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Aviation Interview Test sobre ATP EASA Qatar 3 RED, creado por mmm mmm el 23/05/2018.

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ATP EASA Qatar 3 RED

Pregunta 1 de 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4845)
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
three dimensional fix?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 4

  • 3

  • 5

  • 6

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4846)
What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3

  • 4

  • 6

  • 5

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 61

1

R 62.6.5.0 (4852)
Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • WGS 84

  • ED 87

  • ED 50

  • EUREF 92

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 61

1

R 71.1.1.0 (4904)
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • while at their station.

  • only during take off and landing.

  • only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest
    of safety.

  • from take off to landing.

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4946)
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a decision height of at least 100 ft

  • a decision height of at least 200 ft

  • a decision height of at least 50 ft

  • no decision height

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4948)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 550 m 1800FT

  • 350 m

  • 800 m

  • 500 m

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4949)
A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 200 m = 700 FT

  • 100 m

  • 250 m

  • 50 m

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 61

1

R 71.1.2.4 (4951)
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

  • a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.

  • a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.

  • no decision height.

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 61

1

R 71.1.3.1 (4989)
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • reduced range

  • increased manoeuvring limits

  • increased flight envelope

  • increased Mach number stability

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 61

1

R 71.1.3.3 (5032)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 285 and 420.

  • 280 and 400.

  • 280 and 390.

  • 275 and 400.

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 61

1

R 71.1.3.3 (5046)
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within
NAT region?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Between FL290 and FL410.

  • Between FL275 and FL400.

  • Between FL245 and FL410.

  • Below FL290.

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 61

1

R 71.2.0.0 (5061)
According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1 500 ft

  • 3 000 ft

  • 2 000 ft

  • 1 000 ft

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 61

1

R 71.2.2.0 (5070)
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs
on :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The aircraft front areas.

  • The upper and lower wingsurfaces.

  • The upper and lower rudder surfaces.

  • Only the pitot and static probes.

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 61

1

71.2.2.0 (5082)
During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.

  • the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

  • the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.

  • the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied HOT

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 61

1

R 71.2.4.0 (5104)
When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 300 m (1000 ft)

  • 450 m (1500 ft)

  • 150 m (500 ft)

  • 600 m (2000 ft)

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 61

1

R 71.2.4.0 (5108)
According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1 000 ft

  • 500 ft

  • 1 500 ft

  • 3 000 ft

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 61

1

R 71.2.5.0 (5111)
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.

  • possible and recommended.

  • useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.

  • useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 61

1

R 71.2.5.0 (5139)
A class B fire is a fire of:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • liquid or liquefiable solid

  • solid material usually of organic nature

  • electrical source fire

  • special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 61

1

R 71.2.6.0 (5142)
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a rate of climb

  • a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm

  • zero

  • a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 61

1

R 71.2.6.0 (5149)
The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 12 seconds.

  • 30 seconds.

  • 5 minutes.

  • 1 minute.

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 61

1

R 71.2.7.0 (5161)
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

  • occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

  • occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

  • can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 61

1

R 71.2.7.0 (5162)
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Indicated airspeed.

  • Pitch angle.

  • Vertical speed.

  • Groundspeed.

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5179)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 7.4 km (4 NM)

  • 9.3 km (5 NM)

  • 11.1 km (6 NM)

  • 3.7 km (2 NM)

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 61

1

R
71.2.8.0 (5187)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar 431 separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000
kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the
approach to the same runway ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

  • 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

  • 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

  • 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5188)
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 5 minutess

  • 2 minutes

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5190)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 3 minutes

  • 4 minutes

  • 5 minutes

  • 2 minutes

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5193)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a
    runway with a desplaced landing threshold

  • to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part
    of parallel runway separated by less 760 m

  • to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a
    runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

  • Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT
    aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5194)
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
    runway

  • LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

  • MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

  • MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
    separated by less than 760 m

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5195)
In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are
using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar
separation minima of :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5 NM

  • 4 NM

  • 3 NM

  • 2 NM

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 61

1

R 71.2.8.0 (5196)
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied to :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

  • LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

  • LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by
    less than 760 m. (using whole runway)

  • LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same
    runway

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 61

1

R 71.2.9.0 (5200)
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or
    the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a
    landing approach configuration.

  • you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.

  • you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the
    airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.

  • you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 61

1

71.2.10.0 (5214)
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 90 seconds

  • 132 seconds

  • 60 seconds

  • 120 seconds

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 61

1

RED 71.2.13.0 (5251)
The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 24 hours

  • 12 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 3 hours

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 61

1

R 71.2.13.0 (5255)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

  • it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

  • it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

  • surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 61

1

R 71.2.13.0 (5254)
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • poor

  • unreliable

  • medium

  • good

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 61

1

R 81.1.3.1 (5307)
The lift formula is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S

  • L= W

  • L= CL 2 RHO V² S

  • L= n W

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 61

1

R 81.1.6.0 (5355)
What will happen in ground effect ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases

  • the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases

  • an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices

  • a significant increase in thrust required

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 61

1

R 81.1.6.0 (5356)
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.

  • the effective angle of attack is decreased.

  • the induced angle of attack is increased.

  • drag and lift are reduced.

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 61

1

R 81.1.6.4 (5357)
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the
    surface

  • when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface

  • when a higher than normal angle of attack is used

  • at a speed approaching the stall

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 61

1

R 81.1.6.4 (5358)
Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • increases.

  • increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.

  • does not change.

  • decreases.

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5377)
The stall speed :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • increases with an increased weight

  • decreases with an increased weight

  • does not depend on weight

  • increases with the length of the wingspan

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5381)
The following factors increase stall speed :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.

  • a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.

  • increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.

  • a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 61

1

R 81.1.8.2 (5383)
The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • pulling up from a dive.

  • weight decreases.

  • minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.

  • spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 61

1

R 81.1.8.4 (5393)
Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • greater than VS.

  • 1.20 VS.

  • 1.30 VS.

  • 1.12 VS.

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 61

1

R 81.1.8.5 (5409)
One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the
stall :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.

  • wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment

  • tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

  • leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 61

1

R 81.1.9.0 (5414)
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively
    less drag.

  • Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.

  • Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS
    EXTENDED situation.

  • Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 61

1

R 81.1.10.1 (5448)
When ""spoilers"" are used as speed brakes:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.

  • CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.

  • they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.

  • at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.

Explicación

Pregunta 48 de 61

1

R 81.2.1.1 (5454)
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:

speed of sound: mach / tas 0.8/400= 500

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 500 kts

  • 320 kts

  • 480 kts

  • 600 kts

Explicación

Pregunta 49 de 61

1

R 81.2.2.1 (5465)
Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.

  • the critical angle of attack is reached.

  • shockstall occurs.

  • Mach buffet occurs.

Explicación

Pregunta 50 de 61

1

R 81.2.2.2 (5488)
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Higher critical Mach number

  • Greater strength

  • Increased longitudinal stability

  • Lower stalling speed

Explicación

Pregunta 51 de 61

1

R 81.2.2.3 (5491)
How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

  • It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.

  • It remains constant.

Explicación

Pregunta 52 de 61

1

R 81.2.2.3 (5493)
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • increases

  • decreases

  • decreases until the tropopause

  • remains the same

Explicación

Pregunta 53 de 61

1

R 81.4.3.5 (5552)
A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.

  • an increasing static longitudinal stability.

  • a better recovery performance in the spin.

  • an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).

Explicación

Pregunta 54 de 61

1

81.5.1.1 (5580)
Rotation about the lateral axis is called :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • pitching.

  • rolling.

  • slipping.

  • yawing.

Explicación

Pregunta 55 de 61

1

R 81.5.2.4 (5583)
The centre of gravity moving aft will:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • increase the elevator up effectiveness.

  • decrease the elevator up effectiveness.

  • not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.

  • increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.

Explicación

Pregunta 56 de 61

1

R 81.5.5.0 (5599)
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?
a)
b)
c)
d)

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Rolling and yawing.

  • Pitching and rolling.

  • Pitching and adverse yaw.

  • Pitching and yawing.

Explicación

Pregunta 57 de 61

1

R 81.6.3.2 (5643)
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • swept wings

  • winglets

  • straight wings

  • wing dihedral

Explicación

Pregunta 58 de 61

1

R 81.8.1.5 (5672)
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding
altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • increase thrust and angle of attack.

  • increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.

  • increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.

  • increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.

Explicación

Pregunta 59 de 61

1

R 81.8.1.5 (5676)
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • TAS.

  • weight.

  • load factor

  • wind.

Explicación

Pregunta 60 de 61

1

R 81.8.2.10 (5683)
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery
    runways.

  • Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.

  • Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already
    been lifted off the ground.

  • Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.

Explicación

Pregunta 61 de 61

1

R
How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS
    constant and decreasing density

  • increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required
    rudder force

  • increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density
    decreases

  • 1998-10-05 0:00

Explicación