Ch. 4 gene and diseases

Descripción

patho 1 Test sobre Ch. 4 gene and diseases, creado por Esmeralda Espitia el 03/02/2022.
Esmeralda Espitia
Test por Esmeralda Espitia, actualizado hace más de 1 año
Esmeralda Espitia
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Resumen del Recurso

Pregunta 1

Pregunta
1. In somatic cell gene therapy, what type of vector is most commonly used to alter a specific set of an individual’s somatic cells?
Respuesta
  • a. Virus
  • b. Bacteria
  • c. RNA polymerase
  • d. Recombinant DNA

Pregunta 2

Pregunta
2. In DNA replication, what does the enzyme DNA polymerase do?
Respuesta
  • a. Travel along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotide to the new strand
  • b. Move along the double strand of DNA to unwind the nucleotides of the double helix
  • c. Hold the double strand apart while the correct nucleotides are added to the strand
  • d. Transport the double strand of DNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein formation

Pregunta 3

Pregunta
3. How is transcription best defined?
Respuesta
  • a. DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on ribonucleic acid (RNA).
  • b. RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis.
  • c. RNA is synthesized from a DNA template.
  • d. A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence.

Pregunta 4

Pregunta
4. What is the purpose of using a Giemsa staining technique on chromosomes?
Respuesta
  • a. Permit the mitotic process to be followed and monitored for variations.
  • b. Allow for the numbering of chromosomes and the identification of variations.
  • c. Identify new somatic cells formed through mitosis and cytokinesis.
  • d. Distinguish the sex chromosomes from the homologous chromosomes.

Pregunta 5

Pregunta
5. An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?
Respuesta
  • a. Cytochrome P-450
  • b. Alpha fetoprotein
  • c. DNA polymerase
  • d. Embryonic proteins

Pregunta 6

Pregunta
6. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant with what history?
Respuesta
  • a. Have a history of chronic illness
  • b. Have a family history of genetic disorders
  • c. Have experienced in vitro fertilization
  • d. Had a late menarche

Pregunta 7

Pregunta
7. What is the technique for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 10 to 12 weeks’ gestation?
Respuesta
  • a. Gene mapping
  • b. Linkage analysis
  • c. Amniocentesis
  • d. Chorionic villus sampling

Pregunta 8

Pregunta
8. What is the term for an error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or mitosis?
Respuesta
  • a. Aneuploidy
  • b. Nondisjunction
  • c. Polyploidy
  • d. Translocation

Pregunta 9

Pregunta
9. A healthcare professional is assessing a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome. What findings does the professional relate to this condition?
Respuesta
  • a. Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair
  • b. An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
  • c. High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
  • d. Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness

Pregunta 10

Pregunta
10. What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
Respuesta
  • a. Paternal nondisjunction
  • b. Maternal translocations
  • c. Maternal nondisjunction
  • d. Paternal translocation

Pregunta 11

Pregunta
11. What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?
Respuesta
  • a. Down
  • b. Cri du chat
  • c. Turner
  • d. Klinefelter

Pregunta 12

Pregunta
12. A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?
Respuesta
  • a. Turner
  • b. Klinefelter
  • c. Down
  • d. Fragile X

Pregunta 13

Pregunta
13. What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of intellectual disability?
Respuesta
  • a. Down syndrome
  • b. Fragile X syndrome
  • c. Klinefelter syndrome
  • d. Turner syndrome

Pregunta 14

Pregunta
14. What is the blood type of a person who is heterozygous, having A and B alleles as codominant?
Respuesta
  • a. A
  • b. B
  • c. O
  • d. AB

Pregunta 15

Pregunta
15. A couple has two children diagnosed with an autosomal dominant genetic disease and asks the healthcare professional what the probability is that their next child will have the same genetic disease. What response by the professional is best?
Respuesta
  • a. One sixth
  • b. One fourth
  • c. One third
  • d. One half

Pregunta 16

Pregunta
16. When a child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from whom?
Respuesta
  • a. Father
  • b. Mother
  • c. Both parents
  • d. Grandparent

Pregunta 17

Pregunta
17. People diagnosed with neurofibromatosis have varying degrees of the condition because of which genetic principle?
Respuesta
  • a. Penetrance
  • b. Expressivity
  • c. Dominance
  • d. Recessiveness

Pregunta 18

Pregunta
18. Which genetic disease has been linked to a mutation of the tumor-suppressor gene?
Respuesta
  • a. Hemochromatosis
  • b. Retinoblastoma
  • c. Familial breast cancer
  • d. Hemophilia A

Pregunta 19

Pregunta
19. Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of gene?
Respuesta
  • a. X-linked dominant
  • b. X-linked recessive
  • c. Autosomal dominant
  • d. Autosomal recessive

Pregunta 20

Pregunta
20. Which is an important criterion for discerning autosomal recessive inheritance?
Respuesta
  • a. Consanguinity is sometimes present.
  • b. Females are affected more than males.
  • c. The disease is observed in both the parents, as well as in the siblings.
  • d. On average, one half of the offspring of the carrier will be affected.

Pregunta 21

Pregunta
21. Consanguinity refers to the mating of people in what situation?
Respuesta
  • a. Who are unrelated
  • b. When one has an autosomal dominant disorder
  • c. Having common family relations
  • d. When one has a chromosomal abnormality

Pregunta 22

Pregunta
22. Males, having only one X chromosome, are said to be what?
Respuesta
  • a. Homozygous
  • b. Heterozygous
  • c. Hemizygous
  • d. Ambizygous

Pregunta 23

Pregunta
23. Males are more often affected by which type of genetic disease?
Respuesta
  • a. Sex-linked dominant
  • b. Sex-influenced
  • c. Sex-linked
  • d. Sex-linked recessive

Pregunta 24

Pregunta
24. Why an X-linked recessive disease can skip generations?
Respuesta
  • a. Females are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
  • b. The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
  • c. Mothers cannot pass X-linked genes to their sons.
  • d. These diseases need only one copy of the gene in females.

Pregunta 25

Pregunta
25. The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder?
Respuesta
  • a. Cri du chat
  • b. Down syndrome
  • c. Klinefelter syndrome
  • d. Turner syndrome

Pregunta 26

Pregunta
26. A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry?
Respuesta
  • a. Down syndrome
  • b. Klinefelter syndrome
  • c. Turner syndrome
  • d. Cri du chat

Pregunta 27

Pregunta
27. Which statement is true regarding X-linked recessive conditions?
Respuesta
  • a. Such diseases use males as phenotypical carriers.
  • b. These conditions are passed from affected father to all of his female children.
  • c. 25% of an affected individual’s grandsons will be affected.
  • d. Cystic fibrosis is an example of such a condition.

Pregunta 28

Pregunta
28. DNA formation occurs in which of the cell’s structures?
Respuesta
  • a. Nucleus
  • b. Cytoplasm
  • c. Organelle
  • d. Membrane

Pregunta 29

Pregunta
29. What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases?
Respuesta
  • a. 10%
  • b. 30%
  • c. 50%
  • d. 70%

Pregunta 30

Pregunta
30. What is an individual’s genetic makeup called?
Respuesta
  • a. Phenotype
  • b. Genotype
  • c. Heterozygous locus
  • d. Homozygous locus

Pregunta 31

Pregunta
1. Which disorders have similar modes of inheritance? (Select all that apply.)
Respuesta
  • a. Cri du chat syndrome
  • b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  • c. Polycystic kidney disease
  • d. Down syndrome
  • e. Becker muscular dystrophy

Pregunta 32

Pregunta
2. The key to accurate DNA replication depends on which complementary base pairs? (Select all that apply.)
Respuesta
  • a. Adenine with thymine
  • b. Adenine with guanine
  • c. Guanine with cytosine
  • d. Cytosine with thymine
  • e. Guanine with thymine

Pregunta 33

Pregunta
3. Chromosomal abnormalities are the leading known cause of what? (Select all that apply.)
Respuesta
  • a. Mental illness
  • b. Intellectual disability
  • c. Fetal miscarriage
  • d. Cardiovascular disease
  • e. Respiratory disorders

Pregunta 34

Pregunta
4. What are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? (Select all that apply.)
Respuesta
  • a. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
  • b. Amniocentesis
  • c. Carrier screening
  • d. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD)
  • e. Drug-sensitivity testing

Pregunta 35

Pregunta
5. What advantage is derived from human genome sequencing on genetic disorders? (Select all that apply.)
Respuesta
  • a. Identification of the mutated gene
  • b. Reversal of the mutation
  • c. Diagnosis of the existing disorder
  • d. Appropriate treatment
  • e. Prevention of the disorder
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