62.1.5.0 (4705) Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
108.25 MHz
109.15 MHz
110.20 MHz
112.10 MHz
62.1.5.0 (4706) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
400 FT/MIN
450 FT/MIN
600 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN
62.2.1.0 (4719) The maximum range of primary radar depends on :
wave length
frequency
pulse recurrence frequency
pulse length
62.2.1.0 (4721) The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
power output
pulse recurrence rate
size of parabolic receiver aerial
height of the transmitter above the ground
62.2.1.0 (4725) The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
transmission frequency
transmission power
size of the aerial
62.2.2.0 (4737) The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
100 NM
200 NM
300 NM
400 NM
62.2.3.0 (4742) Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?
cumulus
cirrocumulus
stratus
altostratus
62.2.3.0 (4743) In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern.
WEATHER
MAPPING
CONTOUR
MANUAL
62.2.3.0 (4751) A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
increase in area and move to the top of the screen
decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
62.2.3.0 (4754) In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of 5°)
0°
2.5° up
2.5° down
5° up
62.2.4.0 (4761) Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
62.2.4.0 (4762) In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
7500
7600
7700
7000
62.2.4.0 (4763) In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
62.2.4.0 (4766) The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability
62.2.4.0 (4770) Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?
0
4096
9999
62.2.4.0 (4774) In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
62.2.4.0 (4779) The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
transponder malfunction
an emergency
radio communication failure
unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
62.2.4.0 (4762) In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS IIP
62.5.1.0 (4786) Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
the sky
engaged modes
the flight director bar(s)
flight envelope and system limits
62.5.1.0 (4788) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured:
green
magenta
white
amber/yellow
62.5.1.0 (4789) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are coloured:
yellow
62.5.1.0 (4791) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is coloured:
cyan
62.5.2.0 (4805) The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the desired track, wind influence is compensated for
indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown
indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
62.5.2.0 (4809) The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
can modify the database every 28 days
insert navigation data between two updates
read and write at any time in database
only read the database
62.5.4.0 (4819) Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
VOR/DME
DME/DME
NDB/VOR
VOR/VOR
62.6.1.0 (4835) An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:
the receiver moves towards the transmitter
the transmitter moves towards the receiver
the transmitter moves away from the receiver
both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
62.6.5.0 (4843) In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:
timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known position
timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position
the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites
62.6.5.0 (4844) In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
SHF
UHF
VHF
EHF
62.6.5.0 (4847) Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:
4
5
6
7
62.6.5.0 (4848) Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:
62.6.5.0 (4849) Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
Satellite to ground time lag, atmospheric propagation, satellite clock
Satellite clock, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation
Satellite mutual interference, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation
Satellite mutual interference, frequency drift, satellite to ground time lag
62.6.5.0 (4853) Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
Latitude and longitude
Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
Latitude, longitude and time
Latitude, longitude and altitude
62.6.5.0 (4854) Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
62.6.5.0 (4855) The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane
62.6.5.0 (4857) How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
12
24
18
30
62.6.5.0 (4864) The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
an ellipsoid
a sphere
a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
a geoid
62.6.5.0 (4876) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
62.6.5.0 (4885) What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
3
62.6.5.0 (4901) What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
Barometric altitude
Radar altitude
If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise barometric altitude
GPS altitude
71.1.1.0 (4903) Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
50% of the landing distance available.
60% of the landing distance available.
70% of the landing distance available.
80% of the landing distance available.
71.1.1.0 (4907) The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least :
15 minutes.
30 minutes.
60 minutes.
2 hours.
71.1.1.0 (4908) A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :
50 NM
71.1.1.0 (4911) The term decision height (DH) is used for :
a conventional approach.
an indirect approach.
a precision approach.
a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
71.1.1.0 (4913) For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
71.1.1.0 (4915) When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)
The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.
All the flight crew be on board."s
Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
71.1.1.0 (4920) The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :
70°.
110°.
140°.
220°.
71.1.1.0 (4921) Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last :
25 hours of operation.
flight.
30 hours of operation.
48 hours of operation
71.1.1.0 (4922) For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :
30 minutes of operation.
48 hours of operation.
71.1.1.0 (4923) On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than :
10 000 ft
11 000 ft
12 000 ft
13 000 ft
71.1.1.0 (4924) On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between :
10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
71.1.1.0 (4926) For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :
25 000 ft
29 000 ft
71.1.1.0 (4928) The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :
70°
110°
140°
220°
71.1.1.0 (4930) The JAR-OPS is based on :
ICAO Appendix 6
The air transport rules
he Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
A JAA guideline
71.1.1.0 (4931) During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will first see the :
red steady light
green steady light
white steady light
green flashing light
71.1.1.0 (4932) The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is :
71.1.1.0 (4933) For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :
0.5
0.6
0.7
0.8
71.1.2.0 (4936) The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.
the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft.
the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.
the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft
71.1.2.4 (4953) A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
1500 m
1600 m
2400 m
3600 m
71.1.2.4 (4958) When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:
1.3
1.15
1.5
1.45
71.1.2.4 (4963) In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but no less than :
50 m
75 m
100 m
150 m
71.1.2.4 (4967) For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable
71.1.2.4 (4971) In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :
D
B
C
E
71.1.3.1 (4983) On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
30 minutes at cruising speed
45 minutes at cruising speed
71.1.3.1 (4984) On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
2 hours with normal cruising consumption
2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
71.1.3.1 (4985) When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
71.1.3.1 (4988) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least :
1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
71.1.3.2 (5009) During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :
grid North for any chart
grid North for a given chart
true North for a given chart
true North for any chart
71.1.3.2 (5010) Astronomic precession is :
ndependent of the latitude
depending on the chart used
existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
zero when the aircraft is on the ground
71.1.3.3 (5017) MNPS is the abbreviation for:
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.
Military Network Performance Structure.
Minimum Navigation Positioning System
71.1.3.3 (5018) In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
Mach number.
true airspeed.
ground speed.
indicated airspeed.
71.1.3.3 (5020) In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:
notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.
set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.
71.1.3.3 (5022) The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is :
10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
71.1.3.3 (5023) The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight normally is :
71.1.3.3 (5026) The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least :
Two inertial navigation units.
Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.
Three inertial navigation units.
One inertial navigation unit.
71.1.3.3 (5027) The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
20 minutes.
71.1.3.3 (5028) The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is :
30 NM.
60 NM.
90 NM.
120 NM.
71.1.3.3 (5029) During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least :
5 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
20 minutes
71.1.3.3 (5031) The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :
27° North to 90° North.
27° North to 70° North.
30° North to 90° North.
30° North to 70° North.
71.1.3.3 (5043) Which errors in ""estimates"" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic?
2 or more.
3 or more.
5 or more.
10 or more.
71.1.3.3 (5044) The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
71.1.3.3 (5045) Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
71.1.3.3 (5050) The abbreviation MNPS means :
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
Main Navigation Performance Specification
Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
71.1.3.3 (5051) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within :
flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole
sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole
flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole
71.1.3.3 (5056) In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :
500 ft
1 000 ft
1 500 ft
2000ft
71.2.1.0 (5065) A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency Procedures"".
the JAR OPS.
the minimum equipment list.
the flight record.
71.2.1.0 (5066) A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency procedures"".
the flight manual.
71.2.1.0 (5068) The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufactureri
71.2.1.0 (5069) The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
71.2.2.0 (5072) If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
Greater than the actual.
Less than the actual.
Equal to the actual.
Dependent on the temperature.
71.2.2.0 (5073) In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.
external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
71.2.2.0 (5074) The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:
value of the stall angle of attack
tuck under
stalling speed
roll rate
71.2.2.0 (5075) The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is :
ICAO Appendix 8
ICAO Appendix 18
the Washington Convention
Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957
71.2.2.0 (5076) When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 5
2, 3, 5
2, 4, 5
71.2.2.0 (5080) For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?
Freezing rain
Steady snow
Freezing fog
Frost
71.2.2.0 (5081) During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:
at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
71.2.2.0 (5085) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when :
it is rotating (before taking-off).
it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
releasing the brakes in order to take-off.
leaving the icing zone.
71.2.2.0 (5086) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid:
must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off.
must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.
71.2.2.0 (5088) The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the protection time:
when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.
during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.
when the airplane is into the wind.
when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.
71.2.2.0 (5089) Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:
separate on each side of the runway.
stagnate on the runway.
separate to the right side.
separate to the left side.
71.2.2.0 (5091) The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of :
frost
freezing fog
rain on a cold soaked wing
steady snow
71.2.4.0 (5102) About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:
They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
Such procedures do not exist.
Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .
They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
71.2.3.0 (5093) The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away :
about ten seconds beforehand
about two seconds beforehand
as soon as they hear the engines noise
from the beginning of the takeoff roll
71.2.5.0 (5113) After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
only from front or rear side.
only from left or right side.
from any side.
under no circumstances.
71.2.5.0 (5115) If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :
Begin an emergency descent.
Put on the mask and goggles.
Cut off all air conditioning units.
Determine which system is causing the smoke.
71.2.5.0 (5116) You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1,2,3
1,2,3,4
3,4
2,3
71.2.5.0 (5117) You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3
1, 4
71.2.5.0 (5118) The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :
Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
Water may only be used for minor fires.
A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
71.2.5.0 (5119) The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the :
pressurization
ventilation of the cargo compartment
total airconditioning
trim air
71.2.5.0 (5126) You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
2,3,4
1,2,4
71.2.5.0 (5128) After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:
apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards.
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.
apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.
71.2.5.0 (5130) In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :
carry out a damp cranking.
carry out a dry cranking.
pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.
fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
71.2.5.0 (5135) The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
2002-03-04
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
2
04-Mar2
71.2.5.0 (5138) A class A fire is a fire of:
liquid or liquefiable solid
solid material, generally of organic nature
electrical origin
metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
71.2.6.0 (5143) If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :
increases
decreases
remains constant
attains its maximum permitted operating limit
71.2.6.0 (5146) Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not impaired is :
8000 ft
2500 ft
14000 ft
25000 ft
71.2.6.0 (5147) Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the ""normal"" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
32000 ft
71.2.6.0 (5148) The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :
15000 ft
13000 ft
71.2.7.0 (5153) In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:1. set the maximum take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. keep the airplane's current configuration5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratioThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 2, 4
3, 5
71.2.7.0 (5159) In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude changeThe combination of correct statements is :
1,3
1,4
2,4
71.2.7.0 (5167) In the ""worst case"" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to :
climb away at Vat + 20 kt
increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle
reduce speed to V2 and hold
slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
71.2.8.0 (5170) In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:
The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence
71.2.8.0 (5172) The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :
Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
71.2.8.0 (5173) To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver :
Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
71.2.8.0 (5174) The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct statement is:
2, 3, 4
71.2.8.0 (5175) The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
high weight and high speed
high weight and low speed
low weight and low speed
low weight and high speed
71.2.8.0 (5176) The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1
2 AND 3
1, 2 AND 3
71.2.8.0 (5177) Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established :
lift
drag
spin up
lift destruction
71.2.8.0 (5178) Wake turbulence risk is highest :
following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.
when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
71.2.8.0 (5182) The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
1 minute.
3 minutes.
30 seconds.
71.2.8.0 (5183) The wake turbulence:
starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the ground.
starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.
starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.
starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.
71.2.8.0 (5184) An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :
generating lift.
flying at high speed.
using a high engine R.P.M.
flying with its gear and flaps extended
71.2.8.0 (5185) The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :
clockwise.
counterclockwise.
from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing
71.2.8.0 (5198) DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :
136 000 Kg or more
135 000 Kg or more
146 000 Kg or more
less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg
71.2.9.0 (5199) What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :
7800
71.2.9.0 (5202) Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to :
the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference
both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
the Autority of the State of the operator only
the local authority only
71.2.9.0 (5204) What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference :
code 7500
code 7600
code 7700
code 2000
71.2.10.0 (5211) The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,2. head resting against the back of the front seat,3. forearms on the armrests,4. seat belt very tightly fastened,5. head resting on the forearms.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 4, 5
71.2.11.0 (5218) In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :
30 minutes
60 minutes
90 minutes
71.2.12.0 (5227) ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with :
the air transport of live animals
the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
the noise pollution of aircraft
the technical operational use of aircraft
71.2.12.0 (5228) In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the :
sender.
captain.
station manager.
aerodrome manager.
71.2.12.0 (5232) From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons :
1,2 and 3 only
1,2 and 5 only
3,4 and 5 only
2,3 and 4 only
71.2.12.0 (5235) Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
national aviation administration permission has been granted
government permission has been granted
the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
no passenger is carried on the same flight
71.2.13.0 (5237) The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :
aircraft's weight.
depth of the standing water on the runway.
strength of the headwind.
amount of the lift off speed.
71.2.13.0 (5238) If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:
5%
15%.
10%.
20%.
71.2.13.0 (5240) Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:
is very smooth and clean.
is very smooth and dirty.
is rough textured.
the tyre treads are not in a good state
71.2.13.0 (5242) A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
wet.
flooded.
contaminated.
damp.
71.2.13.0 (5243) In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
1, 3
1, 2
71.2.13.0 (5245) The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a :
percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.
combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.
zero followed by two decimals.
letter falling between A and E
71.2.13.0 (5252) Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is :
80 kt
100 kt
114 kt
129 kt
81.1.1.1 (5262) Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
F=m. a
m=F.a
a=F. m
F=m / a
81.1.1.1 (5265) Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?
The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.
The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.
The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
81.1.1.1 (5267) Bernoulli's equation can be written as:(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic pressure)
pt = ps - q
pt = ps + q
pt = q - ps
pt = ps / q
81.1.1.1 (5270) The total pressure is:
static pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
½ rho V²
static pressure minus the dynamic pressure.
can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.
81.1.1.1 (5273) The difference between IAS and TAS will:
increase at increasing air density.
decrease at decreasing altitude.
increase at decreasing temperature.
decrease at increasing speed.
81.1.1.1 (5279) Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are correct?1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
1 and 2 are correct. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
1 and 2 are incorrect.
81.1.1.3 (5283) Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:
relative wind/airflow.
horizon.
chord line.
longitudinal axis.
81.1.1.3 (5284) The correct drag formula is:
D= CD 2 RHO V² S
D= CD 1/2 RHO V S
D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S
D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S
81.1.1.4 (5289) The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:
the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow.
the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing
the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio
the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.
81.1.1.4 (5290) Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?
for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal to 0
for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
for an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0
for an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
81.1.1.4 (5291) The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:
camber.
% chord.
degrees cross section tail angle.
meters.
81.1.1.4 (5292) ""A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil"". This definition is applicable for :
the chord line
the mean aerodynamic chord line
the camber line
the upper camber line
81.1.2.0 (5298) Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur ?
Lower side
Upper side
In front of the stagnation point
In the stagnation point
81.1.2.5 (5304) The lift force, acting on an aerofoil :
is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.
increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.
is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.
is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.
81.1.3.2 (5316) The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between :
CL and CD
Angle of attack and CL
TAS and stall speed
CD and angle of attack
81.1.3.2 (5322) Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly the
glide distance from a given altitude.
glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind.
distance for climb up to a certain altitude
distance for horizontal flight.
81.1.4.1 (5324) Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?
Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip direction.
The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction.
The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.
81.1.4.2 (5326) If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually : (flap span less than wing span)
increase.
decrease.
remain the same
increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.
81.1.4.2 (5334) The induced drag:
increases as the lift coefficient increases.
has no relation to the lift coefficient.
increases as the aspect ratio increases.
increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.
81.1.4.2 (5339) Winglets
decrease the induced drag.
increase the manoeuvrability.
decrease the static lateral stability.
create an elliptical lift distribution
81.1.4.2 (5340) Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag ?
Engine cowling
Wing root junction
Wing tip
Landing gear
81.1.5.2 (5345) The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with the:
square of the speed.
angle of attack
speed.
square of the angle of attack
81.1.5.5 (5351) Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct?
The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.
At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.
The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft weight
The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases
81.1.8.1 (5363) The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:
a turbulent stream pattern around the wing.
the normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction.
suction at the upper wing side.
81.1.8.1 (5364) A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:
the vortices are weak.
no velocity components exist, normal to the surface.
the temperature varies constantly
the velocity is constant.
81.1.8.2 (5376) Increase of wing loading will:
increase the stall speeds.
decrease the minimum gliding angle.
increase CLmax.
decrease take off speeds.
81.1.8.2 (5374) Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
increasing altitude.
increasing air density.
decreasing weight.
increasing load factor.
81.1.8.2 (5378) When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed :
increases with flap extension
decreases with increasing bank angle
increases with the square root of load factor
increases with the load factor squared
81.1.8.2 (5380) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
70 kt
141 kt
282 kt
200 kt
81.1.8.2 (5384) By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° ?
19%
31%
41%
52%
81.1.8.2 (5385) An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
122 kt.
141 kt.
82 kt.
150kt
81.1.8.2 (5386) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
May increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wing
Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward
Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
81.1.8.2 (5388) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location
Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps
May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn
81.1.8.5 (5395) On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the ""pitch up"" phenomenon:
is caused by wingtip stall.
is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.
never occurs, since a swept wing is a ""remedy"" to pitch up.
is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.
81.1.8.5 (5399) Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?
Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
81.1.8.5 (5408) The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
wing tip stalling first.
aft movement of the centre of gravity.
wing root stalling firs
forward movement of the centre of gravity.
81.1.9.0 (5410) Trailing edge flap extension will:
increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
81.1.9.0 (5412) An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is:
Wing roots: slatsWing tips: L.E. flaps
Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: slats
Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: no devices
Wing roots: slatsWing tips: no devices
81.1.9.0 (5413) An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?
The slats.
Flaps from 0° to 15°.
Flaps from 30° to 45°.
Flaps from 15° to 30°.
81.1.9.1 (5416) The trailing edge flaps when extended :
increase the zero lift angle of attack
worsen the best angle of glide
significantly lower the drag
significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
81.1.9.1 (5417) When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be:
nose up.
nose down.
zero
dependent on c.g. location
81.1.9.1 (5426) Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the :
stall speed.
lift coefficient and the drag.
maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.
lift and the drag.
81.1.9.2 (5436) Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?
Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.
81.1.9.2 (5439) A deployed slat will:
increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack.
increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack.
decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack.
increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack.
81.1.9.2 (5440) What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of :
flaps
slats
spoilers
fuselage mounted speed-brakes
81.1.9.2 (5444) A slat will
increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack.
provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing.
81.1.9.3 (5445) Vortex generators:
change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.
reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.
transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation.
