5403349
Descripción
Test por Brennan Brow, actualizado hace más de 1 año
|
Creado por Brennan Brow
hace más de 8 años
|
|
Pregunta 1
Pregunta
Electrical circuit insulation:
Respuesta
-
Will never break down or deteriorate
-
Requires replacement after 10 years
-
Will deteriorate due to high temperatures
-
Will not burn
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains dust in the air, under normal operation conditions, in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, the electrical equipment must be designed safe for use in an area classification of:
Respuesta
-
Class I, Division I
-
Class I, Division II
-
Class II, Division I
-
Class II, Division II
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
A common cause of an electrical fire is:
Respuesta
-
Allowing motors or conductors to stay dry, unless designed for wet locations
-
Prematurely replacing deteriorated wiring
-
Following too closely to the Electrical Code when installing electrical equipment
-
Replacing burned fuses with ones of a higher rating
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Which one of the following maintenance procedures is not a concern with preventing fires in electrical equipment?
Respuesta
-
Allowing the accumulation of dust on a motor since this buildup will prevent heat from escaping, thus keeping the motor warm in cold ambient conditions
-
Keeping electrical equipment dry unless designed for wet locations
-
Using the equipment designed for the application
-
Checking any aluminum connections frequently for tightness and presence of corrosion
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
Electrical connections:
Respuesta
-
need only make contact, they need not be tight
-
will create large amounts of heat if not tight
-
can cause an arc if too tight
-
may operate on overload for specified duration
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
When an electrical fire is discovered:
Respuesta
-
the equipment may be left running if the fire is put out with a C type fire extinguisher
-
the equipment should be de-energized as quickly as possible
-
the equipment should be left running until a backup power supply is available
-
the equipment may be immediately restarted once the fire is extinguished
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live electrical fire is a:
Respuesta
-
pressurized water extinguisher
-
dry chemical extinguisher
-
purple K extinguisher
-
carbon dioxide extinguisher
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the extinguisher horn can be as low as:
Respuesta
-
0 degrees C
-
-30 degrees C
-
-60 degrees C
-
-80 degrees C
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
During annual turnaround of a facility it is highly recommended that:
Respuesta
-
all fuses in the electrical system be replaced
-
aluminium wiring be replaced
-
all electrical panels be checked for tightness and corrosion
-
all circuit breakers be disassembled and cleaned
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
According to the Canadian Electrical Code, hazardous locations, for electrical equipment, are divided into three classes, depending on:
Respuesta
-
the type of hazardous material involved.
-
the capacity of electrical equipment involved.
-
the type of fire extinguishers available
-
pressure
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
Dry chemical can form a conducting path to ground if:
Respuesta
-
the air is dry.
-
any moisture is present.
-
it is directed at the base of the flame.
-
it is non-conductive.
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
Switches and circuit breakers which are to be installed in an atmosphere where flammable vapours may continually exist shall be:
Respuesta
-
installed in a sealed compartment.
-
be explosion proof.
-
electrically insulated.
-
of an ABSA approved design.
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
A fire may be caused by an electrical arc, which may originate due to:
Respuesta
-
Closing an electrical breaker.
-
Shutting down a motor too quickly.
-
Low voltage at a generator.
-
A loose electrical connection.
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, capable of producing combustible flyings, are handled or manufactured is designated as:
Respuesta
-
Class 1, Division 1
-
Class 1, Division 2
-
Class 2, Division 2
-
Class 3, Division 1
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under normal operating conditions, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as:
Respuesta
-
Class 1, Division 1
-
Class 1, Division 2
-
Class 2, Division 2
-
Class 3, Division 1
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust in concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as:
Respuesta
-
Class 1, Division 1
-
Class 2, Division 1
-
Class 1, Division 2
-
Class 3, Division 1
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours but are normally confined in containers, electrical equipment must be designed for use in the area, which is designated as:
Respuesta
-
Class 1, Division 1
-
Class 1, Division 2
-
Class 2, Division 2
-
Class 3, Division 2
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which the atmosphere contains dust not normally in suspension in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, is designated as:
Respuesta
-
Class 2, Division 2
-
Class 2, Division 1
-
Class 1, Division 2
-
Class 3, Division 1
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
According to the Canadian Electrical Code, an area in which easily ignited material fibers, are stored or handled, but are not processed is designated as:
Respuesta
-
Class 3, Division 1
-
Class 3, Division 2
-
Class 1, Division 2
-
Class 2, Division 2
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
Heat produced by a current is calculated by:
Respuesta
-
I*R
-
R^2*I
-
I^2*R
-
I^2*R^2
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
When the power has been cut off from an electrical fire, it becomes what class?
Respuesta
-
Class A
-
Class B
-
Class C
-
Class A, B or a combination of both
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
Hand held models of carbon dioxide extinguishers range from __ to __ kg
Respuesta
-
2.2 to 9
-
2.1 to 9
-
2.2 to 10
-
2.1 to 10
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
When did Alberta enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Respuesta
-
1898
-
1951
-
1942
-
1899
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
When did Saskatchewan enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Respuesta
-
1898
-
1952
-
1941
-
1899
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
When did Northwest Territories enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Respuesta
-
1898
-
1951
-
1942
-
1899
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
When did Nova Scotia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Respuesta
-
1898
-
1951
-
1942
-
1899
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
When did British Columbia enacted the boiler and pressure vessel safety act?
Respuesta
-
1898
-
1951
-
1942
-
1899
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
The equivalent of 103 kPa in psi is ____.
Respuesta
-
15
-
30
-
60
-
22
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is generated at a pressure greater than ____.
Respuesta
-
103 kpa
-
30 psi
-
1034 kpa
-
121 psi
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
A "power plant" may mean one or more boilers containing liquid at a working pressure greater than ____ and/or a temperature exceeding ____.
Respuesta
-
1100 kPa, 121 degrees C
-
103 kPa, 121 degrees C
-
1034 kPa, 130 degrees C
-
103 kPa, 230 degrees C
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.
Respuesta
-
1000 kW
-
100 kW
-
5000 kW
-
10,000 kW
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as chief steam engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields.
Respuesta
-
1000 kW
-
5000 kW
-
10,000 kW
-
500 kW
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.
Respuesta
-
1000 kW
-
5000 kW
-
10,000 kW
-
100 kW
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as shift engineer in a power plant consisting of one or more coil-type drumless boilers, of aggregate capacity not more than ______, when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal flooding of oil fields.
Respuesta
-
1000 kW
-
10,000 kW
-
5000 kW
-
200 kW
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
A Fourth Class power engineer may act as assistant engineer, under supervision of the shift engineer, in a power plant of capacity not more than ______.
Respuesta
-
1000 kW
-
10,000 kW
-
5000 kW
-
500 kW
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
A Fourth Class power engineer may take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than ________ and operating at a pressure not more than _______.
Respuesta
-
5000 kW, 140 kPa
-
1000 kW, 103 kPa
-
10,000 kW, 30 psi
-
500 kW, 15 psi
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
Which code regulates mechanical refrigeration?
Respuesta
-
CSA B52
-
CSA B51
-
ASME Section II
-
ASME Section VI
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
Which CSA code is entitled Boiler, Pressure Vessel and Pressure Piping Code?
Respuesta
-
CSA B52
-
CSA B51
-
ASME Section III
-
ASME Section VI
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to power boilers?
Respuesta
-
Section I
-
Section IV
-
Section VI
-
Section II
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to materials?
Respuesta
-
Section II
-
Section I
-
Section III
-
Section V
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to construction of nuclear power components?
Respuesta
-
Section VI
-
Section III
-
Section IV
-
Section I
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to construction of heating boilers?
Respuesta
-
Section V
-
Section VII
-
Section IV
-
Section I
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to nondestructive examination?
Respuesta
-
Section V
-
Section III
-
Section II
-
Section VI
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to care and operation of heating boilers?
Respuesta
-
Section VII
-
Section II
-
Section IV
-
Section VI
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to care of power boilers?
Respuesta
-
Section VII
-
Section XI
-
Section VIII
-
Section V
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to construction of pressure vessels?
Respuesta
-
Section V
-
Section III
-
Section VIII
-
Section I
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
Which ASME code section relates to welding and brazing qualifications?
Respuesta
-
Section IX
-
Section X
-
Section II
-
Section VI
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
This committee was formed in 1911.
Respuesta
-
Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee
-
ASME
-
ABSA
-
CRN
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
This organization was responsible for forming the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Committee.
Respuesta
-
ASME
-
ABSA
-
CSA
-
CRN
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
This body was formed in 1919.
Respuesta
-
The National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors.
-
ASME
-
CRN
-
ISO
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
The first province to pass laws relating to boilers and pressure vessels was _________.
Respuesta
-
Quebec
-
Alberta
-
Ontario
-
Newfoundland
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
What are the different grades of Pressure Welder's Certificates of Competency?
Respuesta
-
A, B and C
-
1, 2 and 3
-
L, A, J
-
None of the above
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
This critical temperature is the cutoff for a class A compressed gas under WHMIS.
Respuesta
-
50 Deg C
-
100 Deg C
-
0 Deg C
-
-40 Deg C
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
Class A substances in WHMIS are ______________.
Respuesta
-
compressed gas
-
flammable gas
-
flammable liquid
-
combustible liquid
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
Class B substances in WHMIS are ______________.
Respuesta
-
flammable
-
toxic
-
oxidizing
-
all of the above
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
In WHMIS, this is a Class C substance
Respuesta
-
oxidizing
-
flammable
-
toxic
-
compressed gas
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
In WHMIS, this is a Class D substance is
Respuesta
-
Oxidizing
-
Toxic
-
flammable
-
compressed gas
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
A liquid is flammable under WHMIS if its flash point is
Respuesta
-
<37.8 Deg C
-
>37.8 Deg C
-
between 37.8 & 93.3 Deg C
-
None of the above
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
A liquid is combustible under WHMIS if its flash point is
Respuesta
-
<37.8 Deg C
-
> 37.8 Deg C
-
between 37.8 and 93.3 Deg C
-
None of the above
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
In WHMIS, a Class E substance is ________.
Respuesta
-
corrosive
-
toxic
-
flammable
-
oxidizing
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
In WHMIS, a Class F substance is _______.
Respuesta
-
hazardously reactive
-
oxidizing
-
flammable
-
compressed gas
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
What is the purpose of HMIRA?
Respuesta
-
to protect the secrecy of a manufacturer's formula
-
safety for workers and employers
-
to set legal precedent on hazardous materials
-
all of the above
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
How long does an exemption under HMIRA last?
Respuesta
-
3 years
-
2 years
-
1 year
-
10 years
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
The "fire tetrahedron" includes the four requirements for the _________ mode of combustion.
Respuesta
-
flaming
-
combustion
-
flameless
-
spontaneous
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
The "fire triangle" includes the three requirements for the _________ mode of combustion.
Respuesta
-
flameless
-
flaming
-
oxidizing
-
spontaneous
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
For hydrocarbon gases, flaming combustion will cease if oxygen concentration is lowered to less than _______.
Respuesta
-
10%
-
5%
-
20%
-
15%
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
Wood may continue to burn in the flameless (glowing) mode, even if oxygen levels drop as low as ___________.
Respuesta
-
5%
-
15%
-
25%
-
10%
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
The oxygen concentration in air is ________.
Respuesta
-
21%
-
20%
-
10%
-
100%
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
At an oxygen concentration of 17%, a person will experience ____________.
Respuesta
-
impaired motor coordination
-
death
-
possible unconsiousness
-
difficulty breathing
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
At oxygen concentrations of 10-14%, a person will experience _____________ and ___________________.
Respuesta
-
impaired judgement, fatigue
-
impaired motor coordination, difficulty breathing
-
loss of consciousness, death
-
all of the above
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
At oxygen concentration less than 10%, and individual will __________________.
Respuesta
-
lose consciousness
-
die
-
become sick
-
lose sight
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
How is the vapour density of a product determined?
Respuesta
-
It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the weight of air.
-
It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the specifc gravity.
-
It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to the molar mass.
-
It is the ratio of the weight of a product's vapour to oxygen.
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
How is the rate of evaporation of a product determined?
Respuesta
-
It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal air.
-
It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of hydrogen.
-
It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of normal Butyl acetate.
-
It is the ratio of the evaporation rate of a product to the evaporation rate of isopropol alcohol.
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
How is the specific gravity of a product determined?
Respuesta
-
It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of air at a specified temperature.
-
It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of hydrogen at a specified temperature.
-
It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of an equal volume of oxygen at a specified temperature.
-
It is the ratio of the weight of a volume of a controlled product to the weight of air at a specified temperature.
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
What is the vapour density of propane?
Respuesta
-
1.6 (it falls in air)
-
1.6 (it rises in air)
-
0.8 (it falls in air)
-
0.8 (it rises in air)
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
What is the specific gravity of iron?
Respuesta
-
7.5 (it will sink in water)
-
10 (it will sink in water)
-
0.75 (it will rise in water)
-
75 (it will sink in water)
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
What is the specific gravity of gasoline?
Respuesta
-
0.8 (it will float on water)
-
8 (it will float on water)
-
80 (it will sink on water)
-
8 (it will sink on water)
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
A self-contained breathing apparatus has a cylinder charged to a pressure of _______________.
Respuesta
-
31.03 MPa
-
5 MPa
-
103 MPa
-
62.06 MPa
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
Early government involvement in certification of power engineers became more important for the following reasons
except:
Respuesta
-
efficiency
-
labour mobility
-
safety
-
pollution
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect
Respuesta
-
foaming
-
filming
-
an interface
-
scaling
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
Committees which establish standards are composed primarily
of which of the following elements?
Respuesta
-
experts from the industry, professional and insurance groups and all levels of government
-
only multi-National power corporations
-
one independent safety and standardisation board
-
only experts from the industry and government
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class
Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to
perform?
Respuesta
-
Take charge of the general care and operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5,000 kW,when only in use for the purpose of subterranean thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer.
-
Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity of MORE than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer.
-
Take charge of the general care and operation of a powerplant having a capacity of not more than 1,000 kW as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in that plant.
-
Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not more than 10,000 kW, when used only for underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer.
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of luminous intensity?
Respuesta
-
au
-
lux
-
cd
-
lumen
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
A pascal is equal to
Respuesta
-
1 joule
-
1 N/ m^2
-
1 kg/ cm^2
-
1 kg/ m^2
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
One watt is equal to
Respuesta
-
1 pascal/m2
-
1 N/m2
-
1 joule/second
-
1 kilojoule/minute
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed of the second
gear?
Respuesta
-
172.06 r/min
-
344 r/min
-
294 r/min
-
1.1 r/min
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
Washing steam should enter a tank car or tank truck slowly so as to
Respuesta
-
prevent injury to the worker
-
prevent massive condensation of the steam within the tank
-
flush the tank gradually
-
reduce the risk of static electricity spark
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
The explosion of a flammable mixture that occurred at the exact time a valve was opened was likely due to the
Respuesta
-
pyrophoric effect
-
static electric charge buildup
-
catalytic effect of the fresh metallic surface
-
temperature of the mixture
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
What is Methane's lower and upper flammable limits?
Respuesta
-
5.0 to 15.0 %
-
2.2 to 9.5 %
-
1.9 to 8.5 %
-
1.1 to 7.5 %
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
What is Propane's lower and upper flammable limits?
Respuesta
-
5.0 to 15.0 %
-
2.2 to 9.5 %
-
1.9 to 8.5 %
-
1.1 to 7.5 %
Pregunta 91
Pregunta
What is Butane's lower and upper flammable limits?
Respuesta
-
5.0 to 15.0 %
-
2.2 to 9.5 %
-
1.9 to 8.5 %
-
1.1 to 7.5 %
Pregunta 92
Pregunta
What is Gasoline's lower and upper flammable limits?
Respuesta
-
5.0 to 15.0 %
-
2.2 to 9.5 %
-
1.9 to 8.5 %
-
1.1 to 7.5 %
Pregunta 93
Pregunta
What is Kerosene's lower and upper flammable limits?
Respuesta
-
0.7 to 5.0 %
-
2.2 to 9.5 %
-
1.9 to 8.5 %
-
1.1 to 7.5 %
Pregunta 94
Pregunta
What is Hydrogen Sulphide's lower and upper flammable limits?
Respuesta
-
0.7 to 5.0 %
-
4.3 to 45.5 %
-
1.9 to 8.5 %
-
1.1 to 7.5 %
Pregunta 95
Pregunta
What is butane's flash point?
Respuesta
-
-60 Deg
-
-45 Deg
-
58 Deg
-
49 Deg
Pregunta 96
Pregunta
What is gasoline's flash point?
Respuesta
-
-60 Deg C
-
-45 Deg C
-
54 Deg C
-
49 Deg C
Pregunta 97
Pregunta
What is 2-D diesel fuel's flash point?
Respuesta
-
-60 Deg C
-
-45 Deg C
-
58 Deg C
-
49 Deg C
Pregunta 98
Pregunta
What is Denatured alcohol's flash point?
Respuesta
-
-60 Deg C
-
-45 Deg C
-
58 Deg C
-
49 Deg C
Pregunta 99
Pregunta
What is Methane's Ignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
650 Deg C
-
480 Deg C
-
490 Deg C
-
295 Deg C
Pregunta 100
Pregunta
What is Propane's Ignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
650 Deg C
-
490 Deg C
-
480 Deg C
-
295 Deg C
Pregunta 101
Pregunta
What is Natural gasoline's Ignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
650 Deg C
-
490 Deg C
-
480 Deg C
-
295 Deg C
Pregunta 102
Pregunta
What is Kerosene's Ignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
650 Deg C
-
490 Deg C
-
480 Deg C
-
295 Deg C
Pregunta 103
Pregunta
What is Fuel oil's Ignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
340 Deg C
-
490 Deg C
-
480 Deg C
-
295 Deg C
Pregunta 104
Pregunta
What is Hydrogen Sulphide's Ignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
650 Deg C
-
260 Deg C
-
480 Deg C
-
295 Deg C
Pregunta 105
Pregunta
What is Gasoline's Autoignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
257 Deg C
-
210 Deg C
-
571 Deg C
-
500 Deg C
Pregunta 106
Pregunta
What is Diesel's Autoignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
257 Deg C
-
210 Deg C
-
571 Deg C
-
500 Deg C
Pregunta 107
Pregunta
What is Jet Fuel's Autoignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
257 Deg C
-
210 Deg C
-
571 Deg C
-
500 Deg C
Pregunta 108
Pregunta
What is Hydrogen's Autoignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
257 Deg C
-
210 Deg C
-
571 Deg C
-
500 Deg C
Pregunta 109
Pregunta
What is Butane's Autoignition Temperature?
Respuesta
-
257 Deg C
-
210 Deg C
-
571 Deg C
-
500 Deg C
Pregunta 110
Pregunta
Before pouring a flammable liquid from a dispensing container into a receiving container, the containers must be?
Respuesta
-
At equal temperatures
-
Bonded together
-
The same size
-
All of the above
Pregunta 111
Pregunta
Loading a product having a high flash point after a load of a product having a low flash point is called?
Respuesta
-
High to low loading
-
Flash point loading
-
Switch loading
-
None of the above
Pregunta 112
Pregunta
Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids?
Respuesta
-
Hand brake and wheels must be chocked on the railway car
-
Washing steam should enter the tank slowly to reduce the risk
-
Grounding connections must be in good condition
-
Trucks don't need to be grounded when the loading spout is inserted.
Pregunta 113
Pregunta
Which one is NOT a procedure of loading and unloading hydrocarbon fluids?
Respuesta
-
Compartments don't need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load
-
To prevent switch loading compartments should be purged with carbon dioxide
-
Deflector should be installed on a loading spout
-
One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.
Pregunta 114
Pregunta
One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.
Respuesta
-
Deflector should be installed on a loading spout
-
At least five minutes after loading samples must not be obtained
-
One minute before withdrawing the spout after loading a tank.
-
Compartments need to be inspected if the product being loaded is different from the previous load
Pregunta 115
Pregunta
Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG?
Respuesta
-
Truck or Tank car must contain air before being loaded
-
Containers must be designed for the right type of LPG product being transported
-
Before loading a check should be made to ensure liquids from a previous load are not present
-
LPG containers should never be filled completely.
Pregunta 116
Pregunta
Which one is NOT a procedure of handling LPG?
Respuesta
-
Outages left in LPG containers must conform to local regulations.
-
Loading hoses must be hydro statically tested every two years.
-
Container must be not over pressured
-
Before loading LPG the correct type of product must be verified
Pregunta 117
Pregunta
Transport tanks carrying LPG should be level before loading and unloading because?
Respuesta
-
It is easier to load and unload the LPG
-
Ensure relief valve connection is not flooded
-
Both of the above
-
None of the above
Pregunta 118
Pregunta
Which one is NOT a procedure of Tank Gaugers?
Respuesta
-
If hydrogen sulphide might be present, three workers should be assigned to the job
-
Tanks should not be gauged when thunderstorms are approaching
-
Defects in ladders and stairways should be reported
-
Thief ropes or cords, may be allowed in some situations
Pregunta 119
Pregunta
In gauging procedures allow how much time for the static charge to be reduced after a tank has been filled?
Respuesta
-
10 minutes
-
20 minutes
-
30 minutes
-
40 minutes
Pregunta 120
Pregunta
In gauging procedures how much should you open the hatch to allow pressurized vapour to escape?
Respuesta
-
1 cm
-
1.5 cm
-
2 cm
-
2.5 cm
Pregunta 121
Pregunta
In mobile storage tanks, a vapour space must be left because?
Respuesta
-
Liquid expands due to a temperature increase
-
Liquid explodes due to a temperature increase
-
Both of the above
-
None of the above
Pregunta 122
Pregunta
What method is used to determine the quantity loaded into the transport?
Respuesta
-
Read the rotary gauge on the side of the tank
-
Weighing the unit before and after filling
-
Using temperature - corrected meters
-
All of the above
Pregunta 123
Pregunta
What is an outage in reference to LPG?
Respuesta
-
Space left above the surface of the liquid
-
Amount of liquid left
-
Temperature of the liquid
-
None of the above
Pregunta 124
Pregunta
The term LD50 refers to:
Respuesta
-
lethal dose which results in death of 50% of the test population
-
lethal concentration which resulted in death of 50% of the test population
-
lethal concentration diluted to half strength and supplied to the test population
-
legal exposure in which 50% of the test population survived
Pregunta 125
Pregunta
The CEL of H2S is
Respuesta
-
100 ppm
-
20 ppm
-
10 ppm
-
15 ppm
Pregunta 126
Pregunta
A factor that has a large impact on the outcome of a worker's post accident recovery is
Respuesta
-
pre-accident safety record
-
attitude before and after the accident
-
lifestyle off the job
-
support received from the immediate family
Pregunta 127
Pregunta
Individual responsibilities for health and safety must be borne by
Respuesta
-
management only
-
employees only
-
owners only
-
all persons in the workplace
Pregunta 128
Pregunta
The highest proportion of injuries are reported by employees in the age group of
Respuesta
-
26 to 35 years
-
16 to 25 years
-
36 to 45 years
-
46 to 55 years
Pregunta 129
Pregunta
When contractors are involved at the site of an incident the contractor with the most control is called the
Respuesta
-
principle contractor
-
general contractor
-
sub-contractor
-
building contractor
Pregunta 130
Pregunta
During an injury related investigation by an Occupational Health and Safety officer, work being done at the site may be suspended:
Respuesta
-
indefinitely
-
until the officer arrives at the scene
-
for a maximum of 48 hours
-
until any serious safety hazards are corrected
Pregunta 131
Pregunta
The maximum penalty for an OH&S offence is
Respuesta
-
$150,000.00 fine
-
one year in jail
-
500,000.00 fine and/or one year in jail
-
$300,000.00 fine and one year in jail
Pregunta 132
Pregunta
Confined space entry rules apply where the work in progress may cause
Respuesta
-
too much noise to withstand
-
equipment being used to become a hazard
-
the worker to refuse to perform his job
-
moisture vapours to be released in the atmosphere
Pregunta 133
Pregunta
A confined space may easily become a
Respuesta
-
difficult place in which to maneuver
-
breeding ground for biohazardous infectious substances
-
life threatening environment
-
healthy environment
Pregunta 134
Pregunta
Before entering any confined space, it is good practice to
Respuesta
-
verify the operator's isolation points though the Plant Safety Committee
-
estimate how long you will be there
-
inform the Plant Manager of your whereabouts
-
plan the entry using a confounded entry space check list
Pregunta 135
Pregunta
Which of the following is not an item that must be considered when vessel entry permits are prepared?
Respuesta
-
Is the required oxygen level measured and assured (minimum level of 20% O2 by volume)?
-
Is the temperature in the space within tolerable working limits?
-
Is the confined space structurally safe to enter?
-
Has the head of the plant safety department been notified?
Pregunta 136
Pregunta
Confined space means any enclosed or partially enclosed space having:
Respuesta
-
harmful gases, vapours, mist, or dust
-
no way out
-
limited room for tools and equipment
-
restricted entry and exit
Pregunta 137
Pregunta
Confined space entry will apply to areas which lack:
Respuesta
-
ambient air temperatures
-
proper lighting
-
proper air ventilation
-
a simple means of entry
Pregunta 138
Pregunta
The minimum level of oxygen in a confined space area is:
Respuesta
-
8%
-
10%
-
15%
-
20%
Pregunta 139
Pregunta
Requirements for entry into confined spaces is governed by the:
Respuesta
-
Occupational Health and Safety Act
-
Boiler and Pressure Vessels Regulation
-
Workers' Compensation Act
-
Provincial Firemans Regulation
Pregunta 140
Pregunta
A worker in a confined space that is being ventilated also requires:
Respuesta
-
a self-contained breathing apparatus
-
an approved fire extinguisher
-
permission from OH&S to be there
-
to be in communication with another worker nearby
Pregunta 141
Pregunta
A person attending to a worker in a confined space may leave his or her station:
Respuesta
-
to retrieve tools or equipment for the worker
-
only long enough to go to the washroom
-
only when properly relieved by another qualified person
-
for ten minutes every hour
Pregunta 142
Pregunta
When tests indicate harmful gases are present in a confined space where a worker must enter, he or she must:
Respuesta
-
wear approved respiratory protective equipment
-
wait until the gases dissipate
-
receive special permission from OH&S before entering
-
wear a safety belt and lifeline
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