5685532
Descripción
Test por Rachel Nall, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Rachel Nall
hace alrededor de 8 años
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Pregunta 1
Pregunta
What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?
Respuesta
-
Benzodiazepines
-
Opioids
-
Anticholinergics
-
Antisialogue
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
[blank_start]Midazolam[blank_end] is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is [blank_start]1[blank_end] to [blank_start]2[blank_end] milligrams IV.
Respuesta
-
Midazolam
-
1
-
2
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?
Respuesta
-
Anxiety
-
Sedation
-
Amnesia
-
Analgesia
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?
Respuesta
-
Benzodiazepines
-
Opioids
-
Antislalogues
-
Anticholinergics
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?
Respuesta
-
Fentanyl
-
Morphine
-
Dilaudid
-
Demerol
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?
Respuesta
-
25-100 mcg
-
25 to 50 mcg
-
5 to 15 mg
-
20 to 80 mcg
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?
Respuesta
-
Absence of direct myocardial depression
-
Less narcotic requirement postoperatively
-
Reduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively
-
Depression of the medullary ventilatory center
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:
Respuesta
-
Decreased responsiveness to CO2
-
Relaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle
-
Nausea and vomiting
-
Risk of gastric aspiration
-
Direct myocardial depression
-
Greater post-op requirements for pain medications
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
What is the recommended dose for morphine?
Respuesta
-
5 to 15 mg
-
2 to 10 mg
-
10 to 20 mg
-
5 to 15 mcg
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
[blank_start]Robinol[blank_end] is the typical anticholinergic given.
Respuesta
-
Robinol
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.
Respuesta
-
Antislalogue
-
Sedative and amnesic
-
Central nervous system toxicity
-
Relaxation of LES
-
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.
Respuesta
-
Antislalogue
-
Sedative and amnesic effects
-
Central nervous system toxicity
-
Relaxation of LES
-
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
[blank_start]Mydriasis[blank_end] is dilation of the pupil. [blank_start]Scopolamine[blank_end] can cause this.
Respuesta
-
Mydriasis
-
Scopolamine
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?
Respuesta
-
Intraoral procedures
-
Bronchoscopy
-
Fiberoptic intubations
-
Supine cases
-
Lateral cases
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
What are the effects of atropine?
Respuesta
-
Antisialagogue
-
Sedative and amnesic
-
Central nervous system toxicity
-
Relaxation of the LES
-
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.
Respuesta
-
Anticholinergics
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?
Respuesta
-
Atropine
-
Scopolamine
-
Robinol
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
What is the dose for atropine?
Respuesta
-
0.3 to 0.6 mg
-
1 to 6 mg
-
0.3 to 0.6 mcg
-
1 to 6 mcg
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
The therapeutic dose for Robinol is [blank_start]0.1[blank_end] mg IV.
Respuesta
-
0.1
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of [blank_start]muscarinic[blank_end] receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like [blank_start]neostigmine[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
muscarinic
-
neostigmine
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?
Respuesta
-
CAD
-
Mitral/Aortic stenosis
-
Atrial fibrillation
-
Bradycardia
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
[blank_start]Proton pump inhibitors[blank_end] suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.
Respuesta
-
Proton pump inhibitors
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: [blank_start]Bicitra[blank_end], [blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end], and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
Bicitra
-
Pepcid
-
Raglan
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
What is the dose for Bicitra?
Respuesta
-
15 to 30 ml
-
10 to 20 ml
-
1 to 3 ml
-
5 to 15 ml
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
What is the dose for Tagamet?
Respuesta
-
200 to 300 mg
-
100 to 150 mg
-
25 to 100 mg
-
250 to 350 mg
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
What is the dose for Zantac IV?
Respuesta
-
25 mg
-
50 mg
-
75 mg
-
100 mg
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
What is the dose for Pepcid?
Respuesta
-
200 to 300 mg
-
150 mg
-
20 to 40 mg
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
An [blank_start]H2 antagonist[blank_end] counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.
Respuesta
-
H2 antagonist
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
Respuesta
-
Prilosec
-
Protonix
-
Nexium
-
Prevacid
-
Pepcid
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
[blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end] is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is [blank_start]20[blank_end] to [blank_start]40[blank_end] mg PO.
Respuesta
-
Pepcid
-
20
-
40
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
[blank_start]Prokinetics[blank_end] are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.
Respuesta
-
Prokinetics
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
What is the dose for Raglan?
Respuesta
-
5 mg IV
-
10 mg IV
-
15 mg IV
-
20 mg IV
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end] can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.
Respuesta
-
Anticholinergics
-
Raglan
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?
Respuesta
-
Clonidine
-
Atropine
-
Decadron
-
Haldol
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
What is the dose for Clonidine?
Respuesta
-
0.1 to 0.3 mg
-
1 to 2 mg
-
20 to 40 mg
-
0.1 to 1 mg
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?
Respuesta
-
Central-acting anti-hypertensive
-
Sedation
-
Reduces incidence of MI during surgery
-
Tachycardia
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
[blank_start]Antihistamines[blank_end] are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.
Respuesta
-
Antihistamines
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?
Respuesta
-
Patients with a history of PONV
-
Laparoscopic procedures
-
Women undergoing gynecologic procedures
-
Radiographic dye studies
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
Which of the following is not an induction agent?
Respuesta
-
Succinylcholine
-
Propofol
-
Etomidate
-
Brevital
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
The [blank_start]reticular activating system[blank_end] is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
Respuesta
-
reticular activating system
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
What is the induction dose of thiopental?
Respuesta
-
1 to 5 mg/kg
-
3 to 6 mg/kg
-
5 to 10 mg/kg
-
10 to 15 mg/kg
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
What should you reconstitute thiopental with?
Respuesta
-
Isotonic sodium chloride
-
Lactated ringer's
-
Acidic solution
-
Vecuronium
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for [blank_start]thiopental[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
thiopental
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
[blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.
Respuesta
-
Propofol
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
The induction dose for Propofol is:
Respuesta
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:
Respuesta
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:
Respuesta
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.
Respuesta
-
Etomidate
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?
Respuesta
-
0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg
-
1 to 3 mg/kg
-
20 to 40 mg/kg
-
0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
Both [blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] and [blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.
Respuesta
-
Etomidate
-
Propofol
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] can cause myoclonus.
Respuesta
-
Etomidate
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
The induction dose for Brevital is:
Respuesta
-
1 - 3 mg/kg
-
2 - 4 mg/kg
-
5 to 10 mg/kg
-
10 to 15 mg/kg
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
Brevital is cleared by the liver at a [blank_start]faster[blank_end] rate than thiopental.
Respuesta
-
faster
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
Sux increases the following:
1. [blank_start]Intraocular[blank_end] pressure
2. [blank_start]Intragastric[blank_end] pressure
3. [blank_start]Intracranial[blank_end] pressure
4. [blank_start]Serum potassium levels[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
Intraocular
-
Intragastric
-
Intracranial
-
Serum potassium levels
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
The dosage for succinylcholine is:
Respuesta
-
0.5 - 2 mg/kg
-
1 - 1.5 mg/kg
-
2 - 2.5 mg/kg
-
3 - 5 mg/kg
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
Succinylcholine is a [blank_start]depolarizing[blank_end] agent.
Respuesta
-
depolarizing
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
Name the four M's of succinylcholine:
1. [blank_start]Malignant hyperthermia[blank_end]
2. [blank_start]Myalgias[blank_end]
3. [blank_start]Myocardium[blank_end]
4. [blank_start]Myopathies[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
Malignant hyperthermia
-
Myalgias
-
Myocardium
-
Myopathies
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are [blank_start]nondepolarizing[blank_end] blocking drugs.
Respuesta
-
nondepolarizing
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?
Respuesta
-
0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
-
1 to 8 mg/kg
-
5 to 15 mg/kg
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?
Respuesta
-
5 minutes
-
10 minutes
-
20 minutes
-
one hour
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?
Respuesta
-
Cardiac dysfunction
-
Liver/Kidney dysfunction
-
Diabetes
-
Lung disease
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?
Respuesta
-
0.1 mg/kg
-
1 mg/kg
-
2 mg/kg
-
5 mg/kg
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
Intubating dose for Atracurium is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.5[blank_end] mg/kg.
Respuesta
-
0.4
-
0.5
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:
Respuesta
-
0.2 mg/kg
-
1 mg/kg
-
5 mg/kg
-
10 mg/kg
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:
Respuesta
-
Atracurium and Cisatracurium
-
Vecuronium and Rocuronium
-
Atracurium and Rocuronium
-
Cisatracurium and Rocuronium
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?
Respuesta
-
Immobility
-
Amnesia
-
CNS Depression
-
Analgesia
-
Muscle relaxation
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
MAC stands for [blank_start]minimum alveolar concentration[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
minimum alveolar concentration
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
The MAC of nitrous oxide is [blank_start]105[blank_end] percent.
Respuesta
-
105
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:
Respuesta
-
At-risk for nausea and vomiting
-
In pregnancy
-
With suspected bowel blockage
-
At-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is [blank_start]1.2[blank_end] percent.
Respuesta
-
1.2
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by [blank_start]isoflurane[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
isoflurane
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
The MAC of desflurane is [blank_start]6[blank_end] percent.
Respuesta
-
6
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a [blank_start]fluorine[blank_end] atom for isoflurane's [blank_start]chlorine[blank_end] atom.
Respuesta
-
fluorine
-
chlorine
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?
Respuesta
-
Desflurane
-
Isoflurane
-
Sevoflurane
-
Nitrous oxide
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
Wakeup times for [blank_start]desflurane[blank_end] are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.
Respuesta
-
desflurane
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
The MAC of sevoflurane is [blank_start]2[blank_end] percent.
Respuesta
-
2
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
[blank_start]Sevoflurane[blank_end] is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.
Respuesta
-
Sevoflurane
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?
Respuesta
-
Production of compound A
-
Shouldn't be used in longer cases
-
Higher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters
-
Is degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
[blank_start]Non depolarizing[blank_end] muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.
Respuesta
-
Non depolarizing
-
Depolarizing
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
Neostigmine is an [blank_start]anticholinesterase[blank_end]. It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.
Respuesta
-
anticholinesterase
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
The dosage for neostigmine is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.8[blank_end] mg/kg.
Respuesta
-
0.8
-
0.4
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
Neostigmine's duration is [blank_start]one hour[blank_end], give or take.
Respuesta
-
one hour
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse [blank_start]rocuronium[blank_end] and [blank_start]vecuronium[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
rocuronium
-
vecuronium
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