Mer Scott
Test por , creado hace más de 1 año

(Oncology) PHCY320 Test sobre ON15,16,17 Supportive care, creado por Mer Scott el 08/10/2019.

3
0
0
Mer Scott
Creado por Mer Scott hace alrededor de 5 años
Cerrar

ON15,16,17 Supportive care

Pregunta 1 de 47

1

Mucositis​ = Painful inflammation and of the mucous membranes lining the digestive tract (especially )​. % of all CT patients will experience mucositis. It can lead to infections, disorders, severe pain, compromised airway, tissue necrosis, and significant ​.
Usually begins to manifest 5-7 days after CT (typically )​.
Risk factors include:​
- High-dose CT with alkylating agents (eg ) or topoisomerase II inhibitors​ (eg )
- Pre-existing oral lesions/infections, poor dental /dentures​
- ethnicity
- malnutrition​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    ulceration
    mouth and throat
    40-75
    nutritional
    bleeding
    2-3 weeks
    cyclophosphamide
    doxorubicin
    hygiene
    White
    Smoking, alcohol consumption,

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 47

1

Mucositis prevention​:
Remove risk factors (e.g. therapy)​
Drink adequate
Cryotherapy ( before bolus CT; not oxaliplatin)​
mouth rinse

Treatment​
Routine mouth care​
Analgesia (topical , topical morphine, oral morphine if )​

Saliva substitutes ​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    dental
    water
    ice chips swishing for 30 min
    Saline and bicarbonate
    lidocaine
    severe
    Magic mouth wash ​

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 47

1

Diarrhoea:
Caused by direct toxicity to the cells leading to inflammation with release .
Most common with EGFR inhibitors.
Tx:
orally, then until diarrhoea free​
– for patients not responding to loperamide ​
NOTE Anti-diarrhoeals should be used in patients with suspected ​ and do not forget importance of

Constipation​:
Affects 50-70% of patients on chemotherapy​
Can lead to anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, bowel
Risk medications: (ondansetron)​
Treatment: Stool softener, stimulants, fleet enema, manual or surgical evacuation, hydration ​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    epithelial
    prostaglandin
    5-FU, capecitabine, irinotecan,
    Loperamide 4mg
    2mg every 2 hours
    Octreotide
    not
    C. Diff
    diet and hydration​
    obstruction and perforation ​
    Vinca alkaloids, opioids, antiemetics

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 47

1

Hypersensitivity reactions​ can cause acute , pruritic , fever, nausea/vomiting, rigors, flushing, cardia, tension, angioedema. These are severe in < of patients.
Causes:
Taxanes - exposure, onset, premedicate with
(first dose requires test dose, IM less frequent)​
Monocolonal antibodies (pre-medicate with )​ - If severe, stop or interrupt infusion and give fluids and ​.

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    dyspnoea
    rash
    brady
    hypo
    5%
    2nd/3rd
    fast
    H1 and H2 antagonists and steroids
    L-asparaginase
    paracetamol, antihistamines and steroids
    adrenaline

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 47

1

Photosensitivity ​is a dermotological toxicity causes by some medicines. Wear sunscreen, cover up, avoid sunbeds​. Which medicines can cause this?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5-FU, MTX, Vinblastine​

  • 5-FU, MTX, Vincristine​

  • Capecitabine, MTX, Prednisolone

  • Capecitabine, MTX, Paclitaxel

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 47

1

Alopecia​
- occurs 1-2 post-chemotherapy ​
- reversible (1-2 after cessation of therapy)​
- cause total body alopecia (axillary and pubic hair, eyebrows and eye lashes)​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    weeks
    months
    taxanes

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 47

1

Hand-Foot Syndrome (palmer-plantar/acral erythema)​:
- Tender erythematous skin on palms of hands and sometimes soles of feet​
- Causes: liposomal , high dose cytarabine ​
Treatment: drug cessation and symptomatic treatment ( emollient, analgesia, compress, topical

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    5-FU, capecitabine,
    doxorubicin
    10% urea
    cold
    corticosteroids

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 47

1

Extravasation​
With an irritant drug: -term injury. No necrosis. May induce inflammatory reaction. Blood remains intact​.
With a vesicant drug: Hardening, burning, can lead to tissue ​. DNA binding or DNA non-binding​. DNA may affect underlying ligaments, nerves, and bone​.

(vesicant) cause the most severe extravasation​.

Treatment​:
Stop , Leave access, Aspirate, Plan​
Anthracyclines: compresses​
Vinca alkaloids: compresses​
Antidotes: Dexrazoxane or topical solution for anthracycline extravasation; for vinka alkaloids​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Short
    local
    return
    necrosis
    binding
    Anthracyclines
    infusion
    venous
    cold
    warm
    dimethyl sulfoxide
    hyaluronidase

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 47

1

Tumour Lysis syndrome​: lysis of large numbers of cancer cells​.

Metabolic abnormalities: hyperuricaemia, hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, secondary hypocalcaemia and uraemia​ (increased , decreased )

Symptoms: nausea and , diarrhoea, anorexia, lethargy, oedema, fluid overload, heart failure, haematuria, cardiac , seizures, muscle cramps, tetany, syncope.​

More common on the cycle of treatment. ​

Risk factors: high tumour cell proliferation , bulky disease (greater than cm), chemosensitive malignancies*, high intensity or highly therapy, novel or targeted therapy.​

*Malignancies associated with a higher risk: lymphoma, Burkitt's lymphoma, lymphoblastic leukaemia and acute myeloid , and occasionally those with solid tumours. ​

Additional risk factors: insufficiency or renal failure, dehydration, decreased flow, pre-existing uraemia or hyperuricaemia, pre-existing hyperphosphataemia.​

Prophylaxis in intermediate or high risk​: Vigorous hydration​, , ​ (n those who do not adequately&nbsp;respond to hydration and allopurinol)

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    uric acid, potassium, phosphate
    calcium
    vomiting
    congestive
    dysrrhythmia
    first
    rate
    10
    potent
    Non-Hodgkin's
    acute
    leukaemia
    renal
    urinary
    IV
    rasburicase
    allopurinol

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 47

1

Ocular toxicity​
- with -HiDAC​
- excessive tearing, pain, photophobia, presence of foreign body, ​
- prevention: tears, corticosteroids​
Treatment: cytarabine and administer topical corticosteroids​


Otological toxicity ​
- w/
- Damage to
- side effect ​
- When detected, replace with if appropriate​
- auditory function​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Cytarabine
    artificial
    topical
    Stop
    Cisplatin
    inner ear​
    Cumulative and irreversible
    carboplatin
    Monitor

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 47

1

Nephrotoxicity​
- w/
- Dose
- Risk with doses, exposure, pre-existing damage, use of other nephrotoxic agents​
- % incidence​
- Manifests as increases in , decreased output, kalemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia ​
- Prevention: doses, sub with , aggressive , magnesium, ?mannitol​
- Monitor: balance, weight, assess for signs/symptoms of fluid overload​
- Treatment: cisplatin, replenish electrolytes – revising ARF in 310​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Cisplatin
    limiting
    higher
    previous
    kidney
    25-40
    serum creatinine
    urine
    hypo
    lower
    carboplatin
    hydration
    fluid
    Stop

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 47

1

Which of these is NOT a risk factor for chemo induced nausea and vomiting?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Female​

  • <50

  • Having morning sickness in pregnancy​

  • Ever having motion sickness​

  • Non-drinker or light drinker

  • Previous chemo

  • >50

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 47

1

Types of Nausea/Vomiting​
Acute (up to 24h after CT; peak hours)​
Delayed (starts after CT to days)​
Anticipatory (begins as next becomes closer)​
Breakthrough (happens despite )​
Refractory (prevention/treatment does work)​

If not managed appropriately:​
Serious imbalance, de, anorexia​
Deterioration in physical and mental status, withdrawal​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    5-6
    >24h
    7
    dose/cycle
    treatment/prevention
    not
    metabolic
    treatment
    hydration

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 47

1

Classiciation of treatment emetogenic risk: ​
Minimal (<10%)​
Low (10-30%) []​
Moderate (30-90%) []​
High (>90%) []​

Optimal emetic control in the phase (the first 24 hours) is essential to nausea and vomiting in the phase (24 to 72 hours post chemotherapy).​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    5-FU, capecitabine
    taxanes, doxorubicin
    cisplatin
    acute
    prevent
    delayed

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 47

1

Drug: Aprepitant ​
Class: receptor
Indicated for prevention of N/V in emetogenic chemotherapy. inhibitor. Always used in .

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Neurokinin
    antagonist
    high and moderate
    CYP3A4
    combination

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 47

1

Prophylaxis and Treatment​:
- High emetogenic potential​: use + (q12h) +
- Moderate emetogenic potential​: + Dexamethasone
- Low emetogenic potential​: dose or
- Minimal emetogenic potential​: None but can use as needed (dexamethasone or ​ metoclopramide or prochlorperazine)​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Ondansetron (q8h)
    Aprepitant
    Ondansetron (q12h)
    Dexamethasone
    (q12h) ​
    Ondansetron stat
    metoclopramide before​

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 47

1

Anaemia​ is a lack of red blood cells/haemoglobin.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 47

1

Which of these is NOT a cause of anaemia?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Blood loss

  • Missing vitamins or minerals, eg iron

  • Major organ problems

  • Chronic kidney disease

  • Red blood cells destroyed faster than they can be made (haemolytic)

  • Cancer and cancer treatment

  • Chronic liver disease

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 47

1

Anaemia in cancer can be caused by a number of different mechanisms:​

The cancer​:
- Cancer with the marrow’s function and interferes with normal red blood cell production (e.g. leukaemia)​
- Cancers of the gastrointestinal system (colon and stomach cancers) or fast growing tumours may cause frequent
- Triggered immune response with the release of various that interfere with bone marrow function and red cell survival​
- Cancer cells release cytokines that can lead to iron , reducing the production of red blood cells (RBCs)​

The treatment​
- Chemotherapy agents target rapidly dividing cells​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    competes
    bleeding
    cytokines
    shorten
    sequestration

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 47

1

Which of these is NOT a cancer-specific risk factor for anaemia?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Platinum-based chemotherapy​

  • Pre-existing low haemoglobin level before cancer diagnosis ​

  • Cancers that involve the marrow space (leukaemia or lymphoma)​

  • Risk of tumour bleeding​

  • Certain types of tumors (e.g. ovary)​

  • Alkylating agent chemotherapy

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 47

1

Select ALL the signs of anaemia.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Chest pain​

  • Pale skin, nail beds, mouth, gums​

  • Swelling in hands/feet​

  • Fatigue​

  • Tachycardia

  • Shortness of breath​

  • Dizziness​

  • Groin pain

  • Bradycardia

  • Swelling of nodes

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 47

1

Terminologies:
Ferritin – amount of iron in body (iron storage that keeps iron in a soluble and non-toxic form)​

Transferrin or total iron capacity - a measure of the amount of iron the blood can carry​

Haemoglobin – oxygen carrying structures ​

Haematocrit – volume % of cells in blood​

Mean Corpuscular Volume/Mean Cell Volume (MCV) – ‘’ of red blood cells ​

Reticulocyte count - measure the level of reticulocytes in your blood​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    stored
    protein
    binding
    maximum
    red blood
    size

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 47

1

The MCV is used to categorise anaemia.
Microcytic anaemia – MCV <
Normocytic anaemia – MCV
Macrocytic anaemia – MCV >

(Some references define macrocytic anaemia as > 100 fL.)​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    80 fL​
    80 – 95 fL
    95 – 100 fL​

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 47

1

High MCV – Macrocytic Anaemia​ / Megaloblastic anaemia​.
- Vitamin (dietary or pernicious anaemia) or deficiency​
- Both are required for synthesis and so deficiency results in symptoms occurring in rapidly dividing tissues ()​
- Usually deficiency from sources (vegetarians, poor nutrition)​
- Treatment: supplementation (oral or injections if poor absorption):
injection of vitamin B12 (hydroxocobalamin) – 1mg times weekly x 2 weeks, then 1mg every 3
Oral folic acid – for 4 months (may then use as prophylaxis)​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    B12
    Folate
    DNA
    bone marrow, GI
    dietary
    IM
    three
    months
    5mg daily

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 47

1

Normal MCV – Normocytic anaemia​:
High reticulocyte count suggests blood loss – acute blood loss, haemolysis​. Low reticulocyte count suggests body is unable to RBCs at a healthy rate​.
Low WBCs and platelets –
Normal or high WBCs/platelets – conditions (progress to microcytic as disease progresses),
- Treatment:​ Transfusion, -stimulating agents ​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    ongoing
    produce
    leukemia, aplastic anaemia​
    chronic
    malignancy
    erythropoiesis

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 47

1

Blood transfusions​:
- Raises quickly to improve symptoms and ensure adequate oxygen delivery ​
- Most commonly administered if haemoglobin is <
- Need to match blood type​​
- Risks:​
Transfusion related injury​
Very low risk of viral contamination (Hep B, C, HIV)​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    haemoglobin
    80 g/L
    lung

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 47

1

Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents:
1. Epoetin alfa (recombinant erythropoietin)​
- Stimulate erythropoiesis by binding to , stimulating differentiation and proliferation​
- Stimulate release of from bone marrow​
- Increase synthesis of cellular – need adequate iron stores​
- Contraindicated: uncontrolled , unable to receive thromboprophylaxis​
- Adverse effects: hypertension, GI , headache, influenza symptoms, very rarely cause

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    human
    erythroid precursor cell receptors
    reticulocytes
    haemoglobin
    hypertension
    intolerance
    red cell aplasia, skin reactions ​

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 47

1

Low MCV - Microcytic Anaemia​:
Cell size is decreased due to reduced ; either less haem (i.e. iron) or an imbalance in synthesis (in genetic disorders which alter globin production)​

The main causes:​
- Low ferritin​ = deficiency (blood loss, dietary deficiency, occasionally malabsorption)
- Normal or high ferritin​ =
TIBC low: Anaemia of disease (also associated with normocytic anaemia)​
OR TIBC normal or high: (e.g. thalassaemia), lead intoxication, sideroblastic anaemias (rare or acquired disorders)​

- In a primary care setting in New Zealand, will be the most likely causes of microcytic anaemia.​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    haemoglobin
    globin chain
    Iron
    chronic
    Haemoglobinopathies
    genetic
    iron deficiency and chronic disease

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 47

1

In cancer patients, iron deficiency is usually due to nutritional deficiencies - poor oral intake, chemotherapy-induced nausea/vomiting.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 47

1

Which of these is NOT an iron rich food?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Meat and fish ​

  • Sweet potatoes​

  • Dark green, leafy vegetables​

  • Yogurt

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 47

1

What dose of elemental iron should deficient patients receive daily?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 100-200mg

  • 50-100mg

  • 200-400mg

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 47

1

Patient education points for iron salts:​
More effective if taken on stomach​
Can take with food if causes stomach upset​
May discolor stools ()​
Do not take with
May need to space from certain medications​
Vitamin C (orange juice) may increase iron absorption (myth?)​
common​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    empty
    dark/black
    antacids or calcium​
    Constipation

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 47

1

Aplastic anaemia​:
- Non- condition where the bone marrow fails to produce enough blood cells​
- Exposes patients to (RBC), (WBC), (platelets)
- Can occur at any time but usually associated with damage​
- From:
Chemotherapy, antibiotics,
Exposure to certain chemicals such as benzene​
Radiation exposure​
Viruses​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    malignant
    anaemia
    infections
    bleeding
    bone marrow
    propylthiouracil, phenytoin, quinine​

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 47

1

Which of these is not an appropriate treatment for aplastic anaemia?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Blood transfusions

  • Stem cell transplant​

  • Immunosuppressants (cyclosporine, anti-thymocyte globulin)​

  • Bone marrow stimulants​ eg Epoetin alfa

  • Iron salts

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 47

1

Cancer pain epidemiology:
- Up to % of patients with advanced cancer in NZ​ have pain
- Patients managed by ​ oncologists (during active treatment)​, services, , and GPs (advanced cancer)​
- Commonly the troublesome symptom of cancer that negatively influences quality of life​
- Major impact by loss of productivity and caregiver burdens​
- One of the most conditions to treat ​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    70-80
    palliative
    hospices
    most
    economic
    difficult

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 47

1

Types of cancer pain:
- Acute vs. chronic pain​

- Nerve pain – on nerves or spinal cord (i.e. neuropathic)​
- Bone pain – to bone tissue (e.g. metastases)​
- Soft tissue or visceral pain – (e.g. back pain due to kidney)​
Phantom pain – pain in a body part/area that has been removed​
Referred pain – pain from an organ in the body in a

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    pressure
    damage
    body organ or muscle
    different place ​

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 47

1

Which of thesensigns/symptoms could you observe in a sedated patient unable to communicate, that would NOT indicate pain?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Diaphoresis​ (sweating)

  • Grimacing on movement

  • Tachycardia​

  • Pupil dilation

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 47

1

WHO Cancer Pain Ladder​:
Step 1 = ​ +/- adjuvant
Step 2 = Opioid for +/- non-opioid +/- adjuvant​
Step 3 = Opioid for +/- non-opioid +/- adjuvant​

​ - mild, mod
- mod, strong

Adjuvants:​
medications​

Topical medications​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    Non-opioid
    mild-mod pain​​
    severe pain​
    Codeine​, Dihydrocodeine
    Morphine​, Fentanyl​
    Anxiety
    Antidepressants

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 47

1

Treating neuropathic pain:
- Antidepressants, anticonvulsants​
- Start at doses and increase as necessary to usual or maximum recommended doses ​
- Requires at least trial at an adequate target
- Requires continual reassessment and monitoring​
- Patient should be educated about , as may be concerned about stigma with antidepressants or anticonvulsants​
- If pain not controlled, may be trialed​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    low
    2 week
    dose
    indication
    opioids

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 47

1

People with cancer in the bone have abnormally high levels of , causing fractures, bone pain​, osteoporosis​, and hypercalcaemia.

(zoledronate or pamidronate) reduce of osteoclasts – strengthen bone, reduce pain, treat hypercalcaemia​.

Side effects include symptoms, which usually subside within hours of the infusion (treat with paracetamol).

Nephrotoxicity risk: adequate can enhance renal protection., may be contraindicated in failure.

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    osteoclasts
    Bisphosphonates
    activity
    48
    headaches, nausea, and flu-like
    hydration
    renal

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 47

1

Severe pain may require rapid escalation of parenteral opioid therapy until pain is partially relieved.
Moderate pain: total daily dose (TTD) increased % OR add the amount taken the previous day​
Reducing by 25-50% in patients who have pain control but experiencing is also an option.

Patients with cancer pain will likely need medication long-term or indefinitely​. Long-acting products are more convenient​; switch after at least of short-acting opioid so pain is well controlled​. First dose of the modified-release preparation is given the last dose of the immediate-release preparation, to allow time to be effective​.

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    25-50
    as needed
    adverse effects
    48 hours
    with, or within 4 hours of

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 47

1

To switch from regular acting to long acting:​
1. Add up of morphine equivalents​
2. Decrease by
3. Split into required of long-acting doses​

Example: TTD = 130mg morphine x = 97.5mg
/ 2 doses = 50mg every 12 hours long-acting product ​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    total daily dose
    25% ​
    number
    0.75

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 47

1

Fentanyl patches:
- Less compared to morphine. It is favourable in the presence of impairment ​
- Starting doses of first option for moderate to severe pain
- Usually dosed every hours but can be increased to every 48 hours​
- Start low and go slow (increase dose every 48-72 hours)​
- Patient should be on regular morphine prior to patch initiation​
When initiating, put on at time you give last dose of regular morphine​
Example: Patient receiving 60mg morphing SR – give last dose of 60mg at same time you put first patch on

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    constipation
    renal
    12.5-25 mcg/h
    72
    same

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 47

1

Oxycodone:
- Bi-phasic modified-release tablets for administration​
- Release % of drug within 1 hour for most patients and the remaining % of drug by controlled-release​
- The immediate-release and modified-release formulations have ! care.
- Usually reserved for patients in whom is not effective at optimal doses, not tolerated, or if morphine is contra-indicated​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    12-hourly
    40
    60
    similar sounding names
    morphine

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 47

1

Methadone
- Well tolerated in renal impairment. May be effective when there is pain because of its receptor activity.​
- Long and widely variable
- Less associated
- Oral dosing is usually initially with dose increases (due to its long half-life and risk of accumulation)​

Drowsiness and depression may develop after several days/weeks on a steady dose.​

Has place in palliative care but must be prescribed by experienced practitioner.​

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    severe
    neuropathic
    NMDA
    half-life
    drowsiness, nausea, and constipation.
    2.5-5 mg twice daily
    weekly
    respiratory

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 47

1

Breakthrough dosing​:
- of total daily dose (TTD)
- can be given an activity that causes break-through pain such as a wound dressing
- subcut or IV if swallowing is an issue

Arrastra y suelta para completar el texto.

    10-15%
    30 minutes before
    predictable

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 47

1

Oral oxycodone is approximately 1.5–2 times more potent than oral morphine​.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación