31.2.1.3 (1565) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
65200 kg.
78000 kg
79000 kg
93000 kg
31.2.1.4 (1567) 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child as
35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat.
35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat.
35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.
35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat
31.2.1.4 (1568) On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is
76 kg
84 kg
84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).
88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).
31.2.1.4 (1569) The standard mass for a child is
35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.
38 kg for all flights.
35 kg for all flights.
30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.
31.2.1.4 (1571) In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are
flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage allowance. c) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.
flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage.p
light crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage allowance.
flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.
31.2.1.5 (1577) The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:
Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load
Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel
31.2.1.5 (1578) Traffic load is the:
Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass
Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load
Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass.
Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load.
31.2.1.5 (1579) The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes
the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.
traffic load plus useable fuel.
the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.
traffic load only.
31.2.1.5 (1580) An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
29280 kg.
17080 kg
12200 kg.
10080 kg.
31.2.1.5 (1588) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Block fuel: 40 000 kg- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kgThe maximum traffic load for this flight is:
18 900 kg
32 100 kg
32 900 kg
40 400 kg
31.2.1.5 (1589) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg- Block fuel: 30 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kgThe traffic load available for this flight is:
25 000 kg
25 800 kg
55 000 kg
55 800 kg
31.2.1.5 (1590) An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.The maximum take-off, landing, and zerofuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.The payload available is :
1 550 kg
1 600 kg
2 150 kg
2 200 kg
31.2.2.0 (1591) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?
53 000 kg
64 000 kg
71 000 kg
99 000 kg
31.2.2.1 (1593) An aeroplane may be weighed
in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.
at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.
in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar
in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance
31.2.2.2 (1595) If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior to initial entry into service and thereafter
at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.
at regular annual intervals.
at intervals of 9 years.
only if major modifications have taken place.
31.2.3.4 (1602) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus
Take-off Fuel Mass
Ramp Fuel Mass.
rip Fuel Mass.
Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.
31.2.3.5 (1608) Given:Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kgMaximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kgMaximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kgMaximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kgTrip fuel= 4 000 kgFuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kgThe maximum traffic load is:
9 300 kg
12 900 kg
13 300 kg
14 600 kg
31.2.3.5 (1609) Given the following :- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg-Taxi fuel: 600 kg-Contingency fuel: 900 kg-Alternate fuel: 800 kg-Final reserve fuel: 1 100kg-Trip fuel: 9 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass:
47 800 kg
48 000 kg
48 400 kg
31.2.3.5 (1621) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kgTrip Fuel: 11 500 kgTaxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
17 810 kg
21 070 kg
20 420 kg
21 170 kg
31.2.3.5 (1624) The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kgKnowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kgThe maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:
54 000 kg
55 500 kg
61 500 kg
31.2.3.5 (1625) To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at take-off.
Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn.
Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn.
Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn.
31.2.4.1 (1629) Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is
lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low
heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high
heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.
31.2.4.1 (1632) When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
Flight endurance will be increased.
Stalling speeds will be higher.
Stalling speeds will be lower.
31.2.4.4 (1634) If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack will
remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.
remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.
be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.
be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.
31.2.4.4 (1635) In order to provide an adequate ""buffet boundary"" at the commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be
increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will remain the same.
unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.
increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will decrease
increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.
31.3.1.1 (1643) The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located
at or near the focal point of the aeroplane axis system.
at or near the natural balance point of the empty aeroplane.
at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.
at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aeroplane.
31.3.1.3 (1653) A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g=10 m/s^2)The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :
30000 Nm
50000 Nm
80000 Nm
130000 Nmg
31.3.2.2 (1669) Given:Total mass: 7500 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit station: 79.5How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft limit?
62.5 kg.
65.8 kg.
68.9 kg.
73.5 kg.
31.3.2.4 (1717) Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 mMoment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold?
104 kg
110 kg
165 kg
183 kg
32.1.1.0 (1724) Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
32.1.1.0 (1726) Which of the following statements is correct?
Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
nduced drag increases with increasing speed.
Induced drag is independant of the speed.
Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.
32.1.1.0 (1734) The speed VS is defined as
safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.
design stress speed
speed for best specific range.
2.1.1.0 (1733) The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by
increasing the CAS.
increasing the angle of attack.
increasing the TAS.
decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.
32.1.1.0 (1735) The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
VS
VS1
VSO
VMC
32.1.1.0 (1738) The rate of climb
is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
is angle of climb times true airspeed.
32.1.1.0 (1742) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
the true airspeed and the bank angle.
the bank angle only.
the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.
32.1.1.0 (1743) The induced drag of an aeroplane
decreases with increasing gross weight.
decreases with increasing airspeed.
is independent of the airspeed.
increases with increasing airspeed
32.1.1.0 (1744) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at
VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)
VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
VA (design manoeuvring speed)
32.1.2.1 (1750) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:
a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance0
32.1.3.0 (1767) A higher outside air temperature
increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.
32.1.3.0 (1768) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
improves angle and rate of climb.
has no effect on rate of climb.
decreases angle and rate of climb.
32.1.3.3 (1786) What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
Tailwind only effects holding speed.
The IAS will be increased.
The IAS will be decreased.
No affect
32.2.1.1 (1788) The critical engine inoperative
increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect
does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine.
increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.
32.2.1.1 (1790) The speed V1 is defined as
take-off climb speed.
speed for best angle of climb.
take-off decision speed.
engine failure speed.
32.2.1.1 (1792) VX is
the speed for best rate of climb.
the speed for best angle of climb.
the speed for best specific range.
the speed for best angle of flight path.
32.2.1.1 (1793) The speed for best rate of climb is called
VX.
VY.
V2
VO
32.2.2.1 (1794) Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?
Lift-off IAS.
Lift-off TAS.
Lift-off groundspeed.
Lift-off EAS.
32.2.2.2 (1798) Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?
High temperature and low relative humidity
Low temperature and low relative humidity
High temperature and high relative humidity
Low temperature and high relative humidity
32.2.2.2 (1799) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
decreases the take-off speed V1.
decreases the TAS for take-off.
increases the IAS for take-off.
has no effect on the take-off speed V1.
32.2.2.2 (1802) Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
lower.
higher.
unaffected.
only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
32.2.2.2 (1804) Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for takeoff ?
Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.
Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.
32.2.2.2 (1806) A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
increases the climb limited take-off mass.
decreases the take-off distance.
has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.
32.2.3.1 (1817) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
32.2.3.1 (1819) If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance must be increased by:
5%
10%
15%
20%
32.2.3.2 (1828) In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
T - W sin GAMMA = D
T - D = W sin GAMMA
T + W sin GAMMA = D
T + D = - W sin GAMMA
32.2.3.2 (1829) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
increases / increases / decreases
decreases / constant / decreases
increases / increases / constant
increases / constant / increases
32.2.3.2 (1832) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
Decrease of aircraft mass
Increase of aircraft mass.
Tailwind.
Headwind.
32.2.3.2 (1833) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
Low mass
High mass.
32.2.3.3 (1844) The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:
The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag
The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
The thrust is equal to minimum drag
The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
32.2.3.3 (1846) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No compressibility effects.
The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
The lift coefficient is independant of altitude
Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude
32.2.3.3 (1847) The optimum altitude
decreases as mass decreases.
is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum
increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.
is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained
32.2.3.3 (1849) The absolute ceiling
can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed
is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%
is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
32.2.3.3 (1850) The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
less than 4 000 m.
higher than 4 000 m.
unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.¹úw
32.3.1.0 (1858) Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run?
Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass.
Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting.
Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature.
Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting.
32.3.1.1 (1860) During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
1547 m.
1720 m.
1779 m.
1978 m.
32.3.1.1 (1868) Which statement is correct?
The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used
The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:field length limited take-off massclimb limited take-off massobstacle limited take-off mass.
The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature
The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
32.3.1.1 (1871) The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by:
30%
32.3.1.1 (1875) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?
The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
It may lead to over-rotation.
The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
32.3.1.1 (1877) Which of the following statements is correct?
VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
VR should not be higher than V1.
VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
32.3.1.1 (1878) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........
(i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
(i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
(i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
(i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
32.3.1.1 (1893) Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.
The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
32.3.1.1 (1894) Which of the following will decrease V1?
Inoperative anti-skid.
Increased take-off mass.
Inoperative flight management system.
Increased outside air temperature.
32.3.1.1 (1895) In case of an engine failure recognized below V1
the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
the take-off must be rejected.
the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.
32.3.1.1 (1896) In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1
the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF
a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
the take-off must be continued.
the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
32.3.1.2 (1901) How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting?
Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
An uphill slope increases take-off mass
32.3.1.2 (1902) Uphill slope
increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
decreases the take-off distance only.
increases the allowed take-off mass.
32.3.1.3 (1906) The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?
Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
32.3.1.3 (1908) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
windshear is reported on the take-off path.
it is dark.
he runway is dry.
the runway is wet
32.3.1.3 (1910) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
the runway is contaminated.
obstacles are present close to the end of the runway
Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM
32.3.1.3 (1912) Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.
Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
32.3.1.3 (1914) Reduced take-off thrust
can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.
is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.;
has the benefit of improving engine life.
32.3.1.4 (1915) What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
It will increase the take-off distance required.
It will decrease the take-off distance required.
It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
It will increase the take-off ground run.
32.3.1.4 (1916) What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
It will decrease the take-off distance.
It will increase the take-off distance.
It will increase the take-off distance available.
It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.
32.3.1.4 (1919) Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
Allowable take-off mass increases.
There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
Allowable take-off mass decreases.
Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.
32.3.1.4 (1920) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
he greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance
A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available
32.3.1.5 (1927) Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
VR
VMCA
VREF
32.3.2.0 (1935) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
The accelerate stop distance decreases.
Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.
The accelerate stop distance increases.
It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance
32.3.2.2 (1941) Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason?
Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.
To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
o ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
32.3.2.2 (1943) Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
A high runway elevation and a head wind.
A high runway elevation and tail wind.
A low runway elevation and a head wind.
32.3.2.2 (1944) The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
VLOF in terms of ground speed.
V1 in kt TAS.
V1 in kt ground speed.
32.3.3.1 (1951) The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are:
1, 4, 6, 9
1, 4, 5, 10
2, 3, 6, 9
1, 5, 8, 10
32.3.3.1 (1957) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?
The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb
The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.\x
50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass
32.3.3.1 (1963) On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
102150 kg
118455 kg
121310 kg
106425 kg
32.3.3.4 (1968) An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:
0.125D
-90m + 1.125D
90m + 0.125D
90m + D/0.125
32.3.4.2 (1983) A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
Remain constant / decrease.
Reduce / decrease.
Reduce / remain constant.
Remain constant / become larger
32.3.4.2 (1992) As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.
VX is always above VY.
VX is always below VY.
VY is always above VMO.
32.3.5.1 (1997) Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the ""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph?
Aerodynamics.
Theoretical ceiling.
Service ceiling.
Economy
32.3.5.1 (2000) The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
is dependent on the OAT.
is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation
is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
32.3.5.1 (2001) Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?
Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes, they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only
To respect ATC flight level constraints
To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.
Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected
32.3.5.2 (2007) For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?
Increases.
Decreases.
Does not change.
Increases only if there is no wind
32.3.5.2 (2009) Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher cruise speed
a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed
32.3.5.2 (2011) Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
3804 kg/h
3365 kg/h.
4044 kg/h
3578 kg/h.
32.3.5.2 (2012) A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?
Increase / decrease.
Increase / increase.
Decrease / increase
Decrease / decrease
32.3.5.2 (2019) The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
Maximum range.
Maximum endurance.
Holding.
Long range.
32.3.5.2 (2020) Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?
In order to achieve speed stability.
he aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed
In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.
It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed
32.3.5.2 (2021) ""Maximum endurance""
can be flown in a steady climb only.
can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight
is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption.
is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction
32.3.5.2 (2026) Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged)
decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
increases the power required.
increases the induced drag.
affects neither drag nor power required.
32.3.5.2 (2028) The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
is only limiting at low altitudes
narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude
increases with increasing mass
32.3.5.2 (2029) The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.
can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
has to be considered at take-off and landing.?
exists only above MMO.
32.3.5.2 (2038) The optimum cruise altitude is
the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved
the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum
the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.
32.3.5.2 (2039) The optimum cruise altitude increases
if the temperature (OAT) is increased
if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
if the aeroplane mass is increased
if the tailwind component is decreased.
32.3.5.2 (2040) Below the optimum cruise altitude
the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude
the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
32.3.5.2 (2041) Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.
If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude
If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.
32.3.5.2 (2042) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
The specific range and the optimum altitude increases
The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases
32.3.5.2 (2043) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command
the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
32.3.5.3 (2046) An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to :
180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative
180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed
90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
32.3.5.3 (2049) A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
for long-range cruise.
giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.
32.3.5.3 (2050) The drift down requirements are based on:
the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.
the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
the landing mass limit at the alternate
32.3.5.3 (2052) With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
the critical Mach number.
the minimum drag
the maximum lift
the minimum angle of descent
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied?
ETOPS.
Drift Down Procedure
Emergency Descent Procedure.
Long Range Cruise Descent
32.3.5.3 (2054) 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate
to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available
after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude
after cabin depressurization
32.3.5.4 (2058) The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude
engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs
climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
weight during landing at the alternate
32.3.6.1 (2061) During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
decrease
increaseincrease at first and decrease later on
increase at first and decrease later on
remain constant
32.3.6.1 (2062) An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
Increases in the first part, decreases in the second
Increases in the first part, is constant in the second.
Decreases in the first part, increases in the second
Is constant in the first part, decreases in the second.
32.3.6.1 (2065) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent
The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
32.3.6.1 (2066) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
A tailwind component increases the ground distance
A headwind component increases the ground distance
A tailwind component decreases the ground distance
A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
32.3.6.3 (2070) The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
obstacle clearance in the approach area.
32.3.6.3 (2073) To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.
make a ""positive"" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible
use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
32.3.6.3 (2074) Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing reference speed (VREF):
Increasing VREF
Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.
Lowering VREF
Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.
32.3.6.3 (2075) What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF?
1,05 VSO
1,30 VSO
1,10 VSO
VMCA x 1,2
32.3.6.3 (2078) The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration
the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration
32.3.6.3 (2082) The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.
minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating
33.1.1.1 (2088) VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than
500 ft above the heighest obstacle
the heighest obstacle.
1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.
33.1.1.4 (2110) An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant.The duration of the flight will be:
2h 35min
3h 00min
2h 10min
2h 32min
33.1.1.4 (2113) Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM component of 60kt ? (zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind
193 NM
228 NM
157 NM
128 NM
33.1.2.0 (2116) You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions :- dry operating mass : 2800 kg- trip fuel : 300 kg- payload : 400 kgmaximum take-off mass : 4200 kg- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
1000 kg
700 kg
800 kg
500 kg
33.1.2.0 (2117) The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:
200 kg/h
213 kg/h
267 kg/h
188 kg/h
33.1.2.1 (2124) In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:
110 NM
130 NM
140 NM
120 NM
33.1.2.2 (2150) Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be :
42093 kg.
42210 kg.
42195 kg.
42312 kg.
33.1.2.3 (2158) In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:
30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B
15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A
30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A
30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B
33.1.3.2 (2171) A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ?
At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks
The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact
At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons
At destination the required reserves remain intact.cep
33.2.1.1 (2182) A ""current flight plan"" is a :
filed flight plan.
filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.
flight plan with the correct time of departure.
flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC.
33.2.1.1 (2187) In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the :
estimated time over the first point en route
estimated take-off time
estimated off-block time
allocated slot time
33.2.1.1 (2188) In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as :
IAS
TAS
CAS
Groundspeed
33.2.1.1 (2196) An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is :
heavy ""H""
heavy/medium ""H/M""
medium ""M""
medium plus ""M+""
33.2.1.1 (2197) For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :
light ""L""
unclassified ""U""
33.2.1.1 (2201) When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in :
Central European Time
local standard time
UTC
Local mean time
33.2.2.0 (2216) When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass?
estimated take-off mass
maximum certified take-off mass
maximum certified landing mass
actual take-off mass
33.2.2.0 (2219) In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to:
the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes
the total usable fuel on board
the required fuel for the flight
the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel
33.2.2.1 (2222) The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35minTaxi fuel: 3 kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
1h 35min
2h 04min
2h 52min
2h 49min
33.2.3.1 (2224) How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
1:00 hour.
0:30 hours.
0:10 hours.
3:00 hours.
33.2.3.1 (2228) For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:
the time of take-off.
the estimated off-block time
the time at which the flight plan is filed.
the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off.
33.2.3.3 (2229) From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan notification:I - Any Public Transport flight.2 - Any IFR flight3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.4 - Any cross-border flights5 - Any flight which involves overflying water
1+5
2+4
1+2+3
3+4+5
33.2.5.1 (2231) When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by :
30 minutes or more
45 minutes or more
60 minutes or more
90 minutes or more
33.3.2.1 (2244) The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
174 NM
203 NM
188 NM
33.4.1.3 (2292) A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 =Which of the following information is contained in this METAR ?
Temperature/dewpoint
runway in use
period of validity
day/month
33.4.2.4 (2339) An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that:
the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft
the airway base is 3500 ft MSL
The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft
the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL
33.4.2.4 (2343) An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that:
1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).
the airway base is 1500 ft MSL.
the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80.
the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80.
33.4.2.4 (2345) An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the :
c) d) base of the airway (AGL)w
minimum enroute altitude (MEA)
maximum authorised altitude (MAA)
minimum holding altitude (MHA)
base of the airway (AGL)base of the airway (AGL)
33.4.2.5 (2347) Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with:
magnetic headings
true course
magnetic course
true headings
33.4.3.1 (2361) From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ?
NOTAM
AIP (Air Information Publication)
SIGMET
ATCC broadcasts
33.4.3.1 (2363) From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ?
33.4.3.1 (2364) From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs and health formalities ?
NAV/RAD charts
ATCC
33.4.3.2 (2371) On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information ""80"". This means that within this quadrant:
the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft
the minimum flight level is FL 80
the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft
the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft
33.4.3.2 (2382) On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to:
20 NM
10 NM
25 NM
15 NM
33.5.1.1 (2395) The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is:
30 min
45 min
60 min
Variable with wind velocity.
33.5.1.1 (2396) The purpose of the decision point procedure is ?
To increase the safety of the flight.
To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.
To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load.
To increase the amount of extra fuel.
33.5.1.1 (2397) When using decision point procedure, you reduce the
contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination.
contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination.
reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%.
holding fuel by 30%
33.5.1.1 (2399) Mark the correct statement:If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning,
the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate.
the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point.
the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point.
a destination alternate is not required.
33.5.1.1 (2403) A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for :
30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level.
30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required.
20 minutes hold over alternate airfield.
15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation.
33.5.1.1 (2408) Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin - jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kgMaximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kgMaximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kgAssume the following preplanning results:Trip fuel: 1 800 kgAlternate fuel: 1 400 kgHolding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kgDry Operating Mass: 34 000 kgTraffic Load: 13 000 kgCatering: 750 kgBaggage: 3 500 kgFind the Take-off Mass (TOM):
51 515 kg.
55 765 kg.
51 425 kg.
52 265 kg.
33.5.1.1 (2424) The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions
fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
33.5.1.2 (2455) Given :Distance A to B 3060 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 440 ktMean groundspeed 'back' 540 ktSafe Endurance 10 hoursThe time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
3 hours 55 minutes
5 hours 30 minutes
5 hours 20 minutes
5 hours 45 minutes
33.5.2.1 (2459) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.
Statement 2 only
Both statements
Neither statement
Statement 1 only
33.7.1.1 (2517) To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the minimum fuel quantity on board is:
that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 %
identical to that defined for VFR flights over land
at least equal to that defined for IFR flights
that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 %
40.1.1.1 (2520) Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?
Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this stress on the ground.
A moderate level of stress may improve performance
A student will learn faster and better under severe stress
A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled to fly.
40.1.3.0 (2535) The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual are related to an interface mismatch between
Liveware - Software
Liveware - Hardware
Liveware - Environment
Liveware - Liveware
40.2.1.1 (2538) Gases of physiological importance to man are:
oxygen and carbon dioxide
nitrogen and carbon dioxide
oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor
oxygen and carbon monoxide
40.2.1.1 (2545) Fatigue and permanent concentration
increase the tolerance to hypoxia
lower the tolerance to hypoxia
do not affect hypoxia at all
will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet
40.2.1.1 (2546) The atmosphere contains the following gases:
78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
40.2.1.1 (2547) An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
shortness of breath
an improving resistance to hypoxia;
a decrease of acidity in the blood
a reduction of red blood cells
40.2.1.1 (2549) The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I C A O standard atmosphere) is
78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
40.2.1.1 (2550) According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is approximately
- 2 °C every 1000 feet constant in the troposphere
2 °C every 1000 metres
constant in the troposphere
10 °C every 100 feet
40.2.1.1 (2554) Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ?1. Density2. Pressure3. Temperature4. Humidity
1,2 ,3
1, 2 ,4
2,3 ,4
3 , 4
40.2.1.1 (2558) Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by
platelets
red blood cells
white blood cells
blood plasma
40.2.1.2 (2562) In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.
High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of accuracy
Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.
Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness
Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.
40.2.1.2 (2565) The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are a) b) c) d) breathlessness and reduced night vision
sensation of heat and blurred vision
hyperventilation
breathlessness and reduced night vision
euphoria and impairment of judgement
40.2.1.2 (2569) At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected?
Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.
Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.
Approximately 35 000 ft.
22 000 ft
40.2.1.2 (2576) Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by
attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma
the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
the blood plasma
attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells
40.2.1.2 (2578) Hypoxia is caused by
reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung
reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung
an increased number of red blood cells
a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen
40.2.1.2 (2582) In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
Nausea and barotitis.
Dull headache and bends.
Dizziness, hypothermia.
40.2.1.2 (2583) Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?
Pain in the joints
Low blood pressure
Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area
40.2.1.2 (2584) A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is:
cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia
there are great differences between the two
altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given
40.2.1.2 (2588) Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning? a) b) . c) The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning. d) Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.
Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.
A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria
The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.
Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.
40.2.1.2 (2593) The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:
the total atmospheric pressurell
the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood
the amount of nitrogen in the blood
40.2.1.2 (2597) What could cause hyperventilation ?
Fear, anxiety and distress
Abuse of alcohol
Fatigue
Extreme low rate of breathing
40.2.1.2 (2606) Symptoms of decompression sickness
are only relevant when diving
can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT
are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory shock
are flatulence and pain in the middle earA
