NM1 Exam 1

You are preparing for an initial eval with a new patient. You know he had a CVA, but you can't find in the chart which cerebral artery was involved. During the eval you note the following deficits: Left-sided hemiparesis and sensory loss with mostly LE involvement and mental confusion. Based solely upon these findings, which artery was most likely involved?

You are preparing for an initial eval with a new patient. You know he had a CVA, but you can't find in the chart which cerebral artery was involved. During the eval you note the following deficits: left-side hemiparesis and sensory loss with mostly UE involvement, Homonymous Hemianopsia, and left-side neglect. Based solely upon these findings, which artery was most likely involved?

You are preparing for an initial eval with a new patient. You know he had a CVA, but you can't find in the chart which cerebral artery was involved. During the eval you note the following deficits: Right-sided hemiparesis and sensory loss with mostly UE involvement, homonymous hemianopsia, apraxia, and aphasia. Based solely upon these findings, which artery was most likely involved?

You are preparing for an initial eval with a new patient. You know she had a CVA, but you can't find in the chart which cerebral artery was involved. During the eval you note the following deficits: Transient left-sided hemiparesis and sensory loss and left-sided homonymous hemianopsia Based solely upon these findings, which artery was most likely involved?

Which of the following are typical effects of RIGHT-SIDED Brain Damage?

Which of the following are typical effects of LEFT-SIDED Brain Damage?

[blank_start]Ideomotor apraxia[blank_end]: understand what to do but are unable to perform task. Habitual tasks can be done automatically but inability to perform on command. [blank_start]Ideational apraxia[blank_end]: have lost the idea of what to do. Unable to conceptualize a task and cannot perform purposeful motor act either on command or automatically.

[blank_start]Coup-contrecoup injury[blank_end] - When the brain “bounces” due to the force of impact and make contact with the skull at the opposite side of local damage. [blank_start]Polar brain injury[blank_end] - Occurs in response to acceleration-deceleration and rotational forces (such as in a head on collision). The moving body and head suddenly stop with impact but the brain continues to accelerate forward until it slams into the skull. [blank_start]Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI)[blank_end] - Rapid movement of the brain within the skull causes widespread stretching and tearing of the neuronal axons within their myelin sheaths (subcortical white matter shearing).

Which type of Hematoma is associated with Medial Meningeal Artery Damage?

Which type of Hematoma is particularly common in the elderly?

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "interruption or interference with normal processes, and effort of the organism to regain normal state."

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "anatomical, physiological, mental or emotional abnormalities"?

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "limitation in performance at the level of the whole organism or person"?

In the Disablement Frameworks, what is defined as "problems an individual may experience in involvement in life situations"?

Which disablement model accounts for personal and environmental factors?

Which of the following correspond to Spasticity?

Which of the following correspond to Rigidity?

At which Brunnstrom Level is Spasticity at its worst?

During which Brunnstrom Stages does the patient have Spasticity?

Once your patient reaches Brunnstrom Stage 1, most of his symptoms have disappeared (spasticity, flaccidity, etc.).

One aspect of Wernicke's Aphasia is that the patient becomes frustrated with their inability to communicate.

[blank_start]Visual Object Agnosia[blank_end] - Failure to recognize visually-presented objects, despite normal vision. [blank_start]Simultagnosia[blank_end] - Inability to perceive multiple sensations at once when trying to perceive a stimulus as a whole. [blank_start]Prosopagnosia[blank_end] - Inability to identify a known person by their face. [blank_start]Auditory Agnosia[blank_end] - Inability to recognize non-speech sounds or discriminate between them. [blank_start]Astereognosis[blank_end] - Inability to recognize objects by handling or touching them.

Put the Motor Control Theories in Chronological Order: [blank_start]Reflex Theory[blank_end] - Late 1800s - Early 1900s [blank_start]Hierarchical Theory[blank_end] - Mid 1900s [blank_start]Contemporary Systems Theory[blank_end] - Late 1900s

Which Motor Control Theory states : "Reflexes are modified to adapt to the task via central commands."

Which Motor Control Theory can be described as "an integrated theory of motor control that allows for flexibility of motor patterns (versus stereotyped movements) that can adapt to the task and the environmental constraints."

Which Motor Control Theory states that "Reflexes are the building blocks of complex behavior."

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Which of the following are limitations of the Reflex Theory of Motor Control?

Which of the following are limitations of the Hierarchical Theory of Motor Control?

If your patient has a balance deficit, which type of impairment is it?

The coordination test we learned in lab which involves the patient rapidly alternating both hands between supination and pronation is testing for which of the following conditions?

An action tremor (aka intention tremor) may be caused by a lesion to which of the following areas of the CNS?

Lesion to the Basal Ganglia results in which sort of tremor?

A lesion of the cerebellum may result in which of the following coordination problems?

A lesion of the basal ganglia may result in which of the following coordination problems?

Spascticity is velocity dependent.

[blank_start]Obtunded[blank_end]: Patient has a decreased interest in their surroundings, slowed response to stimuli, and sleepiness. [blank_start]Stupor[blank_end]: Patient has an even lower level of consciousness; only responds by grimacing or drawing away from painful stimuli. [blank_start]Coma[blank_end]: Patient cannot be aroused; no response to stimuli.

[blank_start]Expressive Aphasia[blank_end]: Characterized by awkward articulation, restricted vocabulary and a preservation of auditory comprehension [blank_start]Receptive Aphasia[blank_end]: An impairment in auditory comprehension. Speech remains fluent, but is marked by word substitutions. [blank_start]Dysarthria[blank_end]: “Slurred speech”; may occur after an UMN lesion when there is damage to the motor system controlling the muscles and movements associated with speech production (right and left sided lesions). [blank_start]Dysphagia[blank_end]: Impaired swallowing ability. It occurs in 30-40% of individuals with stroke and is common in patients with Parkinsons’s discase, MS, and cerebral palsy.

Which type of Hematoma is considered the most deadly?

Which of the following represents the correct cascade of events following oxygen deprivation in the brain secondary to a stroke?

Which of the following values are indicative of normal ICP?

At which of the following levels of ICP is it necessary to notify the patient's nurse and doctor, but it's ok to continue therapy?

At which of the following levels of ICP should you immediately stop therapy and notify the patient's nurse and doctor?

Brain edema begins within [blank_start]minutes[blank_end] of stroke onset, peaks around [blank_start]3 - 4 days[blank_end], and disappears within [blank_start]3 weeks[blank_end].

Typical onset of Multiple Sclerosis begins during which of the following age brackets?

Typical onset of Parkinson's Disease begins during which of the following age brackets?

Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is described below? • Characterized by discrete attacks of neurological deficits with either full or partial recovery in subsequent weeks to months. • The periods between relapses are characterized by lack of disease progression.

Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is described below? • Characterized by an initial relapsing-remitting course, followed by a change in clinical course with progression to steady and irreversible decline with or without continued acute attacks. • May be the result of progressive axonal loss rather than new lesions.

Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is described below? • Characterized by disease progression and steady functional decline from onset; patients may experience modest fluctuations in neurological disability but discrete attacks do not occur.

Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is described below? • Characterized by a steady deterioration in disease from onset but with occasional acute attacks. • Intervals between attacks are characterized by continuing disease progression.

Which of the following is the Abnormal Flexion Synergy Pattern for UE?

Which of the following is the Abnormal Extension Synergy Pattern for UE?

Select the proper components for the Abnormal Flexion Synergy Pattern for LE?

Select the proper components for the Abnormal Extension Synergy Pattern for LE?

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern. Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Flexion at a joint of the UnInvolved UE?

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern. Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Extension at a joint of the UnInvolved UE?

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern. Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Flexion at a joint of the UnInvolved LE?

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern. Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Extension at a joint of the UnInvolved LE?

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern. Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Flexion at a joint of the Involved UE?

You are working with a patient with a known abnormal synergy pattern. Assuming cerebral shock has resolved, what happens when you resist Extension at a joint of the Involved LE?

[blank_start]Homonymous Hemianopsia[blank_end]: a visual field cut that reduces part or all of the contra-lesional visual field. [blank_start]Diploplia[blank_end]: double vision, which can be the result of a decrease in oculomotor control or range of motion. [blank_start]Strabismus[blank_end]: an eye alignment problem that leads to difficulty with depth perception. [blank_start]Nystagmus[blank_end]: involuntary, cyclic movement of the eye (side to side/horizontal, up-down, or rotatory/torsional).