Week 9- Skeletal & Muscular Systems

Descripción

Genetic Counseling Test sobre Week 9- Skeletal & Muscular Systems, creado por Bailey Sanderson el 03/12/2018.
Bailey Sanderson
Test por Bailey Sanderson, actualizado hace más de 1 año
Bailey Sanderson
Creado por Bailey Sanderson hace casi 6 años
9
1

Resumen del Recurso

Pregunta 1

Pregunta
All of the following are true about somites except:
Respuesta
  • They begin to develop in the 6th week
  • They form the craniocaudal sequence for the embryo and are the origin of most of the axial skeleton and associated musculature
  • They develop from the paraxial mesoderm as the neural tube is forming
  • They differentiate into 2 parts, the sclerotome and dermomyotome
  • They appear as bead-like elevations along the dorsolateral surface of the embryo

Pregunta 2

Pregunta
Which of the following structures will eventually form vertebrae and ribs?
Respuesta
  • Notochord
  • Sclerotome
  • Dermomyotome
  • Meningotome

Pregunta 3

Pregunta
Which answer best describes the kind of bones developed through intramembranous ossification?
Respuesta
  • Femurs and Humerus
  • Rubs and Sternum
  • Flat bones of the Calvaria/Skullcap, Maxilla, Mandible
  • Malleus, Incus, Stapes, Hyoid

Pregunta 4

Pregunta
All of the following are considered to be lethal birth defects except:
Respuesta
  • Anecephaly
  • Bilateral renal agensis
  • Pierre Robin sequence
  • Thanatophoric dysplasia

Pregunta 5

Pregunta
All of the following are true regarding Rickets except:
Respuesta
  • It ca be due to vitamin D deficiency and hypophosphatemia
  • Affected individuals have short stature
  • Affected individuals have abnormal appearing bones/limbs aside from just short stature
  • Affected individuals rarely have other clinical manifestations
  • There are both recessive and X-linked forms

Pregunta 6

Pregunta
Which of the following ultrasound findings is not associated with renal agenesis?
Respuesta
  • Contractures
  • Brachycephaly
  • Anyhdramnios/Oligohydramnios
  • Absent blood flow to renal arteries

Pregunta 7

Pregunta
Which type of joint is capable of secreting protective fluid to cushion the surrounding bones?
Respuesta
  • Fibrous joint
  • Cartilaginous joint
  • Synovial joint

Pregunta 8

Pregunta
All of the following are part of the axial skeleton except:
Respuesta
  • Cranium
  • Vertebral column
  • Ribs
  • Clavicles
  • Sternum

Pregunta 9

Pregunta
In the 5th week the sclerotomes in the vertebral column have loosely arranged cells cranially and densely packed cells caudally. By the ___ week the vertebra are in the cartilaginous stage, arranging bone models and by the ___ week ossification beings. By ___ the bony halves are fused.
Respuesta
  • 6th, 7th, 3-5 years of life
  • 6th, 10th, the end of the 1st year of life
  • 8th, 12th, birth
  • 8th, 9th, 3-5 years of life

Pregunta 10

Pregunta
All of the following birth defects can be features of Down syndrome except:
Respuesta
  • Congenital heart defects
  • Pyelectasis
  • Macroglossia
  • Splayed cerebellum/banana sign
  • Congenital megacolon/Hirschsprung's

Pregunta 11

Pregunta
Which structure(s) describe where the cranial sutures meet and enable the bones of the skull to undergo shape changes during birth?
Respuesta
  • Fontanelles
  • Calvaria
  • Fibrous neurocranium
  • Hyaline cartilage

Pregunta 12

Pregunta
The increase in the size of the skull bones is greatest during which period?
Respuesta
  • Embryonic period
  • Fetal period
  • Birth-2 years
  • 3 to 5 years

Pregunta 13

Pregunta
All of the following statements are true regarding sex determination except:
Respuesta
  • The female phenotype requires 2 X chromosomes
  • The male phenotype requires a functional Y chromosome
  • Ovarian and testicular development being around the same embryonic age
  • Hormones are required for male sex determination but not for female sex determination

Pregunta 14

Pregunta
Which of the following causes a long, wedge shaped cranium caused by early closer of the sagittal suture and is the most common type of idiopathic/isolated craniosynostosis?
Respuesta
  • Scaphocephaly
  • Brachycephaly
  • Plagiocephaly
  • Trignocephaly

Pregunta 15

Pregunta
The most common type of skeletal dysplasia is:
Respuesta
  • Camptomelic dysplasia
  • Chondrodypslasia punctata
  • Achondroplasia
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta

Pregunta 16

Pregunta
The myotome regions of the somites form _______ and the splanchnic mesoderm forms ______.
Respuesta
  • Limb muscles; head and neck muscles
  • Skeletal muscles; cardiac and smooth muscles
  • Head and neck muscles; skeletal muscles
  • Cardiac and smooth muscles; limb muscles

Pregunta 17

Pregunta
Which of the following is a risk factor for having a child with a skeletal dysplasia?
Respuesta
  • Advanced maternal age
  • Advanced paternal age
  • Maternal age <25 years old
  • Uncontrolled type 2 diabetes

Pregunta 18

Pregunta
The appearance and number of sites is used to determine embryonic age.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 19

Pregunta
Intramembranous ossification occurs within a membranous sheath without prior cartilage formation.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 20

Pregunta
Endochondral ossification occurs in preexisting bone models made from cartilage tissue.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 21

Pregunta
Both the diaphyses (center bones) and epiphyses (ends of bone) remain cartilaginous throughout childhood/adolescence until bone growth is completed.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 22

Pregunta
Prenatal detection methods can rarely detect forms of skeletal dysplasia.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 23

Pregunta
Hyaline cartilage is the most widely distributed throughout the body (ie joints).
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 24

Pregunta
Joints develop from condensed mesenchyme and by 8 weeks resemble adult joints.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 25

Pregunta
Short long bones identified on ultrasound can be a marker for skeletal dysplasia as well as for Down syndrome.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 26

Pregunta
The FGFR3 gene is implicated in craniosynostosis syndromes but not skeletal dysplasias.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 27

Pregunta
Accessory ribs, absence and/or variation of muscles, and unilateral multicycstic dysplastic kidneys are early common findings and usually of no clinical significance.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 28

Pregunta
The micro deletion in DiGeorge/Velocardiofacial syndrome is [blank_start]22q11.2[blank_end]
Respuesta
  • 22q11.2

Pregunta 29

Pregunta
A potential cause of arthrogryoposis/joint contractors is [blank_start]CT anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]neuropathic disorders[blank_end]; [blank_start]anhydramnios[blank_end]
Respuesta
  • CT anomalies
  • neuropathic disorders
  • anhydramnios

Pregunta 30

Pregunta
Describe 3 clinical features of CHARGE syndrome: [blank_start]coloboma[blank_end]; [blank_start]heart disease[blank_end]; [blank_start]atresia choanae[blank_end]; [blank_start]restricted growth[blank_end]; [blank_start]genital anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]ear anomalies[blank_end]
Respuesta
  • coloboma
  • heart disease
  • atresia choanae
  • restricted growth
  • genital anomalies
  • ear anomalies

Pregunta 31

Pregunta
Describe 3 clinical features of VACTERL association: [blank_start]vertebral anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]anal atresia[blank_end]; [blank_start]cardiovascular anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]tracheoesophageal fistula[blank_end]; [blank_start]esophageal atresia[blank_end]; [blank_start]renal anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]limb defects[blank_end]
Respuesta
  • limb defects
  • renal anomalies
  • esophageal atresia
  • tracheoesophageal fistula
  • cardiovascular anomalies
  • anal atresia
  • vertebral anomalies

Pregunta 32

Pregunta
[blank_start]Poland sequence[blank_end] is a condition characterized by absence of the pectorals major muscle that results in hypo plastic fused ribs, unilateral absence of breast nipple, areola, hemivertebrae, syndactyly, brachydactylyl, and in some cases dextrocardia.
Respuesta
  • Poland sequence

Pregunta 33

Pregunta
The most common cytogenetic abnormality observed in spontaneously aborted fetuses is [blank_start]45,X[blank_end].
Respuesta
  • 45,X

Pregunta 34

Pregunta
A physiological omphalocele should be resolved by the [blank_start]10[blank_end]th week of gestation.
Respuesta
  • 10

Pregunta 35

Pregunta
A MSAFP value above [blank_start]2.50[blank_end] MoM will result in a prenatal screening test that indicates an increased risk for neural tube/abdominal wall defects.
Respuesta
  • 2.50

Pregunta 36

Pregunta
A nuchal translucency (NT) measurement greater than [blank_start]3[blank_end] mm will result in a prenatal screening test that indicates a greater than 20% chance for an underlying chromosome abnormality.
Respuesta
  • 3
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