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PHASE TWO TEST

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Test sobre PHASE TWO TEST , creado por Nathan Petersen el 27/08/2018.
Nathan Petersen
Test por Nathan Petersen, actualizado hace más de 1 año
Nathan Petersen
Creado por Nathan Petersen hace alrededor de 6 años
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Resumen del Recurso

Pregunta 1

Pregunta
In 1989, the United States Supreme Court found that law enforcement officers’ use of force against subjects was a type of seizure, and therefore, under the Constitution had to be “objectively reasonable.” The case was Graham v. Connor, and it is one of two landmark cases in law enforcement use of force. Which amendment does law enforcement use of force mostly pertains to?
Respuesta
  • 1st amendment
  • 4th amendment
  • 8th amendment
  • 14th amendment

Pregunta 2

Pregunta
Officer Majeed responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a gas station. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant from the county. Officer Majeed attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect began actively resisting, attempting to run away. Officer Majeed performed a classroom model vertical stun on the suspect, giving the officer enough time to place handcuffs on him. What technique is this?
Respuesta
  • A dynamic application of a trained technique
  • A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
  • A trained technique
  • Deadly Force

Pregunta 3

Pregunta
Officer Lucky responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a Walgreens store. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant for attempted-homicide. Officer Lucky attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect became assaultive towards the officer, attempting to punch and bite him. Officer Lucky pulled out his baton and directed a strike aimed at the suspect’s elbow. The suspect ducked and the baton strike hit his head instead. What technique is this?
Respuesta
  • The up and under technique
  • A dynamic application of a trained technique
  • A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
  • A trained technique

Pregunta 4

Pregunta
Officer Conner responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at Walmart. When the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant for attempted-homicide. Officer Conner attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect became assaultive towards the officer, slamming the officer on the ground. The suspect got on top of the officer and began choking him. Officer Conner was unable to get to his firearm and other equipment on his duty belt. Officer Conner began losing conscious and feared that he would soon die. Fearing for his life, Officer Conner pulled out an ink pen from his shirt pocket and directed it into the suspect eyes. What technique is this?
Respuesta
  • A technique not trained, but justifiable under the circumstances
  • A trained technique
  • Tactical ink pen maneuver
  • A dynamic application of a trained technique

Pregunta 5

Pregunta
This level is the best position for escorting a subject. It is also the position you will use to make contact with a driver in an approach vehicle contact. What level/position is this?
Respuesta
  • 1
  • 2
  • 2 ½
  • 3

Pregunta 6

Pregunta
Officer Robillard just graduated the police academy and is responding to his first “shots fired” call. After arriving on scene, this officer started displaying signs of anxiety, nervousness, confusion, and indecisiveness. Instead of reverting back to his training that he received from the academy, he froze. What level of awareness (Color) is this?
Respuesta
  • Yellow
  • Red
  • White
  • Black

Pregunta 7

Pregunta
When you do this type of talk, you should project a non-threatening presence and speak in a normal conversational tone. What control talk is this? Examples of this control talk:  “Hi, I’m Officer Smith, what’s your name?”  “Do you live around here?”  “Can I help you find something?”
Respuesta
  • Light Control Talk
  • Persuasion
  • Search Talk
  • Heavy Control Talk

Pregunta 8

Pregunta
Your physical presence, your tone of voice, and your words all must convey intensity and commitment. What control talk is this? Examples of this control of talk:  “Drop the knife! Drop the knife or I’ll shoot!”  “Leave now. If you do not leave, you will be arrested.”
Respuesta
  • Heavy Control Talk
  • Search Talk
  • Light Control Talk
  • Persuasion

Pregunta 9

Pregunta
This control talk is more directive. Although you are giving orders, it is assertive rather than aggressive. What control talk is this? Examples of this control talk:  “Stop right where you are.”  “Show me your hands.”  “Step out of the car.”
Respuesta
  • Persuasion
  • Light Control Talk
  • Heavy Control Talk
  • Search Talk

Pregunta 10

Pregunta
This control talk is intended to gain compliance from a subject while still maintaining a relatively non-threatening tone. What control talk is this? Examples of this control talk:  “Sir, would you mind stepping over here?”  “Ma’am, please come over here and talk to me.”  “Sir, it would be best if you went on your way now.”
Respuesta
  • Search Talk
  • Heavy Talk
  • Light Control Talk
  • Persuasion

Pregunta 11

Pregunta
What is an ECD? What does the acronym stand for?
Respuesta
  • Electronic Containment Department
  • Elusive Control Doppler
  • Electronic Control Device
  • Electronic Charged Device

Pregunta 12

Pregunta
What level should you be in to perform a Secure-the-Head Decentralization?
Respuesta
  • 1
  • 2
  • 2 ½
  • 3

Pregunta 13

Pregunta
What level should you be in to perform a Pull-In/Push-Down Decentralization?
Respuesta
  • 1 (Inside)
  • 2
  • 2 ½
  • 3

Pregunta 14

Pregunta
In this case, the U.S. Supreme Court established the standard that any law enforcement use of force must be objectively reasonable. In addition, the Court said that reasonableness should be judged under the totality of the circumstances from the perspective of a reasonable officer at the scene with similar training and experience. What case law is this?
Respuesta
  • Terry v. Ohio
  • Miranda v. Arizona
  • Graham v. Connor
  • Mapp v. Ohio

Pregunta 15

Pregunta
What does the acronym GUN stand for?
Respuesta
  • Gun, Under, Notice
  • Grab, Undue, Neutralize
  • Gun, Undue, Neutralize
  • Grab, Under, Notice

Pregunta 16

Pregunta
What position should you be in while conducting a frisk?
Respuesta
  • Level 1 (Inside)
  • Level 2
  • Level 2 ½
  • Level 3

Pregunta 17

Pregunta
Control Alternatives techniques are specifically geared toward overcoming what type of resistance?
Respuesta
  • Passive resistance
  • Active resistance
  • Both Passive and Active resistance
  • Deadly force

Pregunta 18

Pregunta
Officer Gutieirez conducted a traffic stop on a vehicle operator for speeding. After Officer Gutieirez approached the vehicle, he ordered the operator of the vehicle, Kilbey, to step out. Kilbey refused all verbal orders to step out of his vehicle; however, Kilbey is not fighting or showing any physical threat towards the officer. What type of resistance is this?
Respuesta
  • Active resistance
  • Passive resistance
  • Both Active and Passive Resistance
  • He’s not resisting at all

Pregunta 19

Pregunta
This resistance refers to behaviors that physically counteract an officer’s attempt to control a subject and which pose a risk of harm to the officer, subject, and others. Examples of this resistance include attempting to pull away from the officer’s grasp, running away, getting up after being directed to the ground, and so on. What type of resistance is this?
Respuesta
  • Active resistance
  • Passive resistance
  • Both Active and Passive Resistance
  • He’s not resisting at all

Pregunta 20

Pregunta
Under Control Alternatives, which one of the following does NOT belong?
Respuesta
  • Escort Holds
  • Baton
  • Control Devices (OC spray, Taser)
  • Compliance Holds

Pregunta 21

Pregunta
What Focused Strike technique would you use to disrupt the actions of the subject’s diaphragm, causing temporary respiratory dysfunction?
Respuesta
  • (Strong Forearm Strike in the chest area)
  • (Strong Hand Strike in the abdominal area)
  • (Reaction Forearm Strike in the chest area)
  • (Focus Strike in the abdominal area)

Pregunta 22

Pregunta
The proper way to stabilize a subject on the ground prior to handcuffing is called the _______ position.
Respuesta
  • Escort hold
  • Blanket the arm
  • Three-Point
  • Four-Point

Pregunta 23

Pregunta
You must be able to articulate that, if possible, you attempted to escalate through other modes and tactics, and that all options except deadly force were closed. What is this concept called?
Respuesta
  • Preclusion
  • Justification
  • Articulatable facts
  • Last chance, Last try model

Pregunta 24

Pregunta
If you have determined that you face a threat that meets the requirements to permit a deadly-force response, and you have decided to shoot, you must still fulfill three target requirements. Which one of the following is NOT a target requirement?
Respuesta
  • Target Acquisition
  • Target Picture
  • Target Identification
  • Target Isolation

Pregunta 25

Pregunta
The word imminent means “about to happen.” An imminent threat is an immediate threat. For a subject’s threat to be considered imminent, it must meet three criteria. Which one of the following does NOT belong.
Respuesta
  • Motivation
  • Intent
  • Weapon
  • Delivery System

Pregunta 26

Pregunta
Officer Bong is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 12 feet or greater between Officer Bong and the subject. What type of contact is this? FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 6 feet.
Respuesta
  • Intimate
  • Public
  • Social
  • Personal

Pregunta 27

Pregunta
Officer Grant is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 4 – 12 feet between Officer Grant and the subject. What type of contact is this? FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 3 - 6 feet.
Respuesta
  • Public
  • Personal
  • Intimate
  • Social

Pregunta 28

Pregunta
Officer Island is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 1.5 – 4 feet between Officer Island and the subject. What type of contact is this? FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 1 - 3 feet
Respuesta
  • Personal
  • Intimate
  • Public
  • Social

Pregunta 29

Pregunta
Officer Koscielak is talking with a subject in a Normal Setting. There is 0 – 1.5 feet between Officer Koscielak and the subject. What type of contact is this? FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 0 -2 feet.
Respuesta
  • Personal
  • Social
  • Intimate
  • Public

Pregunta 30

Pregunta
You will use this stance if the subject does not quickly cooperate, or your tactical evaluation dictates it. What stance is this?
Respuesta
  • Open Stance
  • Defensive Stance
  • Ready Stance
  • All the above

Pregunta 31

Pregunta
If the subject refuses to cooperate with your requests using persuasion and light control talk, or if the distance between you decreases further, you will move to this stance. This stance puts you in a good position in case a physical confrontation occurs. What stance is this?
Respuesta
  • Ready Stance
  • Open Stance
  • Defensive Stance
  • All the above

Pregunta 32

Pregunta
You will use this stance when initially approaching a subject and your intent is to convey a supportive, non-threatening presence. What stance is this?
Respuesta
  • Open Stance
  • Ready Stance
  • Defensive Stance
  • All the above

Pregunta 33

Pregunta
Per case law Terry V. Ohio, why would an officer conduct a frisk on a subject?
Respuesta
  • Safety concerns
  • Possession of narcotics and drug paraphernalia
  • Policy and Procedure of your law enforcement agency
  • Fear of weapons

Pregunta 34

Pregunta
In this case, an officer shot and killed a fleeing burglary suspect whom the officer believed was unarmed. The court, deciding the case in 1989, said it was not reasonable to use deadly force against an unarmed fleeing felon, unless there is “probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the officers or others.” What case law is this?
Respuesta
  • Tennessee v. Garner
  • White v. Pauly
  • Scott v. Harris
  • Graham v. Connor

Pregunta 35

Pregunta
Which of the following is TRUE about rifles
Respuesta
  • Rifles are too long to use indoors in tactical situations
  • A shouldered rifle is about the same length as an extended handgun
  • Rifle bullets penetrate too many walls
  • Officers armed with rifles are MORE likely to miss subjects than with a handgun

Pregunta 36

Pregunta
You stopped shooting, but the fight may not be over. Assess why the assailant disappeared from your front sight. Scan left, right, up, and down around the suspect’s last location. Maybe your gunfire caused him to fall. Maybe the subject turned away. Maybe the subject ducked down behind cover. You may have missed your assailant, or he or she may be wounded but still able to function. Assess whether continued use of deadly force is appropriate. AFTER assessing your target, and BEFORE communicating with the subject and dispatch, what “actions after combat shooting” needs to be taken?
Respuesta
  • Breathe (Autogenic Breathing)
  • Cover and Scan
  • Reload
  • All the above

Pregunta 37

Pregunta
Break your tunnel vision. Look for the perpetrator’s partners—you may be faced with multiple assailants. Broaden your initial scan of the suspect’s last known location to a full ____ degrees, and ____ degrees up and down.
Respuesta
  • Full 90 degrees, and 360 degrees up and down
  • Full 180 degrees, and 90 degrees up and down
  • Full 360 degrees, and 90 degrees up and down
  • Full 90 degrees, and 180 degrees up and sown

Pregunta 38

Pregunta
When you insert a magazine into the rifle, ensure it is in place by using a ____ technique. This technique is used to ensure that the magazine in the rifle is seated properly in the magazine well. This technique eliminates any failure to properly seat a magazine; a common user-induced malfunction.
Respuesta
  • Push-Tap
  • Push-Push
  • Push-Pull
  • Push-Roll

Pregunta 39

Pregunta
What part of the pistol should you NOT oil or lube?
Respuesta
  • The outside of the barrel
  • The firing pin hole
  • The slide rails, where the slide attaches to the receiver
  • The Hammer linkage or trigger bar

Pregunta 40

Pregunta
What part or piece of the firearm should you NOT oil or lube?
Respuesta
  • Recoil spring/rod assembly
  • The pistol magazines
  • The Hammer linkage or trigger bar
  • The outside of the barrel

Pregunta 41

Pregunta
If you fire a number of rounds during a gunfight and there is a lull (pause or break) in the action, you may decide to reload so you have a full magazine in your weapon if the gunfight resumes. There is a round still in the chamber. This type of reload usually occurs while behind cover. What type of reload is this? 
Respuesta
  • In-Battery Reload
  • Out-Of-Battery Reload
  • Mid-Battery Reload
  • Malfunction

Pregunta 42

Pregunta
This type of reload occurs after all of the remaining rounds from your magazine and chamber have been fired. After shooting off the last round from the magazine and pistol, the slide stop automatically activates, preventing the slide from closing. The picture below is an image of how a pistol looks after firing the last round from the magazine and pistol (Be advised: The state test will NOT show an image. This is for studying purposes only). What reload type is this?
Respuesta
  • Malfunction
  • In-Battery Reload
  • Mid-Battery Reload
  • Out-Of-Battery Reload

Pregunta 43

Pregunta
For a semi-automatic pistol to fire repeatedly, four actions must take place. Which one of the following is NOT apart of the firing cycle?
Respuesta
  • Fire
  • Extract
  • Explosion
  • Eject
  • Feed

Pregunta 44

Pregunta
How many number of officers are required to conduct a high-risk contact properly?
Respuesta
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5

Pregunta 45

Pregunta
In a 5 – 4 decision, the United States Supreme Court agreed that the search incident to arrest doctrine of automobiles is not an automatic police entitlement and should only be applied when a defendant is still in a position to lunge into the passenger compartment or when the officer reasonably believes that the vehicle has evidence supporting the arrest. Which case law is this?
Respuesta
  • Arizona v. Gant
  • Carrol v. U.S
  • Tennessee V. Garner
  • Graham v. Connor

Pregunta 46

Pregunta
In an approach vehicle contact, how far away should you park your squad behind the subject vehicle?
Respuesta
  • Approximately 5 – 10 feet
  • Approximately 10 – 15 feet
  • Approximately 15 – 20 feet
  • Approximately 20 – 25 feet

Pregunta 47

Pregunta
In a high-risk traffic stop, how far away should you and other officers position the squads from the subject’s vehicle?
Respuesta
  • Approximately 15 feet
  • Approximately 25 feet
  • Approximately 50 feet
  • Approximately 100 feet

Pregunta 48

Pregunta
When making contact with the driver of the vehicle, what Basic Contact Model should you follow that you learned in Professional Communication Skills?
Respuesta
  • Opening Information-Gathering Resolution (OIR)
  • Disturbance Resolution Model
  • Tactical Deployment
  • Light Control Talk

Pregunta 49

Pregunta
If you have already decided what action you are going to take, you should let the driver know at this time. For example, Officer Ward have decided to issue a citation for a red signal violation. What step of OIR is this? Example: “Sir, I will be issuing you a citation. Please wait here in your car and I’ll be back with you as soon as I’ve finished the paperwork.”
Respuesta
  • Opening
  • Information-Gathering
  • Resolution
  • All the above

Pregunta 50

Pregunta
In the case of a vehicle contact, the beginning consists of you identifying yourself and your agency and explaining the reason for the stop. What step of OIR is this? Example: “Good afternoon, Sir. I’m Officer Domagalski of the Milwaukee Police Department. I stopped you because I saw your vehicle go through a red light at Main and First Street
Respuesta
  • Opening
  • Information-Gathering
  • Resolution
  • All the above

Pregunta 51

Pregunta
In this phase of the contact, you ask questions to understand the context of the behavior that prompted your stop, to identify the individuals involved, and to fill in any other information you need to get. For a vehicle contact, give the driver the opportunity to explain his or her actions. What step in OIR is this? Example: “Sir, was there some reason that you didn’t stop for that red light?”
Respuesta
  • Opening
  • Information-Gathering
  • Resolution
  • All the above

Pregunta 52

Pregunta
In this position, the squad car is angled slightly toward the roadway rather than being parallel to the subject vehicle. The angle places a portion of the car (and engine block) between the officer and the subject vehicle. One disadvantage of this position is that the squad car’s headlights may blind oncoming drivers, particularly at night, and especially if the headlights flash between high and low beams. At the same time because the squad car is angled, its emergency lights are less visible from the rear and its headlights and take-down lights are less able to illuminate the subject vehicle. What position is this?
Respuesta
  • Offset
  • Curve
  • In-Line
  • Angle-Left

Pregunta 53

Pregunta
In this position, the subject vehicle is stopped on the shoulder or next to the curb, and the squad car is adjusted to the left so that the left rear corner of the subject vehicle is even with the center of the squad. The purpose for this position rather than parking directly behind the subject vehicle is to provide the officer with a safety lane for walking up to and contacting the driver, if the officer chooses the left-hand approach. The disadvantage of this position is that the squad car does protrude into the traffic lane. That either makes the lane unusable by other traffic, or, if the lane is wide enough, may encourage other traffic to “squeeze by” putting the officer at risk of injury. What position is this?
Respuesta
  • Offset
  • In-Line
  • Adjusted-Right
  • Angle-Left

Pregunta 54

Pregunta
In this position, the squad car is positioned directly behind the subject vehicle. This position is used only when conditions preclude using one of the preferred positions. An example might be a high-traffic city street at rush hour, when either of the preferred positions would increase congestion by blocking a lane. This position provides no safety lane for the officer using a driver side approach—a passenger side approach. What position is this?
Respuesta
  • Straight-Aligned
  • Angled-Left
  • Offset
  • In-Line

Pregunta 55

Pregunta
If you have a vehicle with multiple subjects in it, you might choose to interview the driver away from the vehicle to minimize complications from the passengers, or pets. Or if you have stopped a vehicle for an investigative (“Terry”) stop, you may wish to wait for back-up before contacting the driver, since you suspect him or her of criminal activity. What contact is this?
Respuesta
  • High-Risk Contact
  • Non-Approach Contact
  • Approach Contact
  • All of the above

Pregunta 56

Pregunta
Most vehicle contacts are this type of contact, meaning that the officer gets out of his or her squad car and walks up to the subject vehicle to talk to the driver. This contact is used when your threat assessment suggests that it would be safe. What contact is this?
Respuesta
  • Non-Approach Contact
  • Approach Contact
  • High-Risk Contact
  • All the above

Pregunta 57

Pregunta
In this contact, you do not approach the vehicle until all subjects have been ordered out—at gunpoint—and secured. These contacts require multiple officers functioning in a coordinated effort. Certainly, some situations (a vehicle matching the description of the getaway car for armed robbers who just robbed a bank and shot a bank teller) automatically demand to be handled as this contact. What contact is this?
Respuesta
  • Approach Contact
  • Non-Approach Contact
  • High-Risk Contact
  • All the above

Pregunta 58

Pregunta
While conducting a traffic stop, what direction/position should your front wheels be turned?
Respuesta
  • Straight-Forward
  • Right
  • Doesn’t matter
  • Left

Pregunta 59

Pregunta
Where should placards be located on the transporting vehicle?
Respuesta
  • The rear of the tanker or trailer
  • The front of the vehicle, near the driver and passenger door
  • On the top of the vehicle
  • Displayed on both sides and ends of the transport vehicle

Pregunta 60

Pregunta
Which one of the following is the most desirable for terrorists to attack to shock the human/public coconscious?
Respuesta
  • School
  • Government facility
  • Sports arena/stadium
  • Airport

Pregunta 61

Pregunta
This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals contact the skin and pass into muscle tissue. In many cases, you are not even aware that you have been exposed. This type of exposure can take time and not even be evident until days or weeks after the event. The best defense to this type of exposure is to prevent skin contact with hazardous materials. What exposure is this?
Respuesta
  • Inhalation
  • Contact
  • Absorption
  • Ingestion

Pregunta 62

Pregunta
This exposure will cause damage to the skin as it makes its way into your body. A common chemical, which will damage the skin, muscles and organs, is Sulfuric Acid. What exposure is this?
Respuesta
  • Contact
  • Absorption
  • Injection
  • Inhalation

Pregunta 63

Pregunta
This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals are eaten or swallowed. Unintentional or accidental consumption occurs when good work practices are not followed, including not washing hands after having been exposed to a hazardous material or by touching your mouth/lips with a contaminated hand/gloved hand during an incident. What exposure is this?
Respuesta
  • Injection
  • Ingestion
  • Inhalation
  • Contact

Pregunta 64

Pregunta
This exposure is the most common form of chemical exposure and can immobilize a subject quickly. This exposure occurs in atmospheres contaminated with a hazardous chemical vapor or dust. What exposure is this?
Respuesta
  • Ingestion
  • Inhalation
  • Absorption
  • Contact

Pregunta 65

Pregunta
This exposure occur when a sharp object containing or contaminated with a hazardous chemical that penetrates the skin. Hypodermic syringes are the most common source of risks. This exposure also occurs when cuts are caused by broken glass and other "sharps" contaminated with hazardous chemicals. The object "injects" the contamination as it cuts. What exposure is this?
Respuesta
  • Inhalation
  • Contact
  • Injection
  • Ingestion

Pregunta 66

Pregunta
When placards are required to be displayed on a vehicle or freight container transporting hazardous materials, how many placards should be displayed?
Respuesta
  • 2 placards
  • 4 placards
  • 6 placards
  • 8 placards

Pregunta 67

Pregunta
Terrorists frequently use these devices as one of their most common weapons. These devices are popular because they are cheap and easy to produce, adaptable to a variety of uses, and difficult to detect and trace after the event. What category of mass destruction is this?
Respuesta
  • Bombing or explosions
  • Chemical threats
  • Biological threats
  • Nuclear Blast

Pregunta 68

Pregunta
These agents are organisms or toxins that can kill or incapacitate people, livestock, and crops. The three basic groups of these agents are bacteria, viruses, and toxins. Many of these agents break down quickly when exposed to sunlight and other environmental factors, but others, such as anthrax spore, are very long lived. What category of mass destruction is this?
Respuesta
  • Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
  • Bombing or explosions
  • Chemical threats
  • Biological threats

Pregunta 69

Pregunta
These agents are poisonous vapors, aerosols, liquids, and solids that have toxic effects on people, animals, or plants. They can be released by bombs or sprayed from aircraft, boats, and vehicles. They can be used as a liquid to create a hazard to people and the environment. Some agents may be odorless and tasteless. They can have an immediate effect (a few seconds to a few minutes) or a delayed effect (2 to 48 hours). While potentially lethal, these agents are difficult to deliver in lethal concentrations. Outdoors, the agents often dissipate rapidly. These agents also are difficult to produce and deliver. What category of mass destruction is this?
Respuesta
  • Nuclear Blast
  • Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
  • Chemical blast
  • Biological threats

Pregunta 70

Pregunta
This category of mass destruction is an explosion with intense light and heat, a damaging pressure wave, and widespread radioactive material that can contaminate the air, water, and ground surfaces for miles around. The effects of all these devices include blinding light, intense heat (thermal radiation), initial nuclear radiation, blast, fires started by the heat pulse, and secondary fires caused by the destruction. What category of mass destruction is this?
Respuesta
  • Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)
  • Nuclear blast
  • Biological threats
  • Chemical threats

Pregunta 71

Pregunta
Terrorist use of this device – often called a “dirty nuke” or “dirty bomb” – is considered far more likely than use of a nuclear explosive device. This device combines a conventional explosive device with radioactive material. It is designed to scatter dangerous and sub-lethal amounts of radioactive material over a general area. These devices appeal to terrorists because they require limited technical knowledge to build and deploy compared to a nuclear device. What category of mass destruction is this?
Respuesta
  • Chemical threats
  • Biological threats
  • Nuclear blast
  • Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)

Pregunta 72

Pregunta
As a First Responder, you should always get ____ and _____ from chemicals. Wind direction and terrain are some key officer safety considerations when arriving on scene at a hazardous materials incident.
Respuesta
  • Downhill and upwind
  • Uphill and upwind
  • Uphill and downwind
  • Downhill and downwind

Pregunta 73

Pregunta
This is where the bulk of your driving will take place. You may be patrolling a certain geographic area responding to non-emergency calls or even heading back into the station at the end of your shift. In many ways, this type of driving is similar to the driving you do off duty—but in other ways it is very different. You must be continually alert to your environment and pay attention to the surrounding area as well as the other drivers on the road with you. What law enforcement driving type is this?
Respuesta
  • Normal Patrol Operation
  • Pursuits
  • Emergency Response
  • All the above

Pregunta 74

Pregunta
This type of driving refers to the sort of driving you will do when responding to situations in which persons or property are in danger. These can include medical emergencies, assaults, motor vehicle accidents with injuries, fires, and so on. In these situations, you need to get to the scene as quickly as possible but without creating a bigger danger in doing so. You may need to use your emergency lights and siren and disregard certain traffic laws—for example, by exceeding the speed limit. What law enforcement driving type is this?
Respuesta
  • Pursuits
  • Emergency Response
  • Normal Patrol Operation
  • All the above

Pregunta 75

Pregunta
This type of driving represents one of the most dangerous tasks in law enforcement. Both the officer and the fleeing suspect are at risk just from the speeds at which they are driving. In addition, there may be other drivers or pedestrians along the way, and other responding officers who must coordinate their actions with the primary officer’s. What law enforcement driving type is this?
Respuesta
  • Emergency Response
  • Pursuits
  • Normal Patrol Operation
  • All the above

Pregunta 76

Pregunta
Which of following is true about Pursuit as it relates to law enforcement?
Respuesta
  • The pursuing officer is on duty in an authorized law enforcement vehicle, making him or her recognizable as a law enforcement officer
  • The driver of the fleeing vehicle is aware of the officer's attempt to stop him or her;
  • The driver is resisting apprehension, and is maintaining or increasing his or her speed
  • All the above

Pregunta 77

Pregunta
For law enforcement driving, the best position is one that permits you to make rapid changes in direction when needed, is not tiring, and allows easy access to vehicle controls and to your police radio. This hand position is the recommended position for all law enforcement driving (except for backing). Other methods work in some situations, but this hand position works in all conditions, from patrol driving to emergency operation. What hand position is this?
Respuesta
  • 9 o’clock / 3 o’clock concept
  • 10 o’clock / 2 o’clock concept
  • 12 o’clock concept
  • 8 o’clock concept

Pregunta 78

Pregunta
While reversing/backing up in a vehicle, what hand position should you use?
Respuesta
  • 10 o’clock / 2 o’clock concept
  • 8 o’clock concept
  • 9 o’clock / 3 o’clock
  • 12 o’clock concept

Pregunta 79

Pregunta
If your vehicle runs off the edge of the roadway, you must be able to perform an off-road recovery while not panicking. Which of the following is NOT true?
Respuesta
  • When your vehicle has slowed, gently apply the brakes and pull off the road.
  • Let off the gas
  • Immediately press on the breaks to stop while off road
  • Do not apply the brakes

Pregunta 80

Pregunta
Whether non-emergency driving, emergency driving, or in a pursuit, law enforcement officers must show “The degree of care that a reasonably careful person, performing similar duties, and acting under similar circumstances would show.” If this is not exercised for the safety of others, you can be liable under both civil and criminal law. What is this called?
Respuesta
  • Privileged
  • Due Regard
  • Community Care Law
  • Safe Regard Act 10

Pregunta 81

Pregunta
The exception to the requirement of lights and siren during emergency response is the so-called Silent Emergency. A Silent Emergency is a situation in which the officer is either obtaining evidence of a speed violation or responding to a call in which there is a need to avoid alerting a suspect to the officer’s presence. What are some examples of when a Silent Emergency might be needed?
Respuesta
  • Responding to a Burglary in Progress
  • Domestic Violence subject armed with a firearm
  • Knowledge of the officer’s presence may cause the suspected violator to evade apprehension
  • All the above

Pregunta 82

Pregunta
Generally, an agency establishes this policy when it is not set up to engage in high-speed pursuits. An agency with a small number of personnel, limited jurisdiction (for example, campus police), and/or lack of emergency-equipped vehicles may not permit its officers to take part in high-speed pursuits. What policy is this?
Respuesta
  • Permissive pursuit policy
  • Discretionary pursuit policy
  • Restrictive policy
  • No pursuit policy

Pregunta 83

Pregunta
This policy generally encourages police officers to conduct pursuits in a safe and efficient manner. However, this policy offers little or vague guidance to an agency’s officers. What policy is this?
Respuesta
  • Restrictive policy
  • No pursuit policy
  • Permissive policy
  • Discretionary policy

Pregunta 84

Pregunta
This policy severely limits police officers’ discretion in pursuits. It typically calls for the police to initiate or continue a pursuit only in felony circumstances or when a suspect presents a significant and immediate danger to the public. Under this type of policy, a police officer would be expected to pursue a murderer, rapist, robber, or other wanted felon who chose to flee. Under this policy, police typically would not pursue a traffic violator, someone in possession of illicit drugs, or someone involved in a nonviolent crime unless that person represented a tremendous danger to the general public and the person’s identification was unknown (for example, a OWI suspect who takes off after a vehicle vs. pedestrian crash). What policy is this?
Respuesta
  • Restrictive policy
  • No pursuit policy
  • Discretionary policy
  • Permissive policy

Pregunta 85

Pregunta
This policy provides specific guidelines to officers in departments that grant them authority to initiate and continue pursuits. The overriding goal of this type of policy seeks to balance the needs for the police to apprehend law violators with the requirement that police not unduly jeopardize public safety. What policy is this?
Respuesta
  • No pursuit policy
  • Discretionary policy
  • Permissive policy
  • Restrictive policy

Pregunta 86

Pregunta
Who can terminate a pursuit?
Respuesta
  • The officer conducting the pursuit
  • The supervisor
  • Both, the officer conducting the pursuit and the supervisor
  • All three; the officer conducting the pursuit, the supervisor, and the dispatcher

Pregunta 87

Pregunta
he goal of a pursuit is to pace the fleeing vehicle, not overtake it. Unless the pursuit is terminated before it concludes, you will simply pace the vehicle until……...
Respuesta
  • The suspect decides to stop
  • The suspect is induced or forced to stop
  • The suspect crashes
  • All the above

Pregunta 88

Pregunta
Which of the following situations should you NOT perform a moving roadblock (Boxing in)?
Respuesta
  • On an intoxicated driver who is slowly deviating between lanes at slow speeds
  • A fleeing driver who displays a firearm
  • An elderly driver who is confused, loss and who is suffering from Alzheimer’s disease
  • None of the above

Pregunta 89

Pregunta
You are approaching a curve, what action should you take?
Respuesta
  • Slow down before entering a turn
  • Slow down during the turn
  • Slow down after the turn
  • Accelerate and snap-turn during a turn

Pregunta 90

Pregunta
What should you aim for while approaching a curve? What is the correct term?
Respuesta
  • The angle of the curve
  • The point of the curve
  • The line of the curve
  • The apex of the curve

Pregunta 91

Pregunta
Whatever distance is required to stop the vehicle at 30 mph, it will take __ times as much distance to stop at 60 mph.
Respuesta
  • 2
  • 4
  • 6
  • 8

Pregunta 92

Pregunta
In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Tire Deflation Devices, Channelization and Barricades tactics” fall under?
Respuesta
  • Protective Alternatives
  • Deadly Force
  • Control Alternatives
  • All the above

Pregunta 93

Pregunta
In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Ramming and a Roadblock (no escape route)” fall under?
Respuesta
  • Control Alternatives
  • Dialogue
  • Protective Alternatives
  • Deadly Force

Pregunta 94

Pregunta
In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Moving Roadblock (boxing-In) and Roadblock (with escape route)” fall under?
Respuesta
  • Protective Alternatives
  • Deadly Force
  • Presence
  • Control Alternatives

Pregunta 95

Pregunta
When deciding to change lanes, there should always be a cushion of space in front of your vehicle in your present lane. Because of the impending lane change, your attention will be momentarily diverted, and the more space you have, the more reaction time you have. Therefore, you should have AT LEAST ___ seconds of space when deciding to change lanes?
Respuesta
  • 4 seconds
  • 6 seconds
  • 8 seconds
  • 12 seconds

Pregunta 96

Pregunta
While performing a moving roadblock (Boxing in) on an intoxicated subject so that he can stop or slow down his vehicle, the suspect displays a firearm. In this technique, the suspect’s vehicle is surrounded by three squad cars—one in front, one in back, and one to the side, just behind the driver door (Somewhat in a 2 ½ position). Out of the three squads, which officer is more in an undesirable position?
Respuesta
  • The officer to the side, just behind the suspect’s door
  • The officer in the front
  • The officer in the back
  • None of the above

Pregunta 97

Pregunta
During a vehicle inspection, what parts should you check at the beginning of your shift?
Respuesta
  • Tires and wheels
  • Exterior (body, chassis, engine)
  • Trunk and passenger compartment
  • All the above

Pregunta 98

Pregunta
While operating your squad car, what is the single most important choice you can make to ensure you have the appropriate amount of reaction time?
Respuesta
  • Avoid Multi-tasking
  • Avoid utilizing the radio while approaching corners
  • Being able to quickly switch from Normal patrol to Emergency Patrol in a timely manner
  • Ensure to always maintain a cushion of space around your squad

Pregunta 99

Pregunta
In Defensive and Arrest Tactics training, one of the basic principles is that the officer should always maintain a position of advantage, which means that the officer has a better ability to control the suspect. The same principle applies to pursuit driving. What position should you be in behind the suspect’s vehicle while in pursuit?
Respuesta
  • Little to the left
  • Far left
  • Little to the Right
  • In-lined and adjacent behind the suspect’s vehicle

Pregunta 100

Pregunta
Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this? - a laceration that requires stitches, staples, or a tissue adhesive; - any fracture of a bone; - a broken nose; - a burn; - a petechia [minute colored spot that appears on skin as the result of localized hemorrhage or rupture of blood vessel/capillary]; - a temporary loss of consciousness, sight or hearing; - a concussion; or - a loss or fracture of a tooth
Respuesta
  • Great bodily harm
  • Substantial bodily harm
  • Bodily Harm
  • None of the above

Pregunta 101

Pregunta
Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this? - creates a substantial risk of death, or - causes serious permanent disfigurement, or - causes a permanent or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ, or - other serious bodily injury
Respuesta
  • Great bodily harm
  • Bodily harm
  • Substantial bodily harm
  • None of the above

Pregunta 102

Pregunta
Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this? - physical pain or injury, illness, or any impairment of physical
Respuesta
  • Substantial bodily harm
  • Bodily harm
  • Great bodily harm
  • None of the above

Pregunta 103

Pregunta
Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this? - physical pain or injury - illness
Respuesta
  • Battery
  • Aggravated Battery
  • Substantial Battery
  • None of the above

Pregunta 104

Pregunta
Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this? - substantial risk of death - serious permanent disfigurement - permanent or protracted loss of function of any bodily member or organ - other serious bodily injury
Respuesta
  • Substantial Battery
  • Battery
  • Aggravated Battery
  • None of the above

Pregunta 105

Pregunta
Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this? - a laceration requiring stitches, staples, tissue adhesive - any fracture of a bone - broken nose -burn -temporary loss of consciousness, sight or hearing -concussion -loss or fracture of a tooth
Respuesta
  • Aggravated Battery
  • Battery
  • Substantial Battery
  • None of the above

Pregunta 106

Pregunta
For the penalties of a misdemeanor Retail Theft to be increased to a felony, how much must the value of the stolen property be worth?
Respuesta
  • More than $500
  • More than $1,000
  • More than $2,500
  • More than $5,000

Pregunta 107

Pregunta
Schliem pick-pocketed a woman while she was walking down the street. The woman was unaware of the stolen items missing from her pocket until she arrived home. The woman wasn’t injured or physically harmed. What crime is this?
Respuesta
  • Armed Robbery
  • Theft
  • Robbery
  • None of the above

Pregunta 108

Pregunta
Nielsen observed another individual standing on the bus stop with the newest iPhone in his hand. Nielsen approached the individual and punched him with a closed fist, while also taking the individual’s phone. What crime is this?
Respuesta
  • Theft
  • Robbery
  • Armed robbery
  • None of the above

Pregunta 109

Pregunta
Nash approached an individual with his handgun out pointed at the individual, while stating, “You already know what it is, give me everything!” The individual handed everything in his pockets over to Nash. What crime is this?
Respuesta
  • Armed robbery
  • Theft
  • Robbery
  • None of the above

Pregunta 110

Pregunta
Trash contents in a garbage can that’s located by the side of the house is considered what?
Respuesta
  • Abandoned property
  • Open field
  • Plain view
  • Curtilage

Pregunta 111

Pregunta
Trash contents in a garbage can that’s located outside the fence and at the curb is considered what?
Respuesta
  • Plain view
  • Curtilage
  • Abandoned property
  • Open view

Pregunta 112

Pregunta
Trash contents in a garbage can located in the alleyway by a detached garage is considered what? The detached garage can is not in close proximity of the house.
Respuesta
  • Abandoned property
  • Open view
  • Curtilage
  • Open field

Pregunta 113

Pregunta
A vin number on a vehicle that’s parked on the street is considered what?
Respuesta
  • Open fields
  • Open view
  • Fly overs
  • Plain view

Pregunta 114

Pregunta
Which of the following is considered Forcible Entry?
Respuesta
  • Kicking down a door
  • Turning the knob of a closed, unlocked door
  • Picking a lock of a closed or locked door
  • All the above

Pregunta 115

Pregunta
Within how many days does a search warrant have to be executed and served after being signed by the Assistant District Attorney and Judge?
Respuesta
  • Within 7 days, counting holidays and weekends
  • Within 7 days, excluding holidays and weekends
  • Within 5 days, counting holidays and weekends
  • Within 5 days, excluding holidays and weekends

Pregunta 116

Pregunta
After the execution of a search warrant, it should be returned to the judge within how many hours?
Respuesta
  • Within 72 hours, counting holidays and weekends
  • Within 72 hours, excluding holidays and weekends
  • Within 48 hours, counting holidays and weekends
  • Within 48 hours, excluding holidays and weekends

Pregunta 117

Pregunta
The constitution requires that in most circumstances, an officer must knock and announce before seeking to execute a search warrant. However, there are a few exceptions to the “knock and announce” requirement. Which of the following is/are an exception(s)?
Respuesta
  • No-knock authorization granted and signed by the judge
  • When an officer upon arrival at the scene reasonably believes that knocking and announcing will create a strong likelihood of the destruction of evidences or danger to the officers or others.
  • Both, A and B
  • None of the above

Pregunta 118

Pregunta
A stolen piano which was listed on the search warrant was found immediately as officers entered the house. However, officers continued to go through the rest of the house searching for other potential contraband. Upstairs in the attic, officers found 100 pounds of cocaine. Is this cocaine evidence admissible in court?
Respuesta
  • Yes, according to the good faith exception
  • Yes, maybe the other officers wasn’t aware of the very huge piano
  • Yes, because regardless of the situation, cocaine is still illegal so it doesn’t matter
  • No, the search must be immediately terminated when the items named in the warrant are found

Pregunta 119

Pregunta
If impounded, why might an inventory search of a suspect’s vehicle be a smart idea?
Respuesta
  • It protects the officer from claims of theft
  • It protects the automobile owner’s property
  • It protects the integrity of the impounded company and area
  • All the above

Pregunta 120

Pregunta
The authority to open closed containers found within the car is dependent upon whether the department has a specific policy as to closed containers in inventory searches. The policy doesn’t necessarily need to be in writing, although this is certainly preferable, but the policy must be uniformly and consistently applied by all members of the department. In the absence of such a policy, there is no authority to open a closed container in an inventory search. If it is necessary to go into the closed container, and there is no policy permitting this extension of the scope of the inventory, what should be obtained?
Respuesta
  • A search warrant
  • The supervisor’s permission
  • Reasonable suspicion
  • None of the above

Pregunta 121

Pregunta
Which one of the following is NOT true about body cavity searches?
Respuesta
  • A physician can conduct a body search
  • A physician’s assistant can conduct a body search
  • The arresting officer can conduct a body search
  • A registered nurse can conduct a body search

Pregunta 122

Pregunta
Which one of the following is NOT true about strip searches?
Respuesta
  • The person conducting the search has obtained the prior written permission of the chief, sheriff or law enforcement administrator of the jurisdiction where the person is detained
  • The person conducting the search is not required to be of the same sex as the detainee
  • The search shall not be reproduced through a visual or sound recording
  • The detainee shall not be exposed to the view of any person not conducting the search

Pregunta 123

Pregunta
This category of EDP’s includes people who are chronically ill, meaning they have a mental disorder all the time. Typically, this category of EDP’s cannot function while being off of their medication. Which type is this?
Respuesta
  • Short-Term EDP’s
  • Chemical Abusers
  • Long-Terms EDP’s
  • None of the above

Pregunta 124

Pregunta
This category of EDP’s includes people who abuse alcohol or other drugs, or both. This category includes chronic abusers as well as those who are temporary under the influence of alcohol or another drug. This category also includes people who are withdrawing from alcohol or other drugs. Which type is this?
Respuesta
  • Chemical Abusers
  • Long-Term EDP’s
  • Short-Term EDP’s
  • None of the above

Pregunta 125

Pregunta
This category of EDP’s includes people who are going through an acute mental or emotional crisis, or who are simply very upset for some reason. Such people may be normally rational, but they have been pushed to the limits of their coping abilities by events or circumstances. Generally, the crisis period only lasts for a relatively short time. Which type is this?
Respuesta
  • Long-Term EDP’s
  • Short-Term EDP’s
  • Chemical Abusers
  • None of the above

Pregunta 126

Pregunta
The person becomes temporarily out-of-control. He or she may scream, yell or curse, or may wave arms or stamp feet. In this state, a person may become assaultive. Which stage of the crisis cycle is this?
Respuesta
  • Escalation
  • Stimulation
  • Normal State
  • Crisis State

Pregunta 127

Pregunta
Following the crisis, the person may drop below their normal level of stimulation. This is more likely if the crisis phase was prolonged and/or physical. Typically a person in this stage is quiet, tired and/or withdrawn, and may express regret about his or her actions, include crying. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
Respuesta
  • Stabilization (return to normalcy)
  • De-escalation
  • Normal Sate
  • Post-Crisis Drain or Depletion

Pregunta 128

Pregunta
There is no crisis yet. The person’s emotional state and mental abilities are at regular levels. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
Respuesta
  • Crisis State
  • Stimulation
  • Normal State
  • Stabilization (return to normalcy)

Pregunta 129

Pregunta
The person shows obvious signs of distress, including observable physical changes and changes in behaviors. Some examples of these include reddening of the face, tensing of muscles (clenched jaw, clenched fists), talking more or louder, and sometimes becoming quieter or more withdrawn. Also, there may be increased activity, such as pacing or rocking. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
Respuesta
  • Escalation
  • Stimulation
  • Crisis State
  • Post-Crisis Drain or Depletion

Pregunta 130

Pregunta
During this stage, the person is back to normal behavior and is once again under control. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
Respuesta
  • De-escalation
  • Stabilization (return to normalcy)
  • Post-Crisis Drain or Depletion
  • Normal State

Pregunta 131

Pregunta
In this phase, there is a gradual decrease in the crisis behaviors. The person remains tense, but is more in control. If provoked, however, the person can go back into crisis. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
Respuesta
  • De-escalation
  • Escalation
  • Stabilization (return to normalcy)
  • Stimulation

Pregunta 132

Pregunta
Something happens to cause the person to become excited, upset, active or physically uncomfortable. The cause can be external (something someone said or did, or an environmental factor such as heat, cold or crowed conditions) or internal (physical illness or injury, pain, emotional reaction, or mental illness). What stage of the crisis cycle is this?
Respuesta
  • Crisis State
  • Normal State
  • Stabilization
  • Stimulation

Pregunta 133

Pregunta
The key characteristic of this form of mental illness is mood swings, from depression to mania—from a “low” to a “high.” This illness was previously known as “manic-depressive disorder.” There is, however, wide variation of symptoms between different people with this disorder. Some people have great mood swings, going from extreme manic periods to the depths of depression. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?
Respuesta
  • Bipolar
  • Depression
  • Anxiety
  • Schizophrenia

Pregunta 134

Pregunta
Another major category of “severe and persistent” mental illness is thought disorders—diseases in which the predominant factor is a disturbance of thinking, rather than primarily of mood. Some of the main symptoms are delusions, hallucinations, visual hallucinations, disordered thinking and speech, unusual realities, and paranoia. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?
Respuesta
  • Anxiety
  • Bipolar
  • Schizophrenia
  • Depression

Pregunta 135

Pregunta
This disorder is a normal emotion that everyone experiences at one time or another, usually in response to a realistic situation or concern. Feelings of this disorder are, in fact, often a good thing because such feelings motivate us to take positive actions—such as preparing for a test or a presentation or some other event about which we feel anxious. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?
Respuesta
  • Schizophrenia
  • Anxiety
  • Depression
  • Bipolar

Pregunta 136

Pregunta
This disorder refers to an illness, a disorder of the brain in which a change in the chemical balance of the brain causes serious symptoms. Some common symptoms are deep feelings of helplessness and hopelessness, thoughts and feelings of guilt and self-blaming, diminished feelings of self-worth, lack of energy or ability to do normal activities, etc. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?
Respuesta
  • Bipolar
  • Schizophrenia
  • Depression
  • Anxiety

Pregunta 137

Pregunta
When responding to a person who has schizophrenia or another form of a “thought disorder”, which one of the following is NOT true?
Respuesta
  • Try to use a passive, friendly and low-key approach
  • Maintain proper distances, and if possible, allow people to feel that they have an escape route
  • Trick the person into thinking that you also hear and see the same hallucinations as he or she does, in order to build rapport
  • Do not argue with him or her or tell the person that their perceptions are not real

Pregunta 138

Pregunta
What requirements are needed for a person to meet the statutory definition of an “incapacitated by alcohol”?
Respuesta
  • Unconscious
  • Cannot make rational decisions
  • Mental or physical functioning is substantially impaired by the use of alcohol
  • A or B
  • B or C

Pregunta 139

Pregunta
In responding to a person who has or may have an intellectual disability or other developmental disability, which of the following would you NOT do?
Respuesta
  • Treat the person with respect
  • Keep things simple
  • Touch them reassuringly
  • Be patient

Pregunta 140

Pregunta
Domestic violence occurs in intimate relationships. Which one of the following is NOT included as an intimate relationship?
Respuesta
  • Those who currently reside or formerly resided together, such as roommates and household members
  • A neighbor that you’ve known for 10 plus years
  • Current or former spouses, partners, and significant others, including boyfriend/girlfriends, and including gay, lesbian, transgender, and bisexual relationships
  • Those who have or share a child in common, or created a child in common

Pregunta 141

Pregunta
Following a domestic violence crime, within how many days should it be reported to authorities?
Respuesta
  • 14 days
  • 28 days
  • 60 days
  • 90 days

Pregunta 142

Pregunta
Which of the following requires a MANDATORY arrested if violated?
Respuesta
  • Domestic abuse retraining order
  • Child abuse restraining order
  • Individual at risk restraining order and harassment retraining order
  • All the above

Pregunta 143

Pregunta
Immediately following a domestic violence arrest, how many hours is the no-contact order?
Respuesta
  • 12 hours
  • 48 hours
  • 72 hours
  • 96 hours

Pregunta 144

Pregunta
After responding to a shooting with a suspect armed with a rifle, you observed a wounded blood-covered victim on the front porch of a house. However, the armed suspect is in that same house and his immediate location is unknown. What is the first priority?
Respuesta
  • Rescue the wounded victim and perform triage
  • Stopping the threat
  • Notifying a negotiating officer
  • Notifying the Chief of Police/Sheriff and media

Pregunta 145

Pregunta
What is an officer’s first priority when responding to a high threat environment, such as an active shooter?
Respuesta
  • To render aid to those who are wounded
  • To search for causalities
  • To stop an ongoing threat of death or great bodily harm
  • None of the above

Pregunta 146

Pregunta
This zone is unlikely, but not impossible that danger still exists. For example, if law enforcement contains or stops one active shooter, but has not thoroughly searched the building, another shooter could still be present. Generally, only law enforcement officers or those escorted by law enforcement officers should enter this zone. What zone is this?
Respuesta
  • Warm zone
  • Hot zone
  • Cold zone
  • None of the above

Pregunta 147

Pregunta
This zone is an area with no known hazards. For example, EMS might establish a casualty collection point inside this zone, where they can treat, load, and transport casualties without interference. What zone is this?
Respuesta
  • Hot zone
  • Cold zone
  • Warm zone
  • None of the above

Pregunta 148

Pregunta
This zone is a dangerous location where anyone present is at risk of harm. This zone is the immediate area and location of a subject. What zone is this?
Respuesta
  • Hot zone
  • Warm zone
  • Cold zone
  • All the above

Pregunta 149

Pregunta
This phase of care occurs when you are inside the “warm zone.” For example, you might have responded to a “shots fired” call in a business, and other officers have contained the suspect in another room. You have cover and concealment from the only known threat, but the building has not been thoroughly searched. During this phase of care, you can render additional medical care to yourself or others. What phase of care is this?
Respuesta
  • Direct threat care
  • Tactical Evaluation
  • Indirect threat care
  • None of the above

Pregunta 150

Pregunta
This phase of care occurs when you are inside the “hot zone” and the threat is in close proximity to you. For example, you might be responding to a “shots fired” call inside a building, where the location of the shooter is unknown. Because of the ongoing danger, your primary objective must be stopping the threat. If possible, direct the casualty to move to you or another location of relative safety, and/or to treat himself/herself. What phase of care is this?
Respuesta
  • Indirect threat care
  • Direct threat care
  • Tactical Evaluation
  • None of the above

Pregunta 151

Pregunta
During this phase of care, you will provide rapid, secure extraction from the “hot zone” to EMS in the “cold zone,” or extraction directly to an appropriate medical facility. As always, you will continue to maintain officer safety by addressing any suspect threats to life, and by applying and maintaining appropriate medical interventions. What phase of care is this?
Respuesta
  • Direct threat care
  • Tactical Evaluation
  • Indirect threat care
  • None of the above

Pregunta 152

Pregunta
After responding to an active shooter at a high school, which is a high threat situation, you observed two causalities located in a classroom. One of the subjects appears to be dead. The other casualty is wounded but conscious. This person can talk and move. Between the two, which causality is more of a priority at this time, in this particular situation?
Respuesta
  • The subject that appears to be dead, since he’s in worse condition
  • The wounded but conscious subject; you can also ask if he can self-rescue
  • They have the same priority
  • All the above

Pregunta 153

Pregunta
How should you apply a tourniquet on an extremity?
Respuesta
  • "Low or die” or at least 2 – 3 inches proximal to the injury
  • Apply it directly on the extremity
  • Slightly loose so that it doesn’t cause too much pain on the injured person
  • “High or die” or at least 2 – 3 inches proximal to the injury

Pregunta 154

Pregunta
The shooter has been shot by responding officers. It is unclear whether there are any more threats. The Tactical team is now clearing the building room by room, level by level. In the meantime, you’re in a secured room with casualties, some that have been injured. What should you do?
Respuesta
  • Perform Triage
  • Wait until the tactical team clears the whole building , and then wait for EMS
  • Tell the causalities to hang on
  • Tell the casualties to run outside to safety

Pregunta 155

Pregunta
While metering/slicing the pie during room clearing, how should your eyes and your gun be?
Respuesta
  • Eyes around the corner first and then your gun follows
  • Your gun around the corner first and then your eyes next
  • Your eyes and gun should move at the same time; 3rd eye
  • It’s the officer’s discretion what to use

Pregunta 156

Pregunta
This technique is designed to gain rapid control over a structure to rescue hostages or arrest suspects before they can arm themselves. These types of entry techniques are not without risk—they depend on speed and surprise and do not permit officers as much time to identify risks and clear all angles. What search technique is this?
Respuesta
  • Dynamic entry
  • Combat entry
  • Methodical searches
  • Swat team technique

Pregunta 157

Pregunta
This search combines “slicing the pie” with good communication with your partner(s). You and your partner “slice” the building’s angles to locate any suspects inside. Move together, slowly and thoroughly. One officer slices new areas while the other partner covers angles the first officer cannot observe. What search technique is this?
Respuesta
  • Slip and Slide technique
  • Up and under entry
  • Methodical searches
  • Dynamic entry

Pregunta 158

Pregunta
In about half of all active shooter incidents, the attack ends before law enforcement even arrives. Which one of the following is the reason why active shooter incidents end before law enforcement even arrives?
Respuesta
  • The perpetrator commits suicide
  • The perpetrator leaves
  • The perpetrator is stopped by victims
  • All the above

Pregunta 159

Pregunta
When faced with an active shooter, the most prevalent advice for the general public suggests that victims do what?
Respuesta
  • Run
  • Hide
  • Fight
  • All of the above

Pregunta 160

Pregunta
The guiding principles of every active shooter response should be what?
Respuesta
  • Stop the killing
  • Save the wounded
  • Find weapons
  • A and B

Pregunta 161

Pregunta
During the mediation process, what should you use to show good listening skills and to obtain clarification?
Respuesta
  • Write down notes
  • Use paraphrasing
  • Ask the subject to repeat everything he said to make sure
  • None of the above

Pregunta 162

Pregunta
What is the next step of the mediation process after person #1 gets finished telling his/her story?
Respuesta
  • The disputants then speak directly to each other, giving their side and indication how they would like to see the situation resolved
  • Go into in arbitration
  • Person #2 gets his or her turn to speak to you (the mediator) without interruption
  • None of the above

Pregunta 163

Pregunta
During crisis intervention, what are some strategies that you can use to try and get the person’s attention?
Respuesta
  • Come into the person’s line of sight while not standing directly in front of the subject
  • Avoid crowding the subject
  • Remove the person from the scene of the crisis, if possible
  • All the above

Pregunta 164

Pregunta
How many people should there be when delivering a death notification?
Respuesta
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4

Pregunta 165

Pregunta
What should you NOT refer the person killed as?
Respuesta
  • The body
  • His or her legal name
  • A and B
  • None of the above

Pregunta 166

Pregunta
Which of the following should you NOT do while giving a death notification?
Respuesta
  • Use words that’s NOT plain language in order to soften the blow to the survivors
  • If that one person/survivor was notified is home alone, leave them home alone after you delivered the notification
  • Send and receive death notification information over the police radio
  • All the above

Pregunta 167

Pregunta
For the Implied Consent law to apply, what must first happen to the driver?
Respuesta
  • Driver must first be informed of his Miranda rights
  • Driver must first be given a citation
  • Driver must first be arrested for an OWI
  • Driver must first be involved in a serious or fatal car crash

Pregunta 168

Pregunta
Which one of the following is FALSE?
Respuesta
  • The driver has the right to request for an attorney prior to taking a chemical/blood test
  • If a driver refuses a chemical/blood test after being arrested, his or her license will be revoked, followed by other administrative penalties
  • If a driver refuses a chemical/blood test after being arrested, the officer must get a search warrant for the blood prior to seizure
  • If a person submits to an evidentiary test and scores .08 or above, or .02 and above for fourth and subsequent offenses, the officer may process the paperwork for an administrative suspension.

Pregunta 169

Pregunta
An intoxicated driver that was arrested for OWI has refused to submit to a chemical/blood test, but later changes his mind. Which one of the following is TRUE?
Respuesta
  • After the refusal, the officer MUST honor the refusal and get a search warrant for a blood test
  • Per the implied consent law, the driver has the right to refuse a chemical test without receiving any driver license administration penalties
  • The officer has no discretion after a refusal; therefore, the supervisor must take over
  • It is in the officer’s discretion as to whether a test shall then be given
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