QUESTIONS
CHAPTER 1 - RELATION OF NDT TO MANUFACTURING
1-1. Fracture is a type of material failure. Of the following, which is another type of material failure?

A. Fracture mechanics
B. Low frequency dynamic loading
C. Permanent deformation
D. Elongation within the elastic range
E. None of the above

1-2. Which of the following statements best differentiates between a defect and a discontinuity?

A. Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.
B. All discontinuities are defects.
C. All defects will lead to failure if undetected; discontinuities can be harmless.

D. Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only; defects are internal flaws originating from errors in processing.

1-3. Nondestructive testing is often differentiated from other measurements or inspection techniques in that:
A. NDT involves indirect tests related to some other quality or characteristic of the material.
B. NDT is a measurement of dimensions, geometry, and appearance.

C. NDT uses electronic instruments to identify, evaluate, and locate discontinuities.

D. NDT is an inspection tool used to confirm the findings of the many other quality assurance techniques.

1-4 Which of the following describes a function of NDT?
A. Identification and sorting of material
B. Identification of material properties
C. Assuring the absence of faults or defect the could cause a part to fail

D. All of the above

1-5 An important basis for the success of fracture control design procedures Is:
A. that all flaws are detected by NDT or proof testing before the component enters service.
B. in the use of large factors of safety.
C. in the use of a value of strength that the material used in the design is presumed to possess.
D. the need to assure that unexpected flaws of some critical size are not present when the component enters service.
E. all of the above.

1-6 If properly utilized, NDT can assist in fracture control by:
A. accurately measuring the tensile strength of design materials.
B. providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material.

C. predicting the time it will take a given size discontinuity to grow to a critical size.
D. all of the above

1-7 A statement that a particular experiment produced a 0.9 probability of detection with a 95% confidence level means that:
A. there is a 95% probability that the probability of detection is overstated
B. there is a 5% probability that the probability of detection is overstated.

C. on the average, 90% of all flaws will be detected.
D. on the average, 95% of the all flaws will be detected.
E. on the average, 95 out of 100 flaws will be detected 90% of the time.

CHAPTER 2 • INTRODUCTION TO MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY

2.1 Most metals and plastics that are solids and have reasonable strength at room temperature are called:
A. composite materials.
B. manufacturing materials.

C. raw materials.
D. allotropic materials,
E. engineering materials.

2-2 Materials properties as used in design are most frequently determined by.

A. theoretical analysis.
B. materials testing.
C. the National Bureau of Standards.

D. fracture mechanics testing.

2-3 Even at the early stages of product planning, nondestructive testing should be considered because:

A. it may be required by codes and specifications.
B. the design of the part should permit easy access to critical areas for later inspection.
C. the material selected should be compatible with a NDE technique that can accurately evaluate the product.

D. all of the above are Important.

CHAPTER 3 • PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS

3-1 Which of the following materials properties are of most concern if corrosion resistance is essential?

A. Processing properties
B. Mechanical properties
C. Physical properties

D. Chemical properties

3-2 Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of aluminum based alloys and iron based alloys?
A. Iron has a lower melting point than aluminum.
B. Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures, and its properties can be controlled by heat treatment.

C. Iron can be alloyed to Increase its strength, whereas aluminum Is strongest In Its pure state.

D. Iron is preferred in load carrying designs, but it should not be used for any deformation type of manufacturing process.
E. All of the above.

3-3 Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a newly developed alloy In order to determine the ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests are referred to as:
A. indirect tests.
B. physical properties tests.

C. destructive tests.

D. proof tests.

3-4 A bar that is 12 inches long, 2 inches wide, and 1 inch thick is subjected to a tensile load acting along the length of the bar of 36,000 pounds. What is the tensile stress within the bar?
A. 1,500 pounds per square inch
B. 3,000 pounds per square inch

C. 12,000 pounds per square inch

D. 18,000 pounds per square inch E. 36,000 pounds per square inch

3-5 On the diagram below, point B is called the:

A. elastic range.
B. elastic limit.
C. yield point.

D. yield strength.
E. modulus of elasticity.

3-6 In the preceding figure, which of the following ranges indicate the effect of work-hardening (to its Maximum) caused by plastic flow of the material during a tensile load?
A. A-B
B. B-C

C. C-D D. D-E E. E-F

3-7 In the preceding figure, the points represented by E and F would be closer together If the material being tested were:
A. loaded in tension.
B. loaded In lapshear.

C. more ductile.

D. less ductile.

3.8 The modulus of elasticity, or Young's modulus, is a measure of the material's relative: A. tensile strength.
B. compressive strength.
C. resistance to stress.

D. stiffness.
E. yield strength.

3.9 Which of the following materials is typically considered when the application only requires high compressive strength?
A. Low carbon steel
B. High carbon steel

C. Cast iron

D. Magnesium

3-10 A fatigue failure can often be prevented by utilizing NOT to:
A. verify the cyclic loading on a component part.
B. detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers.
C. measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing cyclic stresses.
D. determine percent elongation of a material before it is placed in service.

3-11 Which of the following tests utilize a pendulum to break a specimen that is notched and supported on both ends, with the result of measuring energy absorption?
A. Creep test
B. Charpy test

C. Fatigue test
D. Transverse rupture test

3-12 The diagram below typifies:

A. a creep test curve.
B. an S-N curve.
C. a stress-strain diagram.

D. a true stress-strain diagram.

3-13 Direct hardness tests provide a measure of a material's ability to resist:

A. bending.
B. surface and near-surface penetration.
C. tensile stresses.

D. elongation.
3-14 A particular type of steel has an ultimate strength of 80,000 pounds per square inch (psi), an elastic limit of 60,000 psi, and a yield strength of 62,000 psi. An allowable design stress of 20,000 psi is
used. What Is the (actor of safety based on the ultimate strength?
A. 0.25
B. 0.33
C. 3
D. 3.1
E. None of the above

CHAPTER 4 • THE NATURE OF MATERIALS AND SOLID STATE CHANGES IN METALS

4-1 Under ordinary usage, metals exist as:
A. amorphous solids.
B. mixtures and compounds of iron and carbon. C. crystalline solids.
D. face-centered cubic lattices.

4.2 The terms "body-centered cubic," "face-centered cubic," and "hexagonal close-packed" all refer to the:
A. different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic structure.
B. sequence of crystalline growth in a typical mild steel.

C. lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure.

D. change in a metallic structure as it undergoes plastic deformation.

4-3 On the diagram below, which intersection describes the triple point of the material? r

A. (P2, T3)
B. (P2, T2)
C. (Px, Tx)

D. (P1, T1)
E. None of the above

4-4 The process of returning ductility to a cold-worked low carbon steel is called:

A. precipitation.
B. recrystallization.
C. allotropic change.

D. austenitization.

4-5 Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is called:
A. twinning.
B. plastic deformation.

C. work hardening.

D. recrystallization.

E. age hardening.

4-6 When used as in-process treatment, recrystalization can:

A. improve ductility.
B. refine grains,
C. increase hardness.

D. result in both A and B above.

E. result in all of the above.

4-7 Processes called austeniting, annealing, normalizing, and spherodizing are:

A. performed only on non-ferrous metals
B. approximate equilibrium heat-treatment processes.
C cold-working processes.

D. age hardening

4-8 The terms “precipitation hardening” and solution heat treatment” are often used interchangeably with the term:
A. age hardening.
B. recrystallization.

C. annealing.
D. work hardening. E. plasticizing

4-9 An NDT method that has the ability to measure changes in electrical conductivity caused by the effects of heat treatment is:
A. magnetic particle testing.
B. acoustic emission testing.

C eddy current testing.
D. immersion ultrasonic testing.

E. all of the above.

4.10 Spheroidizing and normalizing have the effect of

A. increasing ductility.

B. age hardening.
C. reducing the grain size.

D. causing a phase change.

4-11 When a steel has quench-hardened and is reheated to some point below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose of reducing brittleness, this is called:
A austenitization.
B. thermal slip deformation.

C. allotropic change.

D. tempering.

4-12 Annealing is usually performed to:

A. decrease hardness.
B. increase ductility.
C. relieve stresses.

D. both A and B above,

E. all of the above.

4-13 Attacks on metals by direct chemical action and/or electrolysis are called:

A. rust.
B. corrosion.
C. austenitic transformations.

D galvanization.

4-14 Metal corrosion that is accelerated when the metal is under loads is called:

A. pitting corrosion.
B. galvanic corrosion.
C. electrochemical corrosion.

D. stress corrosion.

4.15 Which of the following may be performed to help prevent corrosion?

A. Stress relieving
B. Anodizing
C. Dipping in molten-metal

D. Electroplating

E. All of the above

4.16 Factors of safety are often In the range of 2 to 4; they:
A. provide allowances for unexpected loads or conditions.
B. present problems in designing effective aircraft.
C. could be reduced with the assurance of NOT techniques that the material was free of discontinuities.

D. relate to all of the above.

CHAPTER 5 • FERROUS METALS

5-1 The reduction of iron ore by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for combustion of the coke is accomplished in:
A. a blast furnace.
B. an open-hearth furnace.

C. a Bessemer converter.

D. a basic oxygen furnace.

5-2 In the iron and steel-making process, the term "pig iron" refers to:
A. the waste material that contains high concentrations of impurities and slag and is either discarded or used as a by-product.
B. a high carbon, low ductility metal that Is produced in the blast furnace which can be used to make subsequent types of iron and steel.
C. the molten metal from the blast furnace that is not usable and is poured off into a series of crude castings called "pigs".
D. both A and C above.
E. none of the above.

5-3 Which of the following techniques is often used to speed-up the steel-making process? A. Adding large amounts of carbon to the molten metal.
B. Reducing the amount of scrap steel that is often added to the molten metal.
C. Adding oxygen to the molten metal.

D. Converting the old open-hearth furnaces into electric furnaces.

5-4 Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in: A. an electric furnace.
B. an open-hearth furnace.
C. a Bessemer furnace.

D. a basic oxygen furnace.

5-5 What percentage of carbon is found in steel? A. Between 3 and 4%
B. Between 2 and 3%
Less than 0.2%

Less than 2%

5-6 By which of the following processes is most of the world's steel produced? A. Bessemer converter
B. Electric furnace
C. Open-hearth

D. Crucible
E. Basic oxygen

5-7 An undesirable by-product of steel-making processes is: A. coke.
B. low carbon steel.
C. low alloy steel.

D. slag.

5-8 A steel with 40 points of carbon contains: A. 40% carbon.
B. 4% carbon.
C. 0.4% carbon.

D. 0.04% carbon.

5-9 Low carbon steel contains approximately: A. 0.6% to 2.5% carbon.
B. 0.06% to 0.25% carbon.
C. 0.5% to 1.6% carbon.

D. 5% to 16% carbon

5-10 Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and chromium are called: A. wrought iron.
B. low alloy steels.
C. stainless steels.

D. nonferrous steels.

5-11 Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic: this means that:
A. alternating current must be used when using magnetic particle testing method.
B. the steel is very dense and, relative to other steels, difficult to penetrate with x-rays.
C. ultrasonics is the logical NDT method to choose because of the coarse-grained nature of a paramagnetic material.
D. all of the above are true.
E none of the above is true.

5-12 Which of the following is an advantage of cast steel over wrought steels? A. Cast steels usually have higher mechanical properties than wrought steels. B. Cast steels have more isotropic properties than wrought steels.
C. Cast steels are more corrosion-resistant than wrought steels.

D. Cast steels cannot be heat-treated, and are thus less expensive to produce than wrought steels.

CHAPTER 6-NONFERROUS METALS AND PLASTICS

6-1 Which of the following nonferrous metals Is the most important structural material? A. Copper alloys
B. Nickel alloys
C. Zinc alloys

D. Aluminum alloys

6-2 Which of the following statements is true regarding the electrical conductivity of aluminum alloys? A. Most aluminum alloys are in the range of 70% to 96% IACS.
B. Clad aluminum takes on the conductivity of the base metal.
C. Each basic wrought aluminum alloy has a conductivity distinct from any other.

D. Both A and B are true.
E. None of the above is true.

6-3 The heat treatment of aluminum for the purpose of hardening and strengthening:
A. is not possible with aluminum alloys as they contain no carbon and cannot undergo allotropic changes. B. can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some carbon steels
C. requires the use of special furnaces and is rarely done as a practical application.
D. requires that iron and carbon be alloyed for the best results.

6-4 Which of the following metals has low strength, high corrosion resistance, and is used largely in die casting operations?
A. Aluminum
B. Magnesium

C. Zinc
D. Manganese

6-5 Which of the following metal alloys has a density approximately two-thirds that of aluminum A. Magnesium
B. Beryllium
C. Copper

D. Nickel

6-6 Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin, and a large percentage of: A. beryllium.
B. copper.
C. lead.

D. nickel.

6-7 Monel and Inconel are: A. nickel alloys.
B. steel alloys.
C. magnesium alloys.

D. aluminum alloys. E. copper alloys.

6-8 Which of the following metals can typically be used in the as-cast state? A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Steel

D. Iron
E. All of the above

6-9 A high strength, low density, corrosion resistant metal alloy of significance in the aircraft, marine,and chemical processing industries is:
A. tungsten.
B. zinc,

C. titanium.
D. magnesium.

6-10 Which of the following statements is true concerning plastics following their initial polymerization? A. Thermoplastics resoften when reheated.
B. Thermosetting plastics do not soften, but char and deteriorate when reheated.
C. All plastics are synthetic, containing no natural materials.

D. Both A and B are true. E. All of the above are true.

6-11 Based on the ratio of strength-to-weight:
A. no plastic materials can compare with metals.
B. some plastics, including nylon, may have strengths greater than some steels. C. plastics, as a group, are superior in strength to most ferrous metals.
D. none of the above are true.

CHAPTER 7 • THE NATURE OF MANUFACTURING

7-1 Design engineers are responsible for establishing the function, appearance, quality, and cost of a
product. Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which of the following is true?
A. As a group, designers, by their training and education, are adequately Informed about NDT to establish NDT procedures and acceptance criteria.
B. When NDT appears necessary in a design, the designer should properly select the methods and techniques to be used by reference to NDT handbooks.
C. Designers should depend solely upon NDT personnel to establish acceptance criteria.
D. None of the above is true.

7-2 Manufacturing is a term that refers to processing that starts with raw material in a bulk form, and is concerned mainly with processing the raw material in a manner that changes:
A. its shape.
B. its chemical form.

C. its mechanical properties. D. its physical properties.
E. all of the above.

7-3 Manufacturing processes change raw material by: A. increasing the material’s volume.
B. decreasing the material’s volume.
C. solid deformation with no volume change.

D. both A and B. E. All of the above.

THE CASTING PROCESS

8-1 Which of the following is true regarding solidification of molten metal in a casting mold?
A. The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing fine equiaxed grains throughout.
B. Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different types of grains.
C. Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning at the interior of the casting and progressing outward.
D. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than thin sections because thin sections consist of mostly fine equiaxed grains

8-2 In a casting, shrinkage occurs:
A. only after the transformation from liquid to solid.
B. only after the transformation from solid to liquid.
C. before during and after the transformation from liquid to solid. D. only when the metal is in the liquid state.

8-3 Large voids of porosity in a casting result from: A. turbulent flow of the molten metal during pouring B. alloy element segregation.
C. molten metal boiling because of superheat.

D. gas evolution before and during solidification.

8-4 During the solidification of a casting, the shrinkage that occurs:
A. may cause porosity and shrinkage cavities primarily in the outer surfaces where the metal cools first. B. requires that the pattern used be slightly smaller than the desired dimension of the finished casting. C. may cause cavities that are enlarged by the evolution of gases.
D. may result from all the above.

8-5 The design of the casting is important because the quality of the finished product can be adversely affected by: A. a lack of molten metal to compensate for contraction
B. location of the gate with reference to either progressive solidification or directional solidification
C. the location of “hot spots” in areas of the casting that are isolated by thin sections.

D. all of the above. E. none of the above.

8-6 The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting that occurs when molten metal interfaces with already solidified with failure to fuse at the interface is:
A. hot tear
B. cold shut

C. lack of fusion. D. segregation.

8-7 The part of the casting where the gate or riser was attached:
A. should be the area used to establish reference standards for future NDT examinations because this area will contain the best quality cast material.
B. provides the best quality material because of rapid cooling in this area.
C. should be the area that “ freezes” first, thus preventing excessive shrinkage cavities.
D. may provide a concentration point for discontinuities.

8-8 Risers, feeders. or feed heads in castings serve lo provide sources of molten metal to compensate for:
A. misruns.
B. cold shuts.

C. hot tears.
D. dendritic grain growth, E. shrinkage.

8-9 Green sand casting molds include: A. sand, clay, and water.
B. sand, wax, and solvent.
C. sand, refractory metals, and water. D. sand, carbon, and green clay.

8-10 Mold material in the form of inserts that exclude metal flow and thus form internal surfaces or passages in a casting are called:
A. chills.
B. chaplets.

C. cores. D. patterns.

8-11 Small metal supports used to support and position cores become part of a casting by fusing with the molten metal. Such devices are called:
A. core hangers.
B. chills. r

C chaplets. D. risers. E. patterns.

8-12 Which of the following may cause a discontinuity even though its intended purpose is to prevent shrinkage cavities by absorbing heat from the molten metal in the center of the casting?
A. Riser
B. Core

C. Internal chill D. Chaplet

8-13 Which of the following NDT methods is commonly used to inspect castings for core shift, nonfused chaplets and to determine that all core materials have been removed?
A. Ultrasonics
B. Magnetic Particle

C. Radiography D. Eddy Current E. All of the above

8-14 Casting molds made by covering a heated metal pattern with sand that is mixed with particles of thermosetting plastic are called:
A. green sand molds.
B. shell molds.

C. plaster molds.
D. die casting molds. E. permanent molds.

8-15 Permanent molds are most frequently made of: A. ceramics.
B. fused sand and plastic,
C. metal.

D. plaster.

8-16 Another term for precision casting and the lost wax process is: A. investment casting.
B. die casting.
C. metal mold casting.

D. shell mold casting.

8-17 A casting process used to produce hollow products like large pipes and hollow shafts is: A. investment casting.
B. blow casting.
C. core casting.

D. centrifugal casting

8-18 A casting process used to produce elongated shapes by drawing solidified metal from a water cooled mold backed by molten metal is:
A. centrifugal casting.
B. continuous casting.

C. draw casting. D. extrusion.

CHAPTER 9 – THE WELDING PROCESS
9-1 An assembly that has been created by joining two or more parts by one or more welds is called a: A. joint.
B. bonded structure.
C. weld.
D. weldment.

9-2 A general definition of welding describes the joining of two surfaces: A. with a filler metal that has a higher melting point than the base metal. B. with a filler material that is different from the base material.
C. In a permanent union established by atom-to-atom bonds.

D. where both heat and pressure are necessary for permanent bonding.

9-3 Of the following, which is not a requirement for fusion bonding? A. Melting
B. Atomic closeness
C. Atomic cleanliness

Pressure

9-4 Metallurgical effects in a weld, such as grain size variation and shrinkage, are similar to those that occur in:
A. forgings.
B. castings.

C. extrusions.
D. hot-rolled plates.

9-5 Pressure welding can be accented with pressure alone, but what else .s usually added, A. Heat
B. Filler material
C. Oxides

D. Adhesives

9-6 Proper brazing depends upon numerous factors being controlled. Of the following, which is not appropriate?
A Proper joint fit-up and joint preparation
B Adequate heat to melt the braze filler metal

C. Selection of proper braze filler metal.
D. Complete melting of the step metal and diffusion of the braze filler metal into the base metal E. All of the above are important

9-7 Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all:
A. have the same strength characteristics.
B. utilize a process where only the filler metal is actually melted.
C. are fusion-type weldments
D. utilize liquid penetrant inspection to reveal porosity within the joint.

9-8 Due to high temperatures and rapid rate of cooling the filler material used to fusion welds. A. is coated with an oxide to help reduce weld defects.
B. contains alloys that will help compensate for properties lost during the welding process.
C. is alloyed with nickel, copper, and carbon to eliminate cracking.

D. should be as close as possible to the same alloy content as the base material.

9-9 The uneven shrinkage and brittle structures that occur due to the rapid cooling of a weld can often be reduced by:
A. preheating the weldment prior to welding.
B. using a filler metal with a higher carbon content than the base metal.

C clamping the weldment in a rigid fixture.
D. over designing the size of the weldment to prevent shrinkage.

9-10 After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more uniform properties between the weld and base metal and to relieve stress. Which heat treatment method .s often used following welding?
A. Tempering

B. Martensitic aging C. Normalizing
D. Spheroidizing.

9-11 Weldments subject to restraint during welding can develop high residual stresses. Unrestrained weldments can develop:
A. geometric distortion.
B. high residual stresses. - r

C. cracking after the weld has cooled. D. all of the above.

9-12 Welds and weldments have been known to develop cracks long after cooling but prior to being used in service. .
What is the principal cause for such cracks?
A. Accelerated corrosion at high temperature

B. Scattered porosity in the weld
C. Improper selection of base material D. Excessive residual stresses

CHAPTER 10 - WELDING PROCESSES AND DESIGN

10-1 In arc welding, the electric arc Is usually sustained between an electrode and the: A. welding machine.
B. coating on the electrode.
C. work piece.

D. shielding gas.

10-2 Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in the vicinity of the weld?
A. Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide
B. Neon, tritium, and helium

C. Sulphur dioxide, argon, and oxygen D. Argon, nitrogen, and hydrogen

10-3 When molten metal is transferred from the electrode to the weld zone, It can be shielded from the atmosphere by:
A. the burning of coatings on the welding electrode.
B. maintaining the arc beneath flux powders.

C. the flow of a shielding gas around the arc. D. all of the above.

10-4 The burn-off rate and amount of spattering during the arc welding process can often be controlled by: A. proper post-heating of the entire weldment.
B. frequent changing of the tungsten electrode.
C. maintaining the longest arc length possible to reduce the heat in the weld zone.

D. selecting the proper electrode polarity.

10.5 Which of the following welding processes uses a non-consumable electrode with the arc maintained in an atmosphere of Inert gas?
Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
B. Submerged Arc Welding

C. Gas Metal Arc Welding D. Electroslag Welding

10-6 Shielding in the submerged arc welding process is provided by: A. gases.
B. granular flux that completely surrounds the arc.
C. a flux-coated welding rod.

D. chopped glass fibers.

10-7 Which welding process is depicted above? A. Electron-beam welding
B. Ultrasonic welding
C. Plasma arc welding

D. Resistance spot welding E. Friction welding

10-8 A welding process that is most frequently carried out in a vacuum chamber is: A. plasma arc welding.
B. electron-beam welding.
C. electroslag welding.

D. friction welding.
E. none of the above.

10-9 The welding process capable of very high intensity and rate of heat transfer is: A. braze welding.
B. plasma arc welding.
C. diffusion welding.

D. soldering.

10-10 The welding process in which the arc is extinguished after melting a slag cover and in which the base metal and copper slides form a sort of moving mold is called:
A. electroslag welding.
B. submerged arc welding.

C. electron-beam welding. D. slag-mold welding.

10-11 In the process of diffusion welding, often called diffusion bonding, the base metal is joined by: A. melting the weld joint area with strip heaters,
B. using high temperature adhesives.
C. putting it under pressure, at temperatures below the melting point.

D. the heat of frictional movement between the surfaces to be joined. E. detonating explosives covering the materials to be joined.

10-12 What type of weld joint is depicted below? A. Butt joint
B. Tee joint
C. Lap joint

D. Corner joint E. Edge Joint

10-13 What type of weld joint preparation is shown below? A. J-groove
B. Double J-groove
C. U-groove

D. Cup groove
E. Buttress groove

10-14 Which of the following is an incorrect welding symbol with respect to the weld joint shown?

ABCD

10-15 A slag inclusion can result in the following?
A. Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from the electrode in the gas tungsten arc process. B insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a multi-pass weldment
C. Excessive undercut on intermediate passes in a multi-pass weldment
D. All of the above
E. Only B and C above

10-16 Undercut on a weld pass is usually caused by:
B. too slow a rate of travel, causing the base metal to become too hot
C. using an Electrode that is too large for the current capacity of the welding machine. D. all of the above.
E only B and C above.

10-17 Crater cracks may take the form of a single crack or star-shaped cracks and will usually be found: A by magnetic particle techniques since crater cracks are always subsurface.
B. anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted,
C. in the natural crater formed between the two plates in a typical fillet weld.

D. In the root area of a multiple pass weld where the weld metal failed to flow completely into the root opening.

10-18 The principal purpose of pre-heat treatment and post-heat treatment in welds is to: A. reduce the probability of formation of porosity in the weld,
B. neutralize residual stresses and geometric distortion.
C create grains in the weld that are the same as those in the base metal.

D. cause the weld ripple and reinforcement to blend into the base metal.

10-19 In welding, the most obvious defects are those associated with structural discontinuities In the weld itself.
Other conditions that can also be considered as defects are:
A. improper weld dimensions and profile.

B. base metal irregularities that have been enlarged by welding stresses and distortion.
C. structurally sound welds, but those with Inadequate properties caused by errors In filler metal selection. D. both A and C above,
E. all of the above.

10-20 If the vee groove weld shown below was made in multiple passes and not clamped or restrained, typical warping would take place in which direction?
A. Edges A and B would be lowered due to the expansion of the weld metal in the weld zone.
B. Edges A and B would be raised due to the contraction of the weld metal.

C. In a multipass weld, there would be little if any warpage.
D. Expansion and contraction would be equal in a vee groove weld as shown.

10-21 Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types? A. Shallow, deep, and intermittent
B. Longitudinal, transverse, and crater
C. Laminar, through, and oblique

D. Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent

10-22 Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important factor to consider in making quality weldments because:
A. some metals, such as aluminum, have a low conductivity which results in weld defects due to localized heat build up.

B. some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high conductivity which results in lack of fusion defects as the heat is quickly removed from the weld zone.
C. in some metals, such as aluminum, very high temperature gradients are produced, causing stresses during cooling.

D. all of the above, E. none of the above.

CHAPTER 11 • PLASTIC FLOW

11-1 Deformation of metals provides a number of advantages.
Which of the following is not an advantage?
A. Deformation processes increase the probability of defect formation.
B. High duplication accuracy results from most deformation processes.
C. In general, the properties of wrought metals are improved over their cast counterparts.
D. Thin sections can be more economically and more successfully produced than by casting.

11-2 Among other things, the advantageous effects of recrystallization depend upon: A. the rate of deformation.
B. the temperature at which deformation takes place.
C. the presence of carbon in excess of 2.5% for steels.

D. all of the above.
E. both A and B above.

11-3 Wrought products invariably exhibit:
A. high susceptibility to corrosion.
B. lower strength than their cast counterparts. C directional properties.- - -
D. poor weldabllity.
E. poor surface finishes unless machined.

11-4 During the steel-making process, a large number of faults such as slag, porosity, and shrinkage cavities exist In the top of the Ingot. These discontinuities are:
A. mostly eliminated in subsequent hot working due to the pressure which "welds" the void shut.
B. located with nondestructive testing techniques at later stages of production.

C. almost non-existent with modern steel-making processes. D. removed by cropping up to 1/3 off the top of the ingot.

11-5 Discontinuities with their origin in the original ingot can be reduced in severity by the closing and welding of voids and the breaking up and elongation of inclusions by which of the following processes? A. Cold working
B. Hot working

C. Heat treatment D. Welding

11-6 Which of the following would have the least ductility? A. Cold-rolled steel plate
B. Hot-rolled steel plate
C. Gray cast iron

D. Hot-rolled aluminum plate

11-7 A nondestructive testing technique best suited to locating discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into steel plate is:
A. radiographlc Inspection,
B. ultrasonic inspection.

C. visual inspection.
D. magnetic particle inspection.

11-8 Which of the following statements is true concerning deformation processes? A. Hot working usually follows cold working.
B. Hot working must be followed by heat treatment.
C. Hot worked materials must be cold worked before they can be used.

D. Cold working usually follows hot working.
E. Cold working renders brittle material more ductile.

11-9 Machinability and fatigue resistance are improved in most metals that have been: A. hot worked.
B. cold worked.
C. heat treated.

D. cast.

CHAPTER 12- MILLWORK, FORGING, AND POWDER METALLURGY

12-1 Nondestructive testing is often utilized just following hot and cold working operations to:
A. assure that further operations are not performed on material that contains defects that could reject the manufactured part.
B. determine that defects do not exist in the material that could damage the rolling mills and other equipment.
C. determine the ductility of the material after the rolling operation is complete.
D. accurately determine the compressive strength of the material after it passes through the rolling mill.

12-2 Slabs, blooms, and billets are:
A. the three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the production of products such as angle iron and channel iron.
B. the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations.
C. types of defects that occur during the hot rolling of steel.
D. the three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations.

12-12 A major purpose of pressing the metal powders during powder metallurgy processing Is to: A. squeeze out excess moisture.
B further refine the grain's! ~
C. compact the powders Into mechanical and atomic closeness.

D. provide all of the above.

12-13 loathe powder metallurgy process, sintering Is: A. in most cases, a fully solid-state process.
B. never a fully solid-state process.
C. principally done at room temperature.

D. always done at elevated temperature and high pressure.

12-14 Powdered metallurgy products cannot A. be hot worked after sintering.
B. be heat treated after sintering.
C. be machined after sintering.

D attain 100% of theoretical density.
E. be subjected to any of the processes mentioned above.

12-15 Which of the following is an application for powdered metal products? A. Cemented carbide cutting tools and dies
B. Tungsten rocket nozzles
C. Oil-impregnated bushings

D. Both B and C are applications E All of the above are applications

CHAPTER 13 • PRESSWORKING OF SHEET METAL

13-1 Which of the following terms describe operations that bend, stretch, and shape sheet metals into three-dimensional shapes without significant plastic flow and deformation?
A. Bending
B. Forming

C. Drawing
D. Only A and B above E. All of the above

13-2 In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often can be completed in a series of draws, each successively deeper. What process performed between draws might effectively reduce the number of draws required?
A. Recrystallization

B. Pickling
C. Etching
D. Hardening heat treatment E. Hot rolling

13-3 Spinning can be used to form: A. spherical tank halves.
B. cemented carbide cutting tools. C. crane hooks.

D. rectangular sheet metal tanks. E. solid spheres.

13-4 Most new developments in sheet metal forming typically use non-conventional energy sources. What is a common feature of these processes?
A. The use of lasers for controlled heat input.
B. The use of cryogenics to super-cool the metal prior to forming,

C. The use of energy sources that release large amounts of energy in a very short time. D. The use of large autoclaves that contain both the tooling and the metal being formed.

CHAPTER 14 • MACHINING FUNDAMENTALS

14-1 Machines designed to hold a cutting tool and a workpiece and establish a suitable set of motions between them to remove material from the workpiece are called:
A. mill-working machines.
B. factory machines.

C. machine tools.
D. metal-cutting machines.

14-2 in describing machinability, three different measurements are generally considered on a relative, If A . shear tensile and impact strength of the material being machined.
B surface finish of the material achievable, power consumption required to remove a given
C. Softness of the material, sharpness of the cutting tool, and type of machine used to remove

D. volume of material before machining, after machining, and time required to remove that volume.

14-3 When used with respect to machine tools, the acronym N/C means: A. non-metal cutters.
B. non-corrosive coolant.
C. numerical control.

D. non-conventional. E. negative clearance.

14-4 Which of the following can result in economical set-up and reduced machine time with an increase in repeatability and accuracy for a variety of machining operations?
A The use of nondestructive testing to evaluate the finished product
B. The use of electrical discharge machining to replace the conventional lathes and surface grinders.

C The use of modern ultrasonic machining operations.
D. The use of numerical control systems applied to conventional types of machining operations.

CHAPTER 15 • MISCELLANEOUS PROCESSES

15-1 Which of the following statements is true regarding plastics processing?
A. Unlike metals, plastics must be processed without the addition of heat.
B. Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics may be processed by molding, casting, and C All plastics molding processes use liquid-state materials introduced into the mold cavity.
D. Injection molding can be done only with thermosetting materials. -

15-2 Reinforced plastics molding involves use of:
A. thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement materials. B. thermosetting plastics and metallic powder reinforcement. C. thermoplastics and wood fiber reinforcement materials.
D. thermoplastics and metallic powder reinforcement.

15-3 The mechanism of adhesion combines mechanical interlocking and: A. stickiness of the adhesive.
B. roughness of the adherends.
C. dynamic mechanical forces.

D. interatomic forces. E. all of the above.

15-4 Which of the following statements is true concerning composite materials?
A. Composite materials include combinations of non-metallic materials only.
B. When composite materials are cured, the constituents lose their original identity and form chemical compounds with one another.
C. A unique feature of composite materials is that their tensile strength frequently exceeds the
D Composites are usually formed into complex three-dimensional shapes with each dimension approximately equal to the other two.
E. None of the above statements are true.

15-5 Which of the following statements is true concerning honeycomb?
A. Non-metallic honeycomb derives high strength and rigidity Irom a structural combination of relatively weak, thin, light-weight materials.
B. In honeycomb, the walls of the cellular core material are aligned parallel with the plane of the
face sheets.
C. All-metallic honeycomb can be bonded by adhesives, brazing, or diffusion welding, but honeycomb containing non-metallic elements can be bonded only by adhesives.
D. Both A and B are true.
E. Both A and C are true.

15-6 The major difference between materials classified as composites and those classified as mixtures is that:
A. mixtures are a type of composite with random orientation and shape of the constituents.
B. composites contain metallic constituents and mixtures are non-metallic.

C. mixtures start as liquids blended together and composites start as solids.
D. mixtures are elastomeric, while composites are characterized as having at least one plastic component.

15-7 The acronym EDM refers to: A. engineering design materials. B. energy discharge machines. C. electro-dynamic machining.

D. electrical discharge machining. E. elastomeric/diatomic mixture.

15-8 The above figure illustrates: A. chemical milling.
B. electrochemical machining.
C. ultrasonic machining.

D. vapor honing.
E. electrolytic grinding.

15-9 The process used for shaping metals by chemical dissolution only, with selective removal accomplished by masking areas where metal is not to be removed, is called:
A. electrical discharge machining.
B. chemical milling.

C. electrochemical machining. D. electroforming.
E. none of the above.

15-10 The process illustrate above is: A. electrical discharge machining.
B. ultrasonic machining
C. chemical milling.

D. electrochemical machining. E. abrasive drilling.

15-11 A process which is the reverse of electrochemical machining and which is the basis for electroplating is called:
A. chemical milling
B. electrical discharge machining

C. electroforming D. magnetoforming

15-12 A cutting operation that has the ability to cut through thicknesses of over 3 feet of steel and is commonly used to remove surface defects on castings and forgings by “scarfing” is called:
A. friction cutting.
B. oxyacetylene cutting.

C. ultrasonic cutting.
D. gas metal arc cutting. E. plasma arc cutting.

CHAPTER 16- SURFACE FINISHING

16-1 Which of the following statements is not true concerning surface finishing? A. Cleaning operations are considered to be surface finishing processes.
B. Surface finishing is not typically followed by further processes.
C. Surface finishing is not typically followed by further processes.

D. Surfaces finishing is sometimes performed to improve surface and near surface mechanical properties.

16-2 Carburizing and flame hardening are examples of: A. annealing processing.
B. Casehardening processes.
C. processes that produce ductile surfaces.

D. electrochemical processes.

16-3 Which of the following nondestructive tests would provide the best results in measuring the case depth on a case hardened part?
A. Ultrasonic immersion testing using a very low frequency probe.
B. Radiography.

C. Eddy current testing.
D. Magnetic particle testing
E. All of the above could provide case depth measurements.

16-4 Coatings are often applied to protect a material; their thickness can frequency be determined nondestructively by:
A. acoustic emission testing.
B. eddy current testing.

C. surface wave ultrasonic techniques.

D. optical holography

16-5 The best and most economical cleaners used for removal of oils and greases are:

A. pickling baths.
B. de-ionized water sprays.
C. wire brushes and cloth buffers.

D. petroleum solvents.

16-6 Some materials, such as aluminum, are corrosion resistant:

A. by virtue of the Immediate oxidation of newly exposed surfaces.

B. only if anodized.
C. because the material itself will not readily combine with oxygen.

D. against all types of corrosive atmospheres.

16-7 An advantage of electrostatic spraying is that:
A. the material being sprayed is directly attracted to all of the surfaces to be covered.

B there is less waste due to over-sprayed material.
C. there is more uniform coverage of the surfaces.
D. both A and C above.
E. all of the above.

16-8 A corrosion protection material commonly applied to steel by hot dipping and galvanizing is:

A. porcelain.
B. copper.
C. paint.

D. zinc
E. chromic acid.

16-9 Metals commonly applied to other metals by electroplating are:

A Nickel, chromium, and cadmium.
B. tin, zinc, and tungsten.
C. sliver, gold, and carbon.

D. copper, aluminum, and magnesium.

E. both A and D above.

16-10 A process that converts the base metal surface to an oxidized barrier layer of very small porous cells is called:
A. galvanizing.
B. plating.

C. anodizing. D. metalizing.

16-11 The anodized surface on aluminum:
A. can produce a high background during a penetrant test.
B. is very dense and makes x-ray penetration difficult
C can produce cracks that are easily detected by eddy current testing techniques. D. must be removed before performing ultrasonic tests.
E. can apply to all of the above.

CHAPTER 17 • INSPECTION
1M A technique for the inspection of manufactured products that utilizes the selection of a certain percentage of parts for inspection Is called:
A. standard deviation.
B. random sampling.
C. consumer risk curve.
D. natural selection.
E. analysis of variance.

17-2 Implied in sampling inspection is:
A that the chosen plan will produce precise numbers of acceptable parts. B. the need for a sample size of 100 units or multiples thereof.
C. a willingness to sometimes accept defective products.
D. the need to collect data in the form of variables instead of attributes.

17-3 On the operating characteristic curve shown above:
A the line P2 Indicates that In the given sample, four parts were found to be
B the line P1 indicates that if the lot being inspected had 1 % defectives, there Is a 6% probability that this plan would reject the lot
C the lot fraction defective cannot exceed 6%.
D. there is a 10% probability of accepting a 1% defective lot.

17-4 A process control chart based on the means and ranges of measurements taken on periodic samples requires the measurement to be taken of:
A. attributes.
B. variables.

C. either attributes or variables. D. neither attributes nor variables.

17-5 Frequently, dimensions are permitted to vary within specified limits. These variations are called: A. variances.
B. fudge factors.
C. absolute dimensions.

D. factors of safety, E. tolerances.

17-6 Measurements are classified as being either, A. comparative or absolute.
B. comparative or dimensional.
C. general or specific.

D. dimensional or angular.
E. microscopic or macroscopic.

17-7 A vernier measurement permits: .
A. accurate interpolation between major divisions on a measuring device. B measurements to be accurate within 0.001 inch.
C. extending the length of a measurement scale by ten times.
D. measurements to be traced to the National Bureau of Standards.

17-8 Indicating gages are usually used In applications that provide: A. .absolute measurements.
B. comparative measurement
C. lon9 linear measurements.

D reflected or projected Images of the workplace.

17-9 Which of the following measurement tools uses the principle of light wave interference to check surface flatness?
A. Optical comparator
B. Vernier caliper

C. Sine bar
D. Go-no go gage
E. None of the above

17-10 Gages such as plug gages, ring gages, go-no go gages, profile gages, thread gages, radius gages, etc., are all types of:
A. variable measurement tools.
B. absolute gages.

C. optical gages. D. fixed gages.

17-11 Devices that show magnified reflected or profile images of the work piece on a frosted glass screen are called:
A. optical comparators.
B. optical flats.

C. optical projectors. D. optical micrometers. E. optical gages.

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