31905238
Descripción
Test por Sofia Almeida, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Sofia Almeida
hace alrededor de 3 años
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Pregunta 1
Pregunta
What does PHARMACODYNAMICS mean?
Respuesta
-
what the drug does to the body
-
what the body does to the drug
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
What does PHARMACOKINETICS mean?
Respuesta
-
what the body does to the drug
-
what the drug does to the body
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
Where should an adverse reaction be reported to?
Respuesta
-
SARSS
-
AMTRA
-
VMD
-
practice manager
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
What does i.m stand for?
Respuesta
-
intramusclar
-
intravenous
-
intraperitoneal
-
subcutaneous
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
What does i.v stand for?
Respuesta
-
intravenous
-
intramuscular
-
intraperitoneal
-
subcutaneous
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
What does i.p stand for?
Respuesta
-
intraperitoneal
-
intramuscular
-
intravenous
-
subcutaneous
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
What does p.o/per os mean?
Respuesta
-
by mouth
-
by ear
-
on skin
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
What does a.c mean?
Respuesta
-
before meals
-
after meals
-
on an empty stomach
-
with food
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
What does b.i.d stand for?
Respuesta
-
twice daily
-
once daily
-
three times daily
-
every 2 hours
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
What does e.o.d stand for?
Respuesta
-
every other day
-
every day
-
four times daily
-
three times daily
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
What does o.m stand for?
Respuesta
-
other muscles
-
intramuscular
-
other oriffices
-
submuscular
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
What does o.m stand for?
Respuesta
-
every morning
-
every night
-
every hour
-
every day
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
What does o.n. stand for?
Respuesta
-
every night
-
every morning
-
every day
-
once daily
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
What does p.c. stand for?
Respuesta
-
after meals
-
before meals
-
with food
-
no food
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
What does q. stand for?
Respuesta
-
every
-
every 4 hours
-
single dose
-
double dose
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
What does q.i.d. / q.d.s. stand for?
Respuesta
-
four times daily
-
two times daily
-
once daily
-
quarter daily
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
What does t.i.d. / t.d.s. stand for?
Respuesta
-
three times daily
-
four times daily
-
two times daily
-
once daily
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
What does p.r.n. stand for?
Respuesta
-
as needed
-
every other day
-
every day
-
without
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
What does stat stand for?
Respuesta
-
immediately
-
without
-
as needed
-
once daily
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
What does h. stand for?
Respuesta
-
hour
-
as needed
-
every day
-
without
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
What does s.i.d. / o.d. stand for?
Respuesta
-
once daily
-
twice daily
-
every hour
-
as needed
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
What does q.s. stand for?
Respuesta
-
as much as suffices
-
as needed
-
every day
-
without
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
What does ad. lib. stand for?
Respuesta
-
as desired
-
as needed
-
every other day
-
without
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
What does amp. stand for?
Respuesta
-
ampoule
-
capsule
-
tablet
-
suspension
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
What is the proprietary name of a drug?
Respuesta
-
the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered
-
the name of the active ingredient in the medication
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
What is the generic name of a drug?
Respuesta
-
the name of the active ingredient in the medication
-
the name chosen by the manufacturing company once the drug has been registered
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Ketaset, keraject, ketavet and vetalar are all ____ names of the drug.
Respuesta
-
proprietary
-
generic
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
Which schedule does cannabis and LSD come under?
Respuesta
-
schedule 3
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 4
-
schedule 5
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
Which schedule of drug requires a Home Office License?
Respuesta
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 2
-
schedule 3
-
schedule 4
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Which of the following schedule of drug has no use within veterinary medicine?
Respuesta
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 2
-
schedule 5
-
schedule 3
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
Morphine, methadone, pethidine, fentanyl and ketamine are all in which schedule?
Respuesta
-
schedule 2
-
schedule 3
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 5
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
Bartiurates, bupremorphine and midazolam are all in which schedule?
Respuesta
-
schedule 3
-
schedule 2
-
schedule 5
-
schedule 1
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
Which schedule of drugs are subject to strict storage, precription, dispensing, destruction and record keeping requirements?
Respuesta
-
schedule 2
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 5
-
schedule 3
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
Tramadol is in which drug schedule?
Respuesta
-
schedule 3
-
schedule 2
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 5
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
Diazepam and anabolic steroids come under which drug schedule?
Respuesta
-
schedule 4
-
schedule 2
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 5
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
Pardale, Codeine/Paracetamol are all in which drug schedule?
Respuesta
-
schedule 5
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 2
-
schedule 4
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
Schedule 3 drugs are all required to follow CD prescription writing requirements. True or False?
Respuesta
-
True
-
False
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
How long must invoices for schedule 5 drugs be kept for a minimum of?
Respuesta
-
2 years
-
5 years
-
6 months
-
they don't have to be kept
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
The five drug schedules all come under which legislation?
Respuesta
-
the misuse of drugs regulations 2001
-
controlled drugs regulations 2020
-
the medicines act 1968
-
the health and safety at work act 1974
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
How often should CDR's be recorded?
Respuesta
-
weekly
-
monthly
-
every 6 months
-
every fortnight
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
The responsibility of recording CDR ultimately lies with who?
Respuesta
-
the veterinary surgeon
-
the veterinary nurse
-
any suitably qualified person
-
SQP
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs is a schedule 3 drug?
Respuesta
-
bupremorphine
-
ketamine
-
codeine
-
cannabis
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
Which schedule 3 drug should be stored in a CD cabinet?
Respuesta
-
bupremorphine
-
morphine
-
fentanyl
-
ketamine
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
Which schedule 3 drug can be prescribed to a patient for a genuine clinical reason under the cascade?
Respuesta
-
bupremorphine
-
fentanyl
-
codeine
-
ketamine
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
Respuesta
-
bupremorphine
-
fentanyl
-
morphine
-
codeine
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
Respuesta
-
diethylpropion
-
methamphetamine
-
ketamine
-
fentanyl
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
Respuesta
-
flunitrazepam
-
fentanyl
-
ketamine
-
methadone
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
Which of the following schedule 3 drugs should be kept in a suitable cabinet to prevent unauthorised access?
Respuesta
-
temazepam
-
ketamine
-
fentanyl
-
methadone
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
Drugs from which schedule are advised to be kepy in a CD cabinet?
Respuesta
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 5
-
schedule 3
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
CD containers/cabinets should indicate that there are CD's kept inside. True or False?
Respuesta
-
True
-
False
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
What is the british standard coding for medicine cabinets?
Respuesta
-
BS 2881 : 1989
-
BS 2441 : 1988
-
BS 1986 : 2234
-
BS 2222 : 1111
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
How many levels of security should CD medicine cabinets have by the british standard coding?
Respuesta
-
three layers
-
two layers
-
one layer
-
five layers
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
The CD cabinet should be...
Respuesta
-
bolted to the wall or floor
-
kept in a locked room
-
kept away from the public
-
kept inside of a safe
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
The CD cabinet should be
Respuesta
-
double-locked with seperate keys
-
kept under a safe combination
-
kept inside a locked room
-
kept away from the public
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
Where can a veterinary professional find further guidance on safe storage of CD's?
Respuesta
-
CDLOs (controlled drugs liason officer)
-
police
-
senior veterinary surgeons
-
misuse of drugs regulator
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
If on a call out visit how should CD's be transported safely?
Respuesta
-
a locked glove compartment, bag, box or case which must be kept locked when not in use
-
a locked car at all times when not being used
-
they cannot be transported outside of the veterinary practice
-
a portable steel safe with a code to access it
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
How should one dispose of out-of-date and returned drugs?
Respuesta
-
cat litter
-
denaturing kits
-
soapy water
-
down the drain
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
How should one dispose of residual or waste drugs?
Respuesta
-
cat litter
-
soapy water
-
denaturing kits
-
poured down the drain
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
'There is no legal requirement to have the disposal of waste witnessed'. Leftover medicine (including CDs) is considered waste. True or False?
Respuesta
-
True
-
False
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
According to the RCVS pratice standards scheme, what must be written on an in use injectable medicine?
Respuesta
-
opening date or use by date
-
date of broachment and initials
-
opening date and initials
-
date of broachment
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
Which colour bin should non-hazardous medicinal waste be placed in?
Respuesta
-
blue
-
ornage
-
purple
-
yellow
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Which one of the following processes occurs during phase II of the metabolic process to eliminate drugs from the body?
Respuesta
-
conjugation
-
hydrolysis
-
oxidation
-
redistribution
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
In which part of the nephron does glucose reabsorption occur?
Respuesta
-
collecting duct
-
distal convoulted tubule
-
proximal convoluted tubule
-
loop of henle
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
In which part of the nephron does aldosterone act to increase Na+ reabsorption?
Respuesta
-
distal convoluted tubule
-
proximal convoluted tubule
-
collecting duct
-
loop of henle
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
What is the correct order of the pharmacokinetic process?
Respuesta
-
absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
-
absorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion
-
metabolism, absorption, distribution, excretion
-
metabolism, distribution, absorption, exretion
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
In order to acquire a marketing authorisation, a new medicinal product should have been tested for which of the following?
Respuesta
-
safety, efficacy, quality
-
quality, efficiency, safety
-
safety, cost, efficacy
-
efficacy, quality, reliability
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
Which term refers to the movement of drugs within the body?
Respuesta
-
pharmacokinetics
-
pharmacodynamics
-
pharmacology
-
pharmacy
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
In terms of drug interaction what is the term antagonism defined as?
Respuesta
-
one drug inhibits the effects of another drug
-
one ineffective drug enhances the effect of another drug
-
response is equal to the combined responses of individual drugs
-
response is greater than the combined responses of individual drugs
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
What does a 2% solution correspond to?
Respuesta
-
2g per 100ml
-
2g per 1000ml
-
2mg per 100ml
-
2mg per 1000ml
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
A 6kg dog required an injection. The dosage is 5mg/kg of a 2.5% suspension. What volume in mls should be injected?
Respuesta
-
0.8
-
1.2
-
1.5
-
2.4
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
What does the abbreviation o.n. mean when written on a prescription?
Respuesta
-
by mouth
-
as required
-
every night
-
once a day
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
Which of the following is the correct term for a medicinal product that supresses nausea and vomiting?
Respuesta
-
antiemetic
-
anticholinergic
-
sympathomimetic
-
antineoplastic
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
Which of the following controlled drugs fall under schedule 3 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations?
Respuesta
-
morphine
-
bupremorphine
-
methadone
-
pethidine
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
Which of the following people would NOT be deemed suitable for witnessing the disposal of a controlled drug?
Respuesta
-
a VMD inspector
-
a veterinary surgeon from a different branch of the same company
-
a police drug liaison officer
-
a veterinary surgeon from a different practice/company
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
How long should a register of controlled drugs be kept for?
Respuesta
-
minimum of 2 years
-
minimum of 5 years
-
minimum of 3 years
-
minimum of 4 years
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
Of these commonly used parenteral administration routes, which results in the lowest bioavailability?
Respuesta
-
subcutaneous
-
intramuscular
-
intravenous
-
intraperitoneal
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
Which organ is responsible for the first-pass effect?
Respuesta
-
liver
-
kidney
-
brain
-
small intestine
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an example of a NSAID?
Respuesta
-
prednisolone
-
carprofen
-
grapiprant
-
fibrocoxib
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
A bacteriostatic antimicrobial has what effect on bacteria?
Respuesta
-
inhibits reproduction
-
kills them
-
inhibits development
-
alters their cell membrane to prevent nutrient absorption
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
For how long before the administration of pimobendan should food be withheld from the patient?
Respuesta
-
1 hour
-
2 hours
-
3 hours
-
8 hours
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
Which non-steriodial anti-inflammatory drug should be avoided in cats, as they are unable to metabolise it effectively?
Respuesta
-
paracetamol
-
meloxicam
-
carprofen
-
ketoprofen
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
Who holds the register of approved Veterinary Practice Premises?
Respuesta
-
animal medicines training regulatory authority
-
royal college of veterinary surgeons
-
veterinary medicines directorate
-
department for environment, food and rural affairs
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
Which of the following shows all of the categories from which a SQP can prescribe and supply?
Respuesta
-
POM-VPS, NFA-VPS
-
POM-V, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL
-
NFA-VPS, AVM-GSL, POM-V
-
AVM-GSL, POM-VPS, NFA-VPS
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
For the administration of prednisolone by the owner at home, which of the following would NOT be a warning discussed with them?
Respuesta
-
keep away from cats due to toxicity risk
-
wear gloves during administration and wash hands after use
-
stop if the patient develops a corneal ulcer
-
do not stop the course suddenly, or without consulting the vet
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
How can the Safe Custody Regulations be met when storing controlled drugs in a practice car?
Respuesta
-
keep them in a locked glove
-
a locked container fixed within the boot of the car
-
a locked bag or box that is removed and constantyly attended when the vehicle is left unattended
-
all answers are correct
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
Unless specified differently on the data sheet, for how long can a medicine be used from a multi-dose vial once broached?
Respuesta
-
7 days
-
28 days
-
14 days
-
5 days
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
Which of the following patient factors are likely to reduce the onset and duration of action of a medication administered subcutaneously?
Respuesta
-
dehydration
-
shock
-
a poor regional blood supply
-
all of the above
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
What type of medicine should be dispensed into a fluted bottle?
Respuesta
-
medicines for external application
-
medicines for oral application
-
all liquid medicines
-
powders and granules
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
When did the VMD establish a joint bill with the department of health and social care?
Respuesta
-
2020
-
2013
-
2018
-
2015
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
In which part of the medicines and medical devices bill is veterinary medicine covered?
Respuesta
-
PART 1
-
PART 2
-
PART 4
-
PART 3
Pregunta 91
Pregunta
Powers in the medicines and medical devices bill do not allow creation of entirely new regulatory regimes. True or False?
Respuesta
-
true
-
false
Pregunta 92
Pregunta
What does TP stand for in regards to legislation (UK GOV)?
Respuesta
-
treatment plan
-
transition period
-
turning point
-
testing period
Pregunta 93
Pregunta
Which clause delegates the power to a specific body to make regulations about veterinary medicines?
Respuesta
-
clause 10
-
clause 8
-
clause 9
-
clause 7
Pregunta 94
Pregunta
Which clauses hold specific matters that may be amended and supply VMR appropriately?
Respuesta
-
clauses 8 and 9
-
clauses 9 and 10
-
clauses 7 and 8
-
clauses 8 and 10
Pregunta 95
Pregunta
What are the three top priorities when making regulations?
Respuesta
-
safety of veterinary medicines in relation to animals, humans and the environment, availablity of veterinary medicines, attractiveness of UK as a place in which to develop or supply veterinary medicines
-
safety and distribution of veterinary medicines, safety of the environment in relation to veterinary medicines, safety of animals and humans in the development of veterinary medicines
Pregunta 96
Pregunta
Who is the appropriate authority as set out in clause 8 of the MMD bill?
Respuesta
-
Secretary of State and/or Northern Ireland Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DAERA)
-
Veterinary Medicines Directorate (VMD)
-
Animal Medicines Training and Regulatory Authority Medical (AMTRA)
-
Department of Agriculture, Environment and Rural Affairs (DEFRA)
Pregunta 97
Pregunta
Clause 9 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
Respuesta
-
manufacture, marketing, supply and field trials
-
manufacture and supply
-
manufacture, testing and supplies
-
marketing and supply
Pregunta 98
Pregunta
Clause 10 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
Respuesta
-
fees, offences, powers of inspectors, costs
-
marketing and distrubution
-
fees, offences and testing
-
costing and distribution
Pregunta 99
Pregunta
Clause 11 of the MMD bill makes provisions on...
Respuesta
-
interpretation and definitions of part 2 of the bill
-
bills, costs and supply
-
marketing and distribution
-
fees, offences and payable fees
Pregunta 100
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true?
Respuesta
-
any proposed changes to the VMR will be subject to formal, public consulation
-
interested stakeholders have opportunity to provide feedback
-
feedback considered before revised VMR go to parliament
-
any propsed changes to the VMR do not require public feedback and will only be assessed by the appropriate people/organisations
Pregunta 101
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a responsiblity of the VMD?
Respuesta
-
monitoring adverse reactions
-
authorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines
-
making and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines
-
responsible for representing the UK's royal veterinary surgeons community
Pregunta 102
Pregunta
A veterinary practice must first apply to the RCVS and then the VMD to register their practice.
Respuesta
-
true
-
false
Pregunta 103
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
Respuesta
-
registering and storing CD's securely in line with the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001
-
a record of all POM-V and POM-VPS drugs bought, sold and administered within the practice
-
how medicines are stored in relation to conditions and temperature and daily minimum and maximum temperature recordings
-
a written record of every endo/ecto parasitic treatment and when it has been dispensed and to whom
Pregunta 104
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
Respuesta
-
all prescriptions are completed with the correct information
-
the practice has a kit and PPE to deal with medicine spillages
-
that any medicine dispensed in a container, other than the original, needs to be correctly labelled and that the client is provided with safety guidelines
-
that all medicine is labelled with the date that it was recieved into practice
Pregunta 105
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an aspect that is inspected within a veterinary practice premises?
Respuesta
-
if a small practice treats chickens, a record of the withdrawal period required before the eggs are safe to eat
-
that open medicines are used within the recommended time frame
-
that cytotoxic, cytostatic and certain hormonal medicines are stored, handled and disposed of correctly
-
the record of every cytotoxic waste in and out of the building
Pregunta 106
Pregunta
Which of the following is concerned with controlling the prescription and dispension procedures in veterinary practices in the UK?
Respuesta
-
the VMD
-
the veterinary medicines regulations 2013
-
the misuse of drugs act 2001
-
AMTRA
Pregunta 107
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
Respuesta
-
Monitoring adverse reactions
-
classification of veterinary medicines
-
supply of veterinary medicines - whether they can be supplied by a veterinary surgeon or a suitably qualified person
-
requirements for the suitably qualified person
Pregunta 108
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
Respuesta
-
Authorising the manufacture, sale and distribution of veterinary medicines
-
precription requirements
-
prescribing cascade
-
registraton of premises
Pregunta 109
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the veterinary medicine regulations 2013?
Respuesta
-
making and enforcing UK legislation regarding veterinary medicines
-
storage and disposal requirements
-
prescribing cascade
-
classification of veterinary medicines
Pregunta 110
Pregunta
Which of following is true as of 2003 following a report by the competitions commission?
Respuesta
-
veterinary surgeons are obliged to offer prescriptions to allow clients to buy medicines from another practice/pharmacy
-
veterinary surgeons do not have to offer prescriptions
-
if a veterinary surgeon supplies a prescription for a veterinary brand of a medication then the pharmacist or SQP dispensing can supply any brand name or generic name of that drug
-
veterinary surgeons have to supply a client with the cheapest possible option of a medication
Pregunta 111
Pregunta
If a veterinary surgeon wishes to put an animal on a particular medication, what is the first step...
Respuesta
-
if a medication for the condition exists then they must use the medication licensed for that animal or condition
-
they can use any medication outside of that animals species as long as it is for animal use only
-
they can use any licensed medication in the UK as they see fit (inc. for humans)
-
they can use any licensed medication in the EU as they see fit (inc. for humans)
Pregunta 112
Pregunta
In the circumstance that there is no authorised medication for a specific condition in a specific species what is the first step the veterinary surgeon can take in prescribing under the cascade?
Respuesta
-
a medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
-
a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
-
a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used
-
the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
Pregunta 113
Pregunta
In the circumstance that there is no licensed medication in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
Respuesta
-
a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
-
a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used.
-
the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
Pregunta 114
Pregunta
In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
Respuesta
-
a veterinary medicinal product authorised by another EU state can be used
-
the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
-
medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
Pregunta 115
Pregunta
In the circumstance that there is no medicinal product authorised by another EU state use what is the veterinary surgeons next step when prescribing under the cascade?
Respuesta
-
the veterinary surgeon or pharmacist can prepare a specific product for administration
-
a medicinal product licensed in the UK for human use may be administered
-
medication licensed in the UK for use in another animal species, or for another condition in the same species
Pregunta 116
Pregunta
When using a medication that is licensed elsewhere in the EU, an import license must be obtained from the secretary of state.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 117
Pregunta
The administration of medication prescribed under the cascade is carried out under the authorisation of the veterinary surgeon, but who is responsible overall for this?
Respuesta
-
the SQP
-
the person supplying
-
the veterinary surgeon
-
the veterinary nurse
Pregunta 118
Pregunta
Which category of drugs contain narcotic substances?
Respuesta
-
POM-V
-
POM-VPS
-
NFA-VPS
-
AVM-GSL
Pregunta 119
Pregunta
Which of the following can be supplied by any retailer?
Respuesta
-
POM-V
-
POM-VPS
-
AVM-GSL
-
NFA-VPS
Pregunta 120
Pregunta
How long is the WITHDRAWAL PERIOD?
Respuesta
-
28 days
-
2 weeks
-
1 month
-
6 months
Pregunta 121
Pregunta
When treating equines as non-food animals the veterinary surgeon must obtain a declaration from the owner and this must be recorded in the equine passport.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 122
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
Respuesta
-
pethidine
-
bupremorphine
-
pentobarbitone
-
phenobarbitone
Pregunta 123
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
Respuesta
-
fentanyl
-
bupremorphine
-
phenobarbitone
-
pentobarbitone
Pregunta 124
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 2 drug?
Respuesta
-
morphine
-
bupremorphine
-
diazepam
-
midazolam
Pregunta 125
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Respuesta
-
phenobarbitone
-
diazepam
-
anabolic steroids
-
fentanyl
Pregunta 126
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Respuesta
-
pentobarbitone
-
diazepam
-
pethidine
-
midazolam
Pregunta 127
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
Respuesta
-
diazepam
-
bupremorphine
-
morphine
-
ketamine
Pregunta 128
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
Respuesta
-
midazolam
-
bupremorphine
-
pethidine
-
phenobarbitone
Pregunta 129
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 4 drug?
Respuesta
-
anabolic steroids
-
morphine
-
ketamine
-
pentobarbitone
Pregunta 130
Pregunta
How long are prescriptions for drugs in schedules 2 and 3 valid for?
Respuesta
-
28 days
-
30 days
-
6 months
-
2 weeks
Pregunta 131
Pregunta
Are repeat prescriptions allowed for schedule 2 and 3 drugs?
Respuesta
-
yes
-
no
Pregunta 132
Pregunta
How long are prescriptions in schedule 4 valid for?
Respuesta
-
6 months
-
2 weeks
-
58 days
-
28 days
Pregunta 133
Pregunta
Are schedule 4 repeat prescriptions allowed?
Respuesta
-
yes
-
no
Pregunta 134
Pregunta
Which schedule includes preperations that contain a low concentration of a controlled drug such as codeine or morphine?
Respuesta
-
schedule 4
-
schedule 5
-
schedule 1
-
schedule 3
Pregunta 135
Pregunta
Who regulates controlled drugs are defined in the misuse of drugs regulations 2001?
Respuesta
-
home office
-
VMD
-
AMTRA
-
DEFRA
Pregunta 136
Pregunta
Which of the following schedule 2 drugs does not have to be locked in the CD's cabinet?
Respuesta
-
quinalbarbitone
-
ketamine
-
morphine
-
fentanyl
Pregunta 137
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Respuesta
-
diethylpropion
-
ketamine
-
diazepam
-
morphine
Pregunta 138
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Respuesta
-
flunitrazepam
-
diazepam
-
morphine
-
fentanyl
Pregunta 139
Pregunta
Which of the following is a schedule 3 drug?
Respuesta
-
temazepam
-
diazepam
-
ketamine
-
methadone
Pregunta 140
Pregunta
What is the correct temperature in which refridgerated drugs must be kept?
Respuesta
-
2-8 degrees celcius
-
2-10 degrees celcius
-
-2-4 degrees celcius
-
-2-6 degrees celcius
Pregunta 141
Pregunta
At which temperature should drugs be kept at room temperature?
Respuesta
-
15-25 degrees
-
18-15 degrees
-
5-10 degrees
-
10-17 degrees
Pregunta 142
Pregunta
At which humidity should the room be in order to keep tablets and capsules in correct conditions?
Respuesta
-
60%
-
70%
-
20%
-
50%
Pregunta 143
Pregunta
How many members of staff are needed to record and witness the withdrawal of a schedule 2 controlled drug?
Respuesta
-
one
-
three
-
two
-
four
Pregunta 144
Pregunta
How often should a check of all records and the current level of pharmaceutical preparations/stock take be performed?
Respuesta
-
yearly
-
every 2 years
-
every 2 weeks
-
every 6 months
Pregunta 145
Pregunta
The controlled drugs register must be out of sight of the general public.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 146
Pregunta
The species and identity of the animal must be included on a prescription.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 147
Pregunta
How long should a copy of a written prescription be kept in the practice?
Respuesta
-
5 years
-
2 years
-
3 years
-
28 days
Pregunta 148
Pregunta
A record of the batch number and expiry date of the product prescribed must be kept.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 149
Pregunta
Analgesic drugs are either opioid or non-opioid.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 150
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs is a partial opioid agonist?
Respuesta
-
Buprenorphine
-
Methadone
-
Morphine
-
Pethidine
Pregunta 151
Pregunta
Which of the following is a natural agent?
Respuesta
-
Morphine
-
Methadone
-
Ketamine
-
Fentanyl
Pregunta 152
Pregunta
What are the names of the three receptors/peripheral sites that opioids bind to?
Respuesta
-
Mu delta and kappa
-
OP1 OP2 OP3
-
MOP DOP KOP
-
all of the above
Pregunta 153
Pregunta
Morphine , Methadone, Codeine , Pethidine , Fentanyl , Buprenorphine and Butorphanol are all…
Respuesta
-
Non opioid analgesics
-
Opioid analgesics
Pregunta 154
Pregunta
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
Respuesta
-
Methadone
-
buprenorphine
-
Codeine
-
Diazepam
Pregunta 155
Pregunta
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
Respuesta
-
Morphine
-
Butorphanol
-
Diazepam
-
Buprenorphine
Pregunta 156
Pregunta
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
Respuesta
-
Pethidine
-
Buprenorphine
-
Diazepam
-
Cannabis
Pregunta 157
Pregunta
Which of the following is a full opioid agonist?
Respuesta
-
Fentanyl
-
Buprenorphine
-
Diazepam
-
Carprofen
Pregunta 158
Pregunta
Which of the following is a mixed agonist/antagonist?
Respuesta
-
Butorphanol
-
Codeine
-
Methadone
-
Buprenorphine
Pregunta 159
Pregunta
What is a mixed agonist/antagonist?
Respuesta
-
bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
-
bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
-
possess both properties
Pregunta 160
Pregunta
What is a Partial opioid agonists?
Respuesta
-
bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
-
bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
-
possess both properties
Pregunta 161
Pregunta
What is a Full opioid agonists?
Respuesta
-
bind to the receptor and produce maximal activation
-
bind to the receptor but do not produce full activation
-
Possesses both properties
Pregunta 162
Pregunta
Where are opioids metabolised?
Respuesta
-
Liver
-
Kidneys
-
Small intestine
-
Stomach
Pregunta 163
Pregunta
Where are opioids excreted from?
Respuesta
-
Kidneys
-
Liver
-
Bile
-
Kidneys or bile
Pregunta 164
Pregunta
Which of following antagonises the effects of opioids?
Respuesta
-
Naloxone
-
Antisedan
-
Codeine
-
Diazepam
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