Which of the following is not a symptom of autonomic dysreflexia?
Tachycardia.
Vasoconstriction below the level of the lesion.
Vasodilation above the level of the injury.
Severe and pounding headache.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of spinal shock?
Areflexia.
Loss of bowl and bladder function.
Decreased arterial blood pressure.
Rigidity.
When is the risk for deep vein thrombosis greatest in patients with SCI?
4-6 months after the injury.
2-3 months after the injury.
2-3 weeks after the injury.
1-2 months after the injury.
When a patient with SCI is learning to ambulate for the first time in the parallel bars, which of the following is the correct gait pattern that should be instructed by the therapist?
Swing to gait pattern.
4-point gait pattern.
Swing through gait patterns.
Reciprocal gait pattern.
What type of ambulation orthosis is usually prescribed for patients with poor trunk control?
Reciprocating gait orthosis.
Knee, ankle, foot orthosis.
Scott-Craig ankle foot orthosis.
ARGO system orthosis.
What is the most common type of injury to the spinal cord in the cervical region?
One that involves only flexion.
One that involves only extension.
One that involves flexion and rotation.
One that involves extension and rotation.
What is the most common type of incomplete spinal cord injury?
Anterior cord syndrome.
Central cord syndrome.
Posterior cord syndrome.
Brown-Sequard syndrome.
What is the highest SCI injury level that can achieve functional community ambulation?
L3.
T12.
L2.
T11.
What is the highest level of transfer possible for a patient with C6 tetraplegia?
Sliding board with assistance from the family.
Standing pivot.
Independent with a sliding board.
Use of Hoyer lift.
What is the desired amount of passive hamstring length needed to maintain long sitting and to dress the lower extremities in a patient with SCI?
110 degrees.
120 degrees.
100 degrees.
90 degrees.
What is the best place for the therapist to stand when attempting to teach a patient how t wheelie in a wheelchair?
To the right side of the wheelchair.
Behind the wheelchair.
In front of the wheelchair.
To the left side of the wheelchair.
What is another name for spinal cord injuries at or below L1?
Cauda equina injuries.
Paraplegic spinal cord injuries.
Complete spinal cord injury.
Incomplete spinal cord injuries.
Usually what is one of the first reflexes to return as spinal shock subsides?
Protective reflexes.
Sacral reflexes.
Deep tendon reflexes.
Spastic reflexes.
Individuals with injury above ____ will generally exhibit maximal heart rates of 130 beats per minute or less with exercise.
T7
T6
T4
T5
How often should patients with C& tetraplegia be instructed to lie prone?
Never.
30-40 minutes a day.
20-30 minutes a day.
10-20 minutes a day.
Which of the following is the approximate normal range of Intracranial pressure (ICP)?
10-15 mm Hg
5-10 mm Hg
15-20 mm Hg
20-25 mm Hg
What is the highest level on the Rancho Los Amigos scale of cognitive function?
Level IX.
Level V.
Level X.
Level VII.
In acute rehabilitation of a TBI, how many sources of sensory input should the therapist use at one time?
3.
4.
1.
2.
If an individual suffers a grade 1 concussion, how long does it usually take symptoms to resolves?
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
20 minutes.
What type of deficits of a TBI are frequently the most enduring and socially disabling?
Sensory deficits.
Cognitive deficits.
Motor deficits.
Behavioral deficits.
What is the proper position for an individual after seizure if they remain unconscious?
Sitting.
Prone.
Side lying.
Supine.
With locked-in syndrome, which of the following muscles of the body will continue to have active movement?
Eyes.
Arms.
Feet.
Neck.
What is the most common cause of traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
Falls.
Assault.
Struck by an object.
Motor vehicle accidents.
Why are side lying and semi prone positions more desirable in the acute treatment of a TBI?
These positions offer decreased ICP.
These positions cause less chance for pressure ulcers.
These decrease the input of the labyrinthine reflex.
These positions offer easier care by nursing staff.
What is the most common joint affected by heterotopic ossification in individuals with TBI?
Wrist.
Knee.
Hip.
Shoulder.
If a patient with a TBI has a sympathetic nervous system response to a crisis situation, which of the following will become depressed?
Heart rate.
Blood pressure.
Cognitive skills.
Respiration rate.
In the acute setting, how often should the patient’s position be changed to avoid skin breakdown?
Every 2 hours.
Every 4 hours.
Every 15 minutes.
Every hour.
According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Adults with Disabilities, which of the following is the correct exercise prescription?
150 minutes of moderate intensity exercise per week and general strengthening program. 2 times a week.
180 minutes of moderate intensity exercise per week and general strengthening program 2 times a week.
120 minutes of moderate intensity exercise per week and general strengthening program 3 times a week.
150 minutes of maximal intensity exercise per week and general strengthening program 5 times a week.
What is the lowest score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
0.
5.
A cerebrovascular accident (CVA) within what lobe of the brain can cause inattention or neglect?
Frontal.
Temporal.
Occipital
Parietal.
Hemorrhagic strokes account for ____ of all stroke deaths.
10%
25%
30%
20%
If a therapist is attempting to ambulate a patient with pusher’s syndrome, where should the clinician position himself?
The patient’s univolved side.
On the patient’s involved side.
In front of the patients.
Behind the patient.
If spasticity develops in the shoulder, what is the common anatomic presentation of the scapula?
Adduction and upward rotation.
Abduction and downward rotation.
Adduction and downward rotation.
Abduction and upward rotation.
In sitting, excessive flexion of the head biases the patient toward _____?
thoracic kyphosis and posterior tilting of the pelvis.
thoracic lordosis and posterior tilting of the pelvis.
thoracic lordosis and anterior tilting of the pelvis.
thoracic kyphosis and anterior tilting of the pelvis.
What areas should be targeted first early in treatment when the goal is to improve functional mobility after a CVA?
Shoulder to elbow.
Wrist and ankle.
Hip and shoulder.
Knee and hip.
What is the first movement that a patient should make if the goal is to roll in bed?
Cross the uninvolved leg over the involved leg.
Reach and hold on the bed rails.
Reach across the body with the uninvolved upper extremity.
Turning the head to the side toward the roll.
What is the maximum score on the Berg Balance Test?
62.
56.
45
35.
What is the most common transfer from wheelchair to bed?
Stand pivot.
Hoyer lift.
Sliding boards.
Two man carry.
What specific muscle strengthening exercise is a patient performing if they are in tall kneeling and transition to heel sitting?
Concentric control of the hamstrings.
Eccentric control of the quadriceps.
Concentric control of he quadriceps.
Eccentric of the hamstrings.
When the patient has sustained a CVA, what is the most common orthosis prescribed?
KAFO.
Supramalleolar orthosis.
HKAFO.
AFO.
Which of the following is a condition in which the patient has difficulty articulating words as a result of weakness due to CVA?
Wernicke’s aphasia.
Dysarthria.
Broca’s aphasia
Global aphasia.
Which of the following is a side effect of dantrolene sodium?
Lethargy.
Seizures.
Emotional lability.
Cognitive changes.
Which of the following is correct placement of the upper extremity if the individual is in supine after a CVA?
Externally rotated, abducted approximately 30 degrees, and extend with the forearm supinated.
Internally rotated, abducted approximately 30 degrees, and extended with forearm pronated.
Externally rotated, abducted approximately 15 degrees, and extended with forearm pronated.
Externally rotated, abducted approximately 50 degrees, and extended with forearm supinated.
Which of the following is the correct procedure and progression of ambulation with a cane?
The advances the cane first with the uninvolved hand, the uninvolved lower extremity next, and then the involved lower extremity.
The patient advances the involved lower extremity first, the can with the uninvolved hand next, and the uninvolved lower extremity.
The patient advances the cane first with the uninvolved and, the uninvolved lower extremity next, and the involved lower extremity last.
The patient places the uninvolved lower extremity first, the cane with the uninvolved hand next, then the involved lower extremity.
Which PNF technique is most appropriate and effective when addressing decreased length in two joint muscles and when pain is not a significant factor?
Hold relax
Hold-relax active
Rhythmic stabilization
Contract relax
Bridging is an example of what stage of motor control?
First stage
Third stage
Second stage
Fourth stage
Typically resistance to upper extremity extension and adduction produces overflow to what muscle group?
Trunk flexors
Cervical flexors
Cervical extensors
Trunk extensors
What is the first posture in the developmental sequence in which the center of gravity is a significant distance from the supporting surface?
Half kneeling
Kneeling
Quadruped
Prone to elbows
In standing what type of activities are targeted at acquiring the skills needed to walk?
Mobility
Skilled
Controlled mobility
stability
What is the focus of the PNF techniques agonistic reversals?
Increasing muscle tone
Functional stability
Increased range of motion
Isometric strength
What is the best position for the patient to be positioned in to perform scapular and pelvic PNF patterns?
Side lying
Sitting
Standing
Supine
Which lower extremity patter is appropriate to utilize when attempting to teach a patient how to gain the ability to positions the legs into hook lying position independently?
Lower extremity D2 extension with knee extension
Lower extremity D2 flexion with knee flexion
Lower extremity D1 flexion with knee flexion
Lower extremity D1 extension with knee extension
Which upper extremity PNF pattern mimics the patient bringing a scarf over the opposite shoulder?
D1 extension
D2 flexion
D1 flexion
D2 extension
All PNF patterns consist of a combination of motion occurring in how many planes?
2
4
1
3
How many directions of movement are emphasized when using hold-relax-active movement patterns?
What type of grip is preferred when using proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) to control movement and provide optimal resistance regarding rotation?
Hook grip
Spherical grip
Lumbrical grip
Cylindrical grip
What scapular pattern is associated with D2 upper extremity flexion?
Anterior elevation
Anterior depression
Posterior depression
Posterior elevation
What is the position of the foot in lower extremity D2 flexion?
Dorsiflexed and inverted
Dorsiflexed and everted
Plantarflexed and inverted
Plantarflexed and everted
Which of the following is an indication to use a facilitatory stretch?
Pain
Hypermobility
Fracture
Flaccidity
What is often the first sign of Parkinson disease?
Bradykinesia.
Tremor.
Postural instability.
Which of the following is a viral infection that attacks some of the anterior horn cells in the spinal cord?
Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Multiple sclerosis.
ALS.
Polio.
Which of the following individuals is most likely to receive the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
15-year-old male.
15-year-old female.
30-year-old female.
3o-year-old male.
Parkinson disease is a disorder of which of the following neurotransmitters?
Acetylcholine.
Serotonin.
Epinephrine.
Dopamine.
Which of the following is the usual cause of death in patients with ALS?
Respiratory failure.
Cardiac failure.
Kidney failure.
Infection.
Which of the following medications is injected daily for MS?
Avonex.
Copaxone.
Dexamethasone.
Betaseron.
Why can’t dopamine be given in the pharmacological management of Parkinson disease?
Dopamine will cause depression.
Dopamine cannot cross the blood brain barrier.
Dopamine will cause rigidity to worsen.
Patients will develop a resistance to dopamine.
If the patient has Stage 5 Parkinson disease, according to the Hoehn and Yahr classification of disability scale, what is their functional capability?
Is a community ambulator.
Uses a walker at all times.
Bedbound or wheelchair bound.
Uses a cane at all times.
Which of the following is not a symptom of post-polio syndrome (PPS)?
Pain.
Intolerance to heat.
New muscle weakness.
Excessive fatigue.
What is the most frequently reported symptom of MS?
Paresthesia.
Fatigue.
Difficulty walking.
The majority of MS cases are
Progressive relapsing.
Primary progressive.
Secondary progressive.
Relapsing-remitting.
What is the cardinal sign of Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
Muscle weakness.
Poor cognition.
Which of the following is correct temperature range for therapeutic pools that will be used in the treatment of patients with MS?
70-75 degrees F.
80-85 degrees F.
85-90 degrees F.
75-80 degrees F.
What is usually the first sign of MS?
Visual problems.
Weakness.
Which of the following is not one of the four primary symptoms of Parkinson disease?
Bradykinesias.
Flaccidity.
