio set control
-
Remote tuning panel
-
Receiver/transmitter
-
Remote volume control
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
How do you swap the active and standby frequencies of the ARC–210 radio system using the remote tuning panel?
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Pressing the outer knob
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Pressing the inner knob
-
Rotating the outer knob
-
Rotating the inner knob
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Which one of the following is not an operating mode of the PRC–90 emergency radio?
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Morse code.
-
Two-way voice communication.
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Three-way voice communications.
-
Variable audio modulation between 1000 and 300 Hz.
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
When activated, the emergency locator transmitter continuously transmits on frequencies
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8.0 and 121.5 MHz
-
243.0 and 282.8 MHz
-
254.5 and 282.8 MHz
-
121.5 and 243.0 MHz
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
The purpose of the +17 to +29 VDC on the CALL control line of the C–6567 is to
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-
reduce the level of CALL audio output.
-
disable the mic amplifier during CALL operation.
-
activate the AGC circuits in the headset amplifiers.
-
energize the CALL switch on the front panel of the C–6624.
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
The major difference between the U–92A/U and the U–94A/U jack is the
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U–92A/U jack has a PTT button.
-
U–94A/U jack has a PTT button.
-
U–94A/U is located on the pilot’s throttle grip.
-
U–92A/U requires an additional wire for the talk switch.
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
The forward external interphone receptacle in the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) system allows the operator to transmit on a radio, even though the other two external receptacles cannot, because it is connected to the
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pilot’s interphone audio control panel (IACP).
-
pilot’s intercom control panel (ICP).
-
boom operator’s forward IACP.
-
boom operator’s forward ICP.
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
If you need to store 12 cryptographic keys, then how many KYK–13 devices will you require?
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1
-
2
-
4
-
6
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
Why does the KYK–13 parity light flash on and off continuously?
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Because battery power is low.
-
Because stored key is no longer valid.
-
Because the unit is performing BIT.
-
Because key transfer was prevented.
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
What KY–58 line replaceable unit (LRU) has the primary function of transmitting and receiving secure voice messages?
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Z–AHQ adapter.
-
RCU control panel.
-
KYK–13 fill device.
-
TSEC secure voice processor.
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
Parallels of latitude are parallel to the
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equator
-
polar axis
-
Greenwich meridian
-
international time line
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
Which global positioning system unit in the ARN–151 produces the intermediate frequency signal?
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Antenna
-
Receiver
-
Indicator control
-
Antenna controller
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
In the tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) adapter, TO/FROM information is developed by combining magnetic bearing with
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course deviation
-
magnetic heading
-
relative bearing
-
relative heading
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
If an aircraft is flying inbound on the 90° radial of a very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) station, then what will be the outbound radial when the aircraft passes the station?
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90°.
-
180°.
-
270°.
-
360°.
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
When the IDENT-OUT-MIC switch is in the MIC position, identification, friend or foe (IFF) identification of position (I/P) replies are triggered every time which radio system is keyed?
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HF
-
LHF
-
UHF
-
VHF
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
How long in μs does it take an RF wave to travel a radar mile?
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-
12.4μs.
-
9.3μs.
-
6.2μs.
-
3.1μs.
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system shapes the radio frequency energy into a narrow beam?
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Antenna
-
Indicator
-
Transmitter
-
Synchronizer
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
Which of the following are types of power loss in radio frequency lines?
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-
Copper, dielectric, and radiation
-
Current, dielectric, and emission
-
Dielectric, radiation, and current
-
Radiation, copper, and conduction
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
Which component in the AN/APN–59 radar system furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors?
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AM–853B.
-
CN–221A.
-
AS–653C.
-
RT–289G.
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
During the CARA radar altitude indicator’s bright lighting conditions, the ambient light sensor serves to
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-
set the display brightness to dim
-
override the dimmer control knob
-
allow the user to brighten the display only
-
allow the user to both dim or brighten the display
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
Which radar application sends data to compute time-to-go parameters?
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Search radar
-
Weather radar
-
Bombing radar
-
Synthetic aperture radar
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
The elapsed time indicator of the R/T indicates the time power has been
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applied to the R/T
-
removed from the R/T
-
applied to digital data processor
-
removed from digital data processor
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
What is the range in MHz of signals that the low pass filter passes?
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240 – 304 MHz
-
480 – 608 MHz
-
960 – 1215 MHz
-
1920 – 2430 MHz
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
If the JTIDS entrant is attempting to achieve fine synchronization by transmitting a round trip time interrogation, then what process is being used?
Respuesta
-
active
-
passive
-
dynamic
-
radio silent
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
What is the structure of a MIL-STD1553 data word?
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-
20 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 16 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits
-
20 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit
-
32 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 28 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits
-
32 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 28 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
What part of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator?
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memory
-
logic unit
-
control unit
-
arithmetic unit
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
The resolution of a computer monitor is expressed in the number of pixels that make up the image; therefore, the sharper the image, the
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-
lower the refresh rate
-
higher the resolution
-
lower the dot color
-
higher the dot pitch
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
The power meter is used to measure
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-
no power
-
any power
-
either absolute or relative power
-
either absolute or manual power
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
If you want to measure relative power using a power meter, you would first apply the power level and then press
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-
MODE.
-
dB REF.
-
RANGE HOLD.
-
SENSOR ZERO.
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
Before power is connected to the RFLTS, you must ensure the ON/POWER/OFF switch is in the OFF position and a suitable grounding strap is connected between the grounding lug on the right side of RFTLTS unit 1 and the
Respuesta
-
aircraft
-
power unit
-
parking ramp
-
time domain reflectometer
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
When using the 1 and 3 milliohm range on the model 4328A millohmeter, how far away from the conducting surface should the probes and cables be placed?
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-
10 millimeters
-
10 centimeters
-
1 millimeter
-
1 centimeter
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
What basic function of a data bus analyzer provides the ability to introduce an error condition into the data to permit an analysis of how the system will behave?
Respuesta
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Injection
-
Simulation
-
Examination
-
Playback of data
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
When the confidence test is performed, which APX–64 transponder R/T module’s gain is increased?
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-
RF
-
Test
-
Decoder
-
IF amplifier
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
When pressing the TEST RPT button on the transponder TS–3977 test set while aiming the antenna at the ground, the test code indication should be
Respuesta
-
F
-
O
-
3
-
7
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
If you turn the Bearing CW/CCW switch on the ARM–184 flightline test set, then the indicator should increase or decrease at an angular rate of
Respuesta
-
5° per second
-
10° per second
-
12° per second
-
15° per second
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
Traditional noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of
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-
denial
-
deception
-
disruption
-
destruction
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
Electronic support data is not used to produce
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-
signal intelligence
-
ballistic intelligence
-
electronic intelligence
-
communications intelligence
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets include radars for
Respuesta
-
acquisition, and antiaircraft artillery only.
-
acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, and surface-to-air (SAM) only.
-
acquisition and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.
-
acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?
Respuesta
-
EA–6B
-
EF–111
-
F/A–18
-
F–16CJ
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of
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-
imitative deception
-
imitative reception
-
simulative deception
-
manipulative deception
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
What are electronic warfare (EW) reconnaissance crews called?
Respuesta
-
Crows
-
Ferrets
-
Sparks
-
Ravens
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
What electronic intelligence (ELINT) equipment is used to determine the location of emitters?
Respuesta
-
Pulse analyzer
-
Direction finder
-
Spectrum analyzer
-
Panoramic receiver
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?
Respuesta
-
A scope
-
B scope
-
Range height
-
Plan position
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
The radar warning receiver (RWR) does not provide signal
Respuesta
-
relative location
-
identification
-
frequency
-
amplitude
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
What infrared (IR) detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?
Respuesta
-
Photovoltaic
-
Photographic
-
Photoemissive
-
Photoconductive
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
What infrared (IR) seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?
Respuesta
-
Staring
-
Scanning
-
Chopping
-
Spinning
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
In what frequency region do the missile approach warning systems (MAWS) operate?
Respuesta
-
Radio
-
Gamma
-
Infrared
-
Visible light
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
When a photon causes the release of another photon, it is called
Respuesta
-
stimulated emission
-
population inversion
-
spontaneous emission
-
population conversion
Pregunta 91
Pregunta
What is not a battlefield usage of the laser?
Respuesta
-
Target ranging and designation
-
Contrail detection
-
Guided weapon
-
Acquisition
Pregunta 92
Pregunta
What technology does the Pilot Alert System (PAS) employ to detect contrail from the #3 engine exhaust?
Respuesta
-
Laser
-
Acoustic
-
Microwave
-
Millimeter wave
Pregunta 93
Pregunta
The chaff tactic that dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon is called
Respuesta
-
area saturation
-
self-protection
-
preplanned burst
-
corridor operation
Pregunta 94
Pregunta
A typical flare cartridge is composed of magnesium and tetraflouroethylene and burns at
Respuesta
-
1000 to 1200 °K.
-
2000 to 2200 °K.
-
3000 to 3200 °K.
-
4000 to 4200 °K.
Pregunta 95
Pregunta
What indicates the relative signal strength of the received radio frequency (RF) signal?
Respuesta
-
Horizontal deflection of the trace.
-
Vertical deflection of the trace.
-
Span per division.
-
Center frequency.
Pregunta 96
Pregunta
The four control modes allow you to vary the output
Respuesta
-
time only
-
period only
-
frequency only
-
pulse characteristics
Pregunta 97
Pregunta
What test equipment is used to check the aircraft expendables (chaff and flare) systems?
Respuesta
-
Spectrum analyzer
-
Radar simulator set
-
Countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT)
-
Radiofrequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS)
Pregunta 98
Pregunta
What describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) change affects an Electronic Warfare (EW) system?
Respuesta
-
System impact message
-
Reprogramming impact message
-
Time compliance technical order
-
Maintenance instruction message
Pregunta 99
Pregunta
Which of the following is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?
Respuesta
-
BRAVE BYTE
-
PROUD BYTE
-
SERENE BYTE
-
NEPTUNE BYTE
Pregunta 100
Pregunta
What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?
Respuesta
-
Fire
-
Misfire
-
Jettison
-
Stay voltage
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