2432027
Descripción
Test por Breck Waggoner, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Breck Waggoner
hace más de 9 años
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|
Pregunta 1
Pregunta
What structural areas allow maintenance to inspect or service aircraft components?
Respuesta
-
Nacelles
-
Windows
-
Doors
-
Plates and Skins
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Which major structural area provides support for the engines?
Respuesta
-
Nacelles
-
Wings
-
Stabilizers
-
Fuselage
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
Which is not a major aircraft structural area?
Respuesta
-
Windows
-
Stabilizers
-
Wing Carry-Through
-
Fuselage
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Which component guards against accidental firing of ejection seats?
Respuesta
-
Safety Pins
-
Stabilizers
-
Red Streamers
-
initiators
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
How do independent positioning determine subsystem function?
Respuesta
-
By recording radar data
-
By calculating aircraft velocity
-
Independent of inertial navigation
-
Independent of ground epuipment
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
which is not an avionics system?
Respuesta
-
built in test system
-
control and displays
-
central computing complex
-
navigation and weapon delivery
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
which is not part of an engine indicating system
Respuesta
-
oil quanity
-
water temperature
-
engine vibration
-
fuel flow
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
what is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?
Respuesta
-
25 feet to the front and sides
-
50 feet to the front and sides
-
50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides
-
25 feet to the front and 10 feet to the sides
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
Respuesta
-
from the side of the wheel
-
only after the blowout screen is installed
-
from the front of or behind the wheel
-
at a 45 degree angle to the wheel
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body
Respuesta
-
heat is produced
-
nothing
-
your internal organs start to deteriorate
-
your heart beats irregulary
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
what is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
Respuesta
-
1 foot
-
3 feet
-
5 feet
-
10 feet
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
the minimum safe distance from an HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
Respuesta
-
1 foot
-
3 feet
-
5 feet
-
10 feet
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
which condition is usually not caused by an over exposure to noise?
Respuesta
-
hearing problems
-
fatigue
-
excessive energy
-
speech problems
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
the greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to rear of the engine through an angle of
Respuesta
-
45 degrees on either side
-
90 degrees on either side
-
60 degrees on either side
-
45 degrees on either side
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from over exposure to noise?
Respuesta
-
unconsciousness
-
dizziness
-
vomiting
-
nausea
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise
Respuesta
-
frequent nausea
-
permanent hearing loss
-
temporary weight gain
-
small overdoses have little to no effect
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
which is not an Air Force inspection concept
Respuesta
-
preflight
-
phased
-
isochronical
-
periodic
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept
Respuesta
-
All units regardless of majcom
-
ACC unit
-
AMC units
-
AFSOC units
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operations of the aircraft
Respuesta
-
preflight
-
phase
-
end of runway
-
basic post flight
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
when is the thruflight inspection perfromed
Respuesta
-
after the last flight of each day
-
before the aircraft goes on alert
-
prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops
-
after a specific number of flying hours has elapsed
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspections
Respuesta
-
minor
-
major
-
phase
-
periodic
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
when the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base
Respuesta
-
to which the aircraft belongs
-
where the first intermediate stop is made
-
from which the mission is being performed
-
nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing
Respuesta
-
special inspection
-
acceptance inspection
-
operator inspection
-
periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
malfunctions documented on an AFTO form 244 are the responsibility of
Respuesta
-
aerospace ground equipment mechanics
-
avionics backshop personnel
-
flight line technicions
-
propulsion mechanics
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
Part V of the AFTO form 244 is used to document
Respuesta
-
maintenance/delayed discrepancies
-
non-scheduled inspections
-
item identifications
-
scheduled inspections
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
the AFTO form 781 series would not be used to document aircraft
Respuesta
-
flight records
-
configurations
-
component repair
-
inspections
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO form 781
Respuesta
-
B
-
K
-
L
-
A
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
at what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO form 781A
Respuesta
-
when you enter them in error
-
when you find them to be incorrect
-
when you must correct a discrepancy
-
never, even if you entered them in error
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
who ensures the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO form 781 A
Respuesta
-
technicion
-
supervisor
-
crewchief
-
aircraft crew member
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO form 781 A
Respuesta
-
description of the corrective action
-
TO reference
-
technicians signiture
-
supervisors signiture
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all comsec required entries
Respuesta
-
crewchief
-
pro super
-
Comm/nav technician
-
aircrew
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information
Respuesta
-
781A
-
781B
-
781H
-
781J
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time
Respuesta
-
781A
-
781J
-
781K
-
781L
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data
Respuesta
-
781A
-
781B
-
781K
-
781L
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
Block C of the AFTO form 781K is used to document
Respuesta
-
inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period
-
all immediate and urgent action TCTOs upon compliance
-
the status of depot maintenance
-
higher authority inspection
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
to "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury of ignored, use
Respuesta
-
AFTO form 244
-
AFTO form 781K
-
AF form 1492
-
AF form 979
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder
Respuesta
-
the bottom portion
-
the top portion
-
neither
-
both
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
what helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electronic discharge
Respuesta
-
Humid air
-
use of non conductive packaging material
-
use of proper insulating materials
-
dehumidified air
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
an example of an ESDS devise is a
Respuesta
-
diode
-
PROM
-
Transistor
-
MOSROM
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
what type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect
Respuesta
-
intermittent
-
erroneous signal
-
latent or delayed
-
total component
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?
Respuesta
-
touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
-
touching the LRU case with your hand proir to removal from the aircraft
-
covering LRU connector plugs
-
using protective tote boxes
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
when working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use
Respuesta
-
ungrounded floor mats
-
a grounded work bench
-
nonconductive antistatic mats
-
a grounded LRU
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
what type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area
Respuesta
-
hard
-
shielded
-
floating
-
common
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area
Respuesta
-
improper use of conductive bags
-
wearing of personal clothing
-
use of ionozers
-
improper use of conductive tote boxes
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate of loss
Respuesta
-
emp
-
coaxial
-
shielded
-
insulated
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
which is not a type of connector coupling
Respuesta
-
friction
-
bayonet
-
insertion
-
threaded
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
all of the following are rf connectors precautions except
Respuesta
-
never step on the cable
-
ensure a good grip when using pliers
-
ensure you solder double shielded cables together
-
ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
twisting of the fiber optic cable during installation or maintenance results in
Respuesta
-
stretching of the glass fibers
-
greater elasticity of the glass fibers
-
reduced optical power transmission
-
good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
what is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over wire cables?
Respuesta
-
cost
-
light weight
-
low attenuation
-
immunity to electromagnetic interference
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
optoelectric transducer detectors perform what functions in a fiber optic transmission
Respuesta
-
amplifies output circuit signals
-
converts electrical signal to light signals
-
converts optical energy to electrical energy
-
emit light when current is passed through them
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures
Respuesta
-
connectors will mate properly
-
solder will adhere properly
-
RF will not be impeded
-
proper connections
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
flux is designed to
Respuesta
-
keep connections clean
-
bond electrical connection
-
ensure electrical conductivity
-
proper connections
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
proper care of an electric soldiering iron involves
Respuesta
-
cooling the iron by dipping it in water
-
jerking the iron to remove excess solder
-
tapping an iron on a table to remove excess solder
-
keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using it
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
which is not a type of solderless connector
Respuesta
-
splice
-
terminal lugs
-
connector splice
-
connector plug pins
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
what type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment
Respuesta
-
splice
-
terminal lugs
-
connector splice
-
connector plug pins
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
one purpose of crimper positioner is to
Respuesta
-
align crimper handles to pin contact
-
put pin contacts in the proper position
-
put the turret head in line with pin contact
-
adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
the colored end of an insertion and extraction is used for contact
Respuesta
-
insertion into a rear release connector plug
-
extraction from a rear release connector plug
-
insertion into a front release connector plug
-
extraction from a front release connector plug
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
one way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use
Respuesta
-
silicone tape
-
silicone caulking
-
heat shrinkable tape
-
electrical wrapping tape
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
the MIL-STD that governs heat tool operation in a potentially explosive environment is
Respuesta
-
810
-
811
-
812
-
813
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
the heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the
Respuesta
-
tool operater
-
air/nitrogen regualtor
-
temperature controller
-
tubular heating elements
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
as a flight line technician, you can repair up to
Respuesta
-
20% of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
-
20% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
-
25% of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
-
25% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO
Respuesta
-
1-1A-14
-
1-1A-15
-
1-1A-16
-
1-1A-18
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
what precaution must you adhere to prior to heat shrink to a wire repair job
Respuesta
-
ensure proper lighting
-
inventory required tools
-
read all procedures in TO 1-!A -14
-
warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
what is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling
Respuesta
-
prevents sliping
-
lessens tendencies to cut wire insulation
-
promotes moisture and fungus resistance
-
fulfills temperature requirements for tying materials
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
which of the following is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles
Respuesta
-
lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping
-
tie all wire groups or bundles 12in or less apart
-
do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundles that is located inside a conduit
-
when tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to avoid playing (spreading) of contacts
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
the circuit used in an AM trasmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designated frequency required for carrier wave operation is
Respuesta
-
a buffer amplifier
-
an audio amplifier
-
a power amplifier
-
a frequency multiplier
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
to achieve AM, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signals
Respuesta
-
linear amplifier
-
power amplifier
-
balanced amplifier
-
non-liner amplifier
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
the frequencies created by the heterodyning process in an AM transmitter modulator are the
Respuesta
-
different and original
-
sum and difference
-
sum and original
-
two originals
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
which is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?
Respuesta
-
frequency
-
amplitude
-
phase
-
rate
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
in an FM signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's
Respuesta
-
frequency
-
amplitude
-
phase
-
rate
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
in an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the
Respuesta
-
reactance modulator
-
power amplifier circuit
-
frequency multiplier circuit
-
frequency discriminator
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
in an FM transmitter, which circuit detects the output frequency changes and produce an automatic frequency control correction voltage?
Respuesta
-
filter
-
converter
-
modulator
-
discriminator
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
the low pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a FM transmitter prevents
Respuesta
-
the lower sideband from being transmitted
-
correction voltage changes caused by the modulation signals
-
carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator
-
the audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the reactance modulator
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
which is not an advantage of single sideband over double sideband
Respuesta
-
power frequency
-
frequency stability
-
signal to noise ratio
-
spectrum conservation
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
in a single sideband transmitter, frequency stability is controlled by
Respuesta
-
the original carrier frequency
-
reinserted carrier frequencies
-
precision frequency standards
-
carefully controlled oscillators
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
in a single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator's output consists of
Respuesta
-
the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband
-
the upper and lower sidebands
-
the lower sideband only
-
upper sideband only
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
the single sideband transmitter circuit that increases the power output without introducing distortion is the
Respuesta
-
balanced amplifier
-
power synthesizer
-
balanced modulator
-
liner power amplifier
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
the ability of a radio receiver to select a particular station frequency from all other station frequencies that appear at the receiver antenna is called
Respuesta
-
sensitivity
-
reception
-
detection
-
selection
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is called
Respuesta
-
slug tuning
-
ganged parallel
-
parallel tuning
-
staggered tuning
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
in a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the heterodyning process produces four frequencies; they are the two basic input frequencies, there sum, and their difference frequency is known as the
Respuesta
-
sum frequency
-
original frequency
-
sideband frequency
-
intermediate frequency
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
the purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to
Respuesta
-
add amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal
-
remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal
-
remove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal
-
rectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
FM modulation signals provide much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals because
Respuesta
-
FM uses a lower frequency range
-
amplitude modulation of the carrier increases
-
of an increase in the number of sidebands
-
of a decrease in the number of sidebands
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
the two advantages of using a single-sideband receiver over an AM receiver are the ability to place
Respuesta
-
more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver band pass
-
more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver band pass
-
fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver bandpass
-
fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver bandpass
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
the basic difference between the single sideband receiver and a conventional superheterodyne receiver is that the single-sideband receiver uses a
Respuesta
-
carrier reinsertion oscillator and special mixer circuits
-
special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator
-
discriminator and local oscillator circuit
-
limiter and special mixer circuit
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
a major drawback in using a single sideband recierver over an amplitude modulated receiver is the
Respuesta
-
need for critical frequency stability
-
single-sideband receiver has a narrow bandpass
-
amplitude modulated receiver requires only one oscillator circuit
-
weak signals are easy to detect in the amplitude modulated receiver
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
a receiver radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by
Respuesta
-
accepting and amplifying the minute current
-
removing the radion frequency carrier wave
-
converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force
-
electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a non directional radio antenna using the same power input is known as antenna
Respuesta
-
gain
-
arrays
-
efficiency
-
reciprocity
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
the radio frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the
Respuesta
-
shielded pair
-
air coaxail line
-
parallel two wire
-
flexible coaxial line
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
when the impedance of a radio frequency transmission line and load do not match, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time are creating a
Respuesta
-
traveling wave
-
standing wave
-
reflected wave
-
resultant wave
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
what type of radio frequency transmission line losses result from the skin effect?
Respuesta
-
copper losses
-
dielectric losses
-
radiation losses
-
induction losses
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