Ben Williams
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USA-Pharmacology Test sobre USA - Pharm - MidTerm - Part 2, creado por Ben Williams el 09/10/2017.

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USA - Pharm - MidTerm - Part 2

Pregunta 1 de 44

1

Which of the following describe SSRI's?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Block reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic terminal

  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects

  • Least sedative effect

  • Decrease serotonin and norepinephrine without an appreciable effect on dopamine

  • Drug of choice with major depression

  • Highest potential for OD in the anti-depressants

  • Used to treat depression

  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 44

1

Which of the following describe SNRI's?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Decrease serotonin and norepinephrine without an appreciable effect on dopamine

  • Drug of choice with major depression

  • May be used for chronic pain

  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects

  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs

  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses

  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 44

1

Which of the following describe Tricyclics?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Block the reuptake of amine neurotransmitters into the presynaptic terminal

  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs

  • Highest potential for OD in the anti-depressants

  • Block reuptake of serotonin into the presynaptic terminal

  • Drug of choice with major depression

  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses

  • Not the drug of choice for depression; higher incidence of side effects

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 44

1

Which of the following describe MAO Inhibitors?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Directly increase activity at amine synapses

  • Not the drug of choice for depression; higher incidence of side effects

  • Dangerous if taken with foods that contain tyramine (processed meats, pork, alcohol, chocolate)

  • Very selective with few/less bothersome side effects

  • Least sedative effect

  • Drug of choice with major depression

  • Not very selective, has more interactions with other drugs

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 44

1

With Serotonin Syndrome, serotonin accumulates in the brain causing sweating, agitation, restlessness, shivering, and tachycardia, leading to seizures, coma, or death.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 44

1

Depression occurs when there is an excessive amount of one (or more) of the amine neurotransmitters (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) in the CNS. Therefore, treatment for depression revolves around selective stripping of these neurotransmitters, one at a time.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 44

1

Depression occurs when there is a lack of one of the amine neurotransmitters (serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine) .

Anti-depressant medications work to block the reuptake of the amines (SSRI, SNRI, Tricyclics) or increase the sensitivity of the amine receptors and block the destruction of the amines (MAO Inhibitors).

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 44

1

Select the common side effects of Tricyclics.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Sedation

  • Anticholinergic Effects

  • Orthostatic Hypotension

  • Dry Mouth

  • Confusion

  • Tachycardia

  • Sleep Loss

  • Restlessness

  • Weight Loss

  • Increased Seizure Activity

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 44

1

Nitroglycerin is used to treat Bi-Polar Disorder because it prevents the depressive phase of the disorder.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 44

1

Lithium is used to treat Bi-Polar Disorder because it prevents the manic phase of the disorder.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 44

1

Schizophrenia is triggered by a combination of which of the following?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Genetic Factors

  • Environmental Triggers (brain injury or social stress)

  • Disease

  • Age

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 44

1

Once triggered, Schizophrenia is caused by which of the following? **Updated**

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Excessive dopamine synthesis and release by the presynaptic neuron

  • Decreased dopamine breakdown at the synapse

  • Increased postsynaptic dopamine receptor sensitivity

  • Overactivity of Serotonin

  • Increased dopamine transmission in areas such as the limbic system

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 44

1

Antipsychotic medications end in which of the following?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • -azine

  • -apine

  • -idone

  • -olol

  • -ase

  • -am

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 44

1

Which of the following are advantages of using the newer antipsychotics (-apine, -idone) instead of the traditional medications (-azine)?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Decreased risk of motor side effects

  • Less incidence of relapse

  • Drugs don’t work long enough to cause receptor supersensitivity

  • No chance of orthostatic hypotension

  • Decreased risk of metabolic effects

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 44

1

Side effects for antipsychotice drugs include which of the following?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Extrapyramidal Symptoms (Tardive Dyskinesia)

  • Orthostatic Hypotension

  • Photosensitivity

  • Metabolic Effects

  • Anticholinergic Effects

  • GI Syndromes (Nausea, Vomiting, etc)

  • Serotonin Syndrome

  • Addiction

  • Anterograde Amnesia

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 44

1

Which of the following are Extrapyramidal Side Effects?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Acute Dystonic Reactions

  • Akathisia

  • Pseudo-Parkinsonism

  • Tardive Dyskinesia

  • Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

  • Blurred Vision

  • Dry Mouth

  • Constipation

  • Urinary Retention

  • Rigidity

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 44

1

Which of the following are Anticholinergic Side Effects?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Blurred Vision

  • Dry Mouth

  • Constipation

  • Urinary Retention

  • Sedation

  • Confusion

  • Dyskinesia

  • Apathy

  • Nausea

  • Chorea

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 44

1

Which of the following best describes Status Epilepticus?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • A medical emergency due to a state of Continuous Seizures.

  • Medical term for a patient with epilepsy.

  • Medical term for a patient who was previously epileptic, but is no longer.

  • A patient who has epilepsy, but has not had a seizure.

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 44

1

What are the criteria for withdrawal from an anti-epileptic drug?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Seizure-free for 2 years, good control for 1 year after medication began

  • Normal neurological exam

  • Initial seizure onset during childhood

  • Normal neurological exam for 3 years in a row

  • Initial seizure onset during adulthood

  • Seizure-free for 1 year, good control for 6 months after medication began

  • Seizure-free for 5 years, good control for 3 years after medication began

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 44

1

While working in an inpatient setting, you are given a patient with epilepsy. In order to minimize the seizure risk during therapy, which of the following is most appropriate?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Perform therapy in the patient's room rather than the therapy department, in order to minimize visual and audible stimuli.

  • Perform therapy at the same time every day.

  • Perform therapy right before the patient eats a meal.

  • Have a therapy tech on hand to help catch the patient in case they fall.

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 44

1

Which of the following are true regarding carbidopa?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Carbidopa inhibits the premature breakdown of levodopa

  • Allows for a lower dosage of levodopa

  • Carbidopa is the gold standard for Parkinson's medications

  • Carbidopa is a precursor to dopamine

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 44

1

Which of the following are side effects of Sinemet?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Dyskinesia

  • GI Problems

  • Orthostatic Hypotension

  • Depression

  • Anxiety

  • Weight Loss

  • Weight Gain

  • Hypertension

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 44

1

Sinemet contains which of the following?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Dopamine

  • Levodopa

  • Carbidopa

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 44

1

Order the Stages of General Anesthesia:
1.)
2.)
3.)
4.)

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Analgesia
    Excitement/Delirium
    Surgical Anesthesia
    Medullary Paralysis

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 44

1

Of the following General Anesthetics, which are administered via inhalation?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Nitrous oxide

  • Halothane

  • Desflurane

  • Barbiturates

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Opiods

  • Dexmedetomidine

  • Etomidate

  • Propofol

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 44

1

Of the following General Anesthetics, which are administered via intravenous injection?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Barbiturates

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Opiods

  • Nitrous Oxide

  • Volatile Liquids

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 44

1

Why do General Anesthetics have a hangover effect?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • They are generally administered with a shot of tequila.

  • They are very lipid soluble and some wind up stored in adipose tissue for a bit.

  • General Anesthetics do not have a hangover effect.

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 44

1

Adjuvants may be administered with a general anesthetic to provide additional effects, such as sedation/relaxation and neuromuscular blocking.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 44

1

Local anesthetics end in which of the following suffixes?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • -caine

  • -caide

  • -olol

  • -dine

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 44

1

Why is epinephrine commonly administered with local anesthetics?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The vasoconstrictive ability of epinephrine limits the distribution of the drug, thus avoiding the toxic effect which occurs when too much of the drug reaches systemic circulation.

  • Epinephrine increases HR, thus limiting the amount of time the drug stays in one place which can cause necrosis.

  • Epinephrine is not commonly administered with a local anesthetic. You are thinking of Norepinephrine.

  • Many patients are allergic to local anesthetics, so administering epinephrine prior to the local anesthetic minimizes the chance of an allergic reaction.

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 44

1

What is a Bier Block?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Intravenous (IV) injection of local anesthetic into an arm or leg to block the limb.

  • Injection of local anesthetic into the sympathetic chain ganglion for CRPS.

  • Injection of local anesthetic for a spinal nerve block (aka epidural).

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 44

1

Heating modalities accelerate transdermal absorption of local anesthetics. Thus, applying moist heat before beginning ROM components of therapy is beneficial because it will help the patient stretch further.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 44

1

2 classifications of postsynaptic receptors based on NTs

receptor: acetylcholine, targets parasympathetic nervous system
and some sympathetic. Increase activity at synapses.

receptor: norepinephrine, targets sympathetic nervous system.
Diminish response of tissues.

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Cholinergic
    Adrenergic

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 44

1

Cholinergic Drugs can be used to treat which of the following?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Alzheimer's Disease

  • Glaucoma

  • Myasthenia Gravis

  • Parkinon's Disease

  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome

  • Motion Sickness

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 44

1

Anti-Cholinergic Drugs can be used to treat which of the following?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Irritable Bowel Syndrome

  • Parkinson's Disease

  • Motion Sickness

  • Alzheimer's Disease

  • Glaucoma

  • Myasthenia Gravis

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 44

1

Which of the following are side effects of cholinergic drugs?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Salivation

  • Lacrimation

  • Urination

  • Diarrhea

  • GI Cramps

  • Emesis

  • Vasodilation

  • Delirium

  • Blurred vision

  • Urinary Retention

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 44

1

Which of the following are side effects of anti-cholinergic drugs?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Decreased sweat

  • Blurred vision

  • Dry mouth

  • Urinary retention

  • Vasodilation

  • CNS delirium

  • Salivation

  • GI Cramps

  • Emesis

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 44

1

inhibit response to adrenaline/epinephrine/norepinephrine which decreases sympathetic response.
stimulate response to adrenaline/epinephrine/norepinephrine which increases sympathetic response.
increase activity at synapses which increases parasympathetic responses.
decrease activity at synapses which decreases parasympathetic responses.

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Adrenergic Antagonists
    Adrenergic Agonists
    Cholinergic Stimulants
    Anti-Cholinergics

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Vasoconstrict smooth muscle thus increase BP

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Inhibit Sympathetic Discharge (brain and spinal cord)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Increase HR and CO

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Relaxation of smooth muscle

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Reduce peripheral vascular tone

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 44

1

Which of the following adrenergic drugs do the following?
Decrease HR/contraction force

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Alpha-1 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha-2 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-1 Selective Agonists

  • Beta-2 Selective Agonists

  • Alpha Antagonists

  • Beta Blockers

Explicación