5748937
Descripción
Test por Evelyn Hernandez, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Evelyn Hernandez
hace más de 8 años
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Pregunta 1
Pregunta
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
Respuesta
-
Deliberate planning.
-
Crisis action planning.
-
Mobilization planning.
-
Force rotational planning.
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
Respuesta
-
Volume 1.
-
Volume 2.
-
Volume 3.
-
Volume 4.
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
Respuesta
-
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.
-
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).
-
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM).
-
Joint Staff.
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?
Respuesta
-
Standard unit type code (UTC).
-
Joint force/capability.
-
In-lieu-of (ILO).
-
Ad hoc.
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
Respuesta
-
Training.
-
Personnel.
-
Facility condition.
-
Equipment condition.
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
Respuesta
-
Training.
-
Personnel.
-
Home station mission.
-
Equipment condition.
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI
Respuesta
-
10–201.
-
10–244.
-
10–401.
-
10–403.
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
Respuesta
-
AFI 10–201.
-
AFI 10–244.
-
AFI 10–401.
-
AFI 10–403.
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
Respuesta
-
Pilot Units
-
Joint Planners.
-
Logistics Readiness Squadron.
-
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
Respuesta
-
Force protection.
-
Airfield operations.
-
Force accountability.
-
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
Respuesta
-
force protection and logistics.
-
intelligence and force protection.
-
secure communications and intelligence.
-
secure communications and force accountability.
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
Respuesta
-
Robust the airbase.
-
Operate the airbase.
-
Establish the airbase
-
Generate the mission.
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
Respuesta
-
2 days, 7 days.
-
2 days, 14 days
-
7 days, 14 days.
-
14 days, 30 days.
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
Respuesta
-
Generate the mission.
-
Establish the airbase.
-
Operate the airbase.
-
Robust the airbase
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
Respuesta
-
Scott AFB, IL.
-
Travis AFB, CA.
-
Peterson AFB, CO.
-
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
Respuesta
-
O–4
-
O–5.
-
O–6.
-
O–7.
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?
Respuesta
-
Command and control.
-
Operate the airbase.
-
Robust the airbase.
-
Open the airbase.
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
Respuesta
-
2 kilometers (km).
-
4 km.
-
8 km.
-
16 km
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
Respuesta
-
Strategy.
-
Combat plans.
-
Combat support.
-
Combat operations.
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
Respuesta
-
MQ–9 Reaper.
-
RQ-11B Raven
-
MQ–1B Predator.
-
RQ–4B Global Hawk.
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
Respuesta
-
3D0X3, Cyber Surety
-
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems.
-
3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems.
-
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
Respuesta
-
38 Engineering Squadron (ES).
-
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS).
-
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS).
-
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
Respuesta
-
1942.
-
1954.
-
1988.
-
1998.
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
Respuesta
-
MPTO 00–33A–1001.
-
MPTO 00–33A–1002.
-
MPTO 00–33A–2001.
-
MPTO 00–33A–2002.
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
Respuesta
-
funding, execute, close, and control.
-
plan, execute, monitor, and control.
-
plan, execute, close, and control
-
plan, control, close, and support.
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
Respuesta
-
Funding.
-
Technical solution.
-
Requirements management plan.
-
Answers, guidance, and education.
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
Respuesta
-
Processes.
-
Priorities.
-
Requirements.
-
Technical solutions.
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
Respuesta
-
Cost management plan.
-
Allied support plan.
-
Technical plan.
-
Material plan.
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as
Respuesta
-
the status.
-
a milestone.
-
a deliverable.
-
the final result.
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
Respuesta
-
Status request.
-
Defect repairs.
-
Preventive action.
-
Corrective action.
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
Respuesta
-
AFTO Form 745.
-
AFTO Form 747
-
AFTO Form 749.
-
AF Form 1747.
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed
Respuesta
-
major.
-
minor.
-
major and minor.
-
major and critical.
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?
Respuesta
-
Follow-up.
-
Controlling.
-
Organization.
-
Documenting.
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
Changes are requested during a project using an
Respuesta
-
AF Form 1146.
-
AF Form 1747.
-
AFTO Form 46.
-
AFTO Form 47.
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
Respuesta
-
Project monitor.
-
Project manager.
-
Communication squadron.
-
Implementing organization.
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
Respuesta
-
Project monitor.
-
Project manager.
-
Program action officer.
-
Program action monitor.
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
Respuesta
-
service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement.
-
service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
-
service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
-
service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
Respuesta
-
Service improvement.
-
Service transition.
-
Service strategy.
-
Service design.
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
Respuesta
-
Service design.
-
Service strategy.
-
Service transition.
-
Service operation.
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
Respuesta
-
1.
-
2.
-
3.
-
4.
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?
Respuesta
-
AFI 33–115.
-
AFI 33-150
-
TO 00–33D–3001.
-
TO 00–33D–3004.
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
Respuesta
-
Work orders.
-
Trouble tickets.
-
Infrastructure requirements.
-
Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
Respuesta
-
Organic.
-
Contract.
-
Inorganic.
-
Self-Help.
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
Respuesta
-
TO 00–33A–1001.
-
TO 00-33D-3003
-
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
-
Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
Respuesta
-
Base Communications Systems Officer.
-
Affected Work Center.
-
Base Civil Engineer.
-
Project Managers.
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
Respuesta
-
Requires services from outside agencies.
-
Mobility (deployment) equipment.
-
Requires additional manpower.
-
Requires additional funding.
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
Respuesta
-
Concept Plan.
-
Functional Plan.
-
Supporting Plan.
-
Operational Plan.
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
Respuesta
-
Concept Plan.
-
Functional Plan.
-
Supporting Plan.
-
Operational Plan.
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the
Respuesta
-
Programming Plan (PPLAN).
-
Program Action Directive (PAD).
-
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.
-
Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
Respuesta
-
Special Measures.
-
Administration.
-
Assumptions.
-
Logistics.
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?
Respuesta
-
Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum.
-
Facilities Utilization Board.
-
Mission Briefings.
-
Informal Meeting.
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for
Respuesta
-
safety modifications.
-
T–1 temporary modifications.
-
T–2 temporary modifications.
-
all temporary and permanent notifications.
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?
Respuesta
-
Safety modifications.
-
T–1 temporary modification.
-
T-2 temporary modifications.
-
All temporary and permanent modifications.
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?
Respuesta
-
Request for action and organization validation
-
Using command and lead command validation.
-
Work center manager certification and approval.
-
Program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution.
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
Support agreements are documented on
Respuesta
-
AF Form 1067.
-
DD Form 1067.
-
AF Form 1144.
-
DD Form 1144.
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?
Respuesta
-
6 months.
-
1 year.
-
2 years.
-
3 years.
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?
Respuesta
-
Unusual or compelling urgency.
-
Unit commander's interest.
-
National security interests.
-
Sole Source.
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?
Respuesta
-
10 calendar days.
-
30 calendar days.
-
35 calendar days.
-
50 calendar days.
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates?
Respuesta
-
Sole Source.
-
Firm Fixed Price.
-
Time and Material
-
Performance Based.
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?
Respuesta
-
Sole Source.
-
Firm Fixed Price.
-
Time and Material.
-
Performance Based.
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?
Respuesta
-
Sole Source
-
Firm Fixed Price.
-
Time and Material.
-
Performance Based.
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply?
Respuesta
-
Sole Source.
-
Time and Material
-
Indefinite Delivery.
-
Blanket Purchase Agreement
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation’s contract Quality Assurance Program?
Respuesta
-
Contracting Officer Representative.
-
Functional Director/Commander.
-
Quality Assurance Evaluator.
-
Contracting Office
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?
Respuesta
-
Contracting Officer Representative.
-
Functional Director/Commander.
-
Quality Assurance Evaluator.
-
Contracting Office.
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?
Respuesta
-
Quality Assurance Program Coordinator
-
Contracting Officer Representative.
-
Quality Assurance Evaluator.
-
Unit Contract Monitor.
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?
Respuesta
-
Facility Manager.
-
Quality Assurance Evaluator.
-
Functional Director/Commander.
-
Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required?
Respuesta
-
AF Form 332.
-
AF Form 1146.
-
DD Form 1144.
-
DD Form 1391.
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?
Respuesta
-
Major Construction.
-
Minor Construction.
-
All military construction.
-
None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation.
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is
Respuesta
-
$750 thousand (K).
-
$1 million (M).
-
$1.5 M.
-
$5 M.
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?
Respuesta
-
Base Civil Engineering.
-
Gaining Work Center.
-
Contracting Office.
-
Quality Assurance.
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