Emily Doyle
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Pathophysiology: The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition

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Emily Doyle
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function

Pregunta 1 de 40

1

The health care professional is caring for a person who has a pathologic fracture. The patient asks the professional to explain the condition. What response by the professional is best?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The outer surface of the bone is disrupted, but the inside is intact

  • A stable fracture where the cortex of the bone bends but doesn’t break

  • A fracture that happens at the site of an abnormality already in that bone.

  • It was caused by the cumulative effects of stress on the bone over time.

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 40

1

A health care professional is providing education to a group of seasonal athletes. What type of fracture does the professional warn them to avoid?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Stress

  • Greenstick

  • Insufficiency

  • Pathologic

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 40

1

A patient has a temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact with each other. What treatment does the health care professional prepare the patient for?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Internal fixation

  • Reduction and immobilization

  • Calcium phosphate cement

  • Low-density ultrasound

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 40

1

Improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured femur can result in which outcome after cast removal?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The muscles around the fracture site are weak.

  • The fracture requires 6 to 8 weeks of physical therapy.

  • The skin under the cast is dry and flaky.

  • The bone is not straight.

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 40

1

Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Tendon

  • Ligament

  • Bursa

  • Mesentery

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 40

1

What is the tear in a ligament referred to as?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fracture

  • Strain

  • Disunion

  • Sprain

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 40

1

A patient seen in the clinic has tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon. What diagnosis does the health care professional document?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Lateral epicondylopathy

  • Medial epicondylopathy

  • Bursitis

  • Lateral tendinitis

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 40

1

A patient in the Emergency Department has either a tendon or ligament injury. What pain description from the patient would the health care professional associate with these injuries?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Dull and diffuse, persisting over the distribution of the tendon or ligament

  • . Sharp and localized, persisting over the distribution of the tendon or ligament

  • Pins-and-needle sensations that occur distal to the injury with movement

  • Intermittent and aching, occurring over the distribution of the tendon or ligament

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 40

1

A student asks for an explanation of rhabdomyolysis. What response by the professor is best?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Paralysis of skeletal muscles, resulting from an impaired nerve supply

  • Smooth muscle degeneration, resulting from ischemia

  • Lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade

  • Release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 40

1

Which pathophysiologic alteration precedes crush syndrome after prolonged muscle compression?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Muscle ischemia

  • Myoglobinuria

  • Volkmann contracture

  • Neural injury

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 40

1

By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of bone has been lost?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 30%

  • 40%

  • 50%

  • 60%

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 40

1

A patient has a bone density T score of -2.8. What diagnosis does the health care professional educate the patient on?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Osteoplasia

  • Osteoporosis

  • Osteopenia

  • Osteomalacia

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 40

1

Which type of osteoporosis would a person develop after having the left leg in a cast for 8 weeks to treat fracture of the tibia and fibula?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Iatrogenic

  • Regional

  • Idiopathic

  • Osteoblastic

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 40

1

In osteoporosis, the receptor activator of nuclear factor κB (RANK) activates what?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Osteoclast apoptosis

  • Osteoblast survival

  • Osteoprotegerin

  • Osteoclast survival

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 40

1

A health care professional who works with older women understands that which changes are believed to play a significant role in the development of age-related bone loss?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Increased oxidative stress and increased intracellular reactive oxygen species

  • Hypoparathyroidism

  • Increased body weight

  • Decreased formation and short life span of osteoclasts

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 40

1

Which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Parathyroid hormone

  • Glucocorticoid

  • Growth hormone

  • Estrogen

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 40

1

A patient is brought to the Emergency Department after being found by neighbors. The patient says she has been lying on the floor in the house for 3 days. What action by the health care professional is best?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Order a serum creatine kinase (CK) level

  • Obtain an x-ray of the patient’s hips

  • Arrange for the patient to have a DXA scan

  • Perform the Fracture Risk Assessment

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 40

1

The health care professional teaches a group of seniors that the most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis is which of these?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Bone deformity

  • Bone pain

  • Pathologic fracture

  • Muscle strain

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 40

1

A patient has been diagnosed with Paget disease. What explanation of the disease does the health care professional provide the patient?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • “It is a severe infection in your bones.”

  • “It is a problem with bone resorption and formation.”

  • “It is a condition in which your bones become soft.”

  • “It’s a disorder of altered energy production in muscle.”

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 40

1

A health care professional determines that the student needs more education when the student makes which statement about treating bone infection?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Bone contains multiple microscopic channels that are impermeable to the cells and biochemicals of the body’s natural defenses.

  • Microcirculation of bone is highly vulnerable to damage and destruction by bacterial toxins, leading to ischemic necrosis of bone.

  • Bone cells have a limited capacity to replace bone destroyed by infections.

  • Bacteria are walled off by macrophages and T lymphocytes; consequently, the antibiotics cannot penetrate the infected area.

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 40

1

Bone death as a result of osteomyelitis is due to what?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Formation of immune complexes at the site of infection

  • Localized ischemia

  • Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) and interleukin 1 (IL-1)

  • Impaired nerve innervation at the site of infection

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 40

1

A student studying osteomyelitis and asks for an explanation of the term “sequestrum.” What response by the professor is best?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • An area of devascularized and devitalized bone

  • An enzyme that phagocytizes necrotic bone

  • A subperiosteal abscess

  • A layer of new bone surrounding the infected bone

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 40

1

A patient in the clinic had a femur x-ray that was read as having a “moth-eaten” appearance. What treatment option does the health care professional discuss with the patient?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Limb-salvaging surgery

  • Amputation

  • Oral bisphosphonates

  • Calcium and vitamin D supplements

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 40

1

Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of osteosarcoma?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Slow-growing tumor that begins in the bone marrow and infiltrates the trabeculae

  • Solitary tumor that most often affects the metaphyseal region of the femur or tibia

  • Aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones

  • Tumor that infiltrates the trabeculae in spongy bone and implants in surrounding
    tissue by seeding

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 40

1

A professor has taught the class about giant cell bone tumors. Which statement by a student would require the professor to review the material?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Giant cell tumors are an overexpression of genes including osteoprotegerin ligand (OPGL).

  • The tumors are malignant, solitary, and irregularly shaped.

  • Giant cell tumors are typically located in the epiphysis in the femur, tibia, radius, and humerus.

  • They are slow-growing tumors that extend over the articular cartilage.

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 40

1

Which patient finding would lead the health care professional to assess the patient for inflammatory joint disease?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Unilateral joint involvement

  • Normal joint synovial fluid

  • Absence of synovial membrane inflammation

  • Systemic symptoms of inflammation

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 40

1

What is a primary defect in osteoarthritis?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Stromelysin and acid metalloproteinase breakdown articular cartilage.

  • Immunoglobulin G (IgG) destroys the synovial membrane

  • Synovial membranes become inflamed.

  • Cartilage-coated osteophytes create bone spurs.

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 40

1

A patient reports joint stiffness with movement and joint pain in weightbearing joints that is usually relieved by rest. What treatment option does the health care professional discuss with the patient?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Ways to decrease serum uric acid

  • Administration of oral methotrexate

  • Exercise and weight reduction

  • Rapid intravenous hydration

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 40

1

A patient has ankylosing spondylitis. Which description of this condition by the health care professional is most accurate?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Chronic inflammatory disease with stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints

  • Chronic systemic inflammatory disease that affects many tissues and organs

  • State of abnormal and excessive bone resorption and formation

  • Wide-spread and deep chronic muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 40

1

What is the primary pathologic alteration resulting from ankylosing spondylitis (AS)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Inflammation of the bursa

  • Inflammation of the long bones

  • Inflammation of fibrocartilaginous joints of the vertebrae

  • Inflammation of the small hand and feet bones

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 40

1

A person in the health care clinic has gout. In order to prevent a common complication, what self-care measure does the health care professional teach the person about?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Drinking plenty of water

  • Splinting affected joints

  • Eating more protein

  • Avoiding hot weather

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 40

1

What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Reduced excretion of purines

  • Overproduction of uric acid

  • Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels

  • Overproduction of proteoglycans

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 40

1

The pathophysiologic presentation of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which chemical?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Purine

  • Pyrimidine

  • Vitamin E

  • Amino acid

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 40

1

A patient in the clinic is worried about having fibromyalgia. For which symptoms should the health care professional assess the patient for?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally

  • Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles

  • Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps

  • Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 40

1

A health care professional is teaching a group of college women about increasing calcium in the diet to prevent osteoporosis. A participant asks at what age is peak bone mass is reached in women. What response is best?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 15 years

  • 20 years

  • 30 years

  • 35 years

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 40

1

What event is associated with the beginning of bone loss in women?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Puberty

  • Sexual activity

  • Childbirth

  • Menopause

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 40

1

A patient in the clinic has calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout. How does the professional document this finding?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Stones

  • Spurs

  • Tophi

  • Nodes

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 40

1

What are the primary sources of bacterial infections that lead to hematogenous bone infection? (Select all that apply.)

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Sinus

  • Ear

  • Dental

  • Cutaneous

  • Throat

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 40

1

Which structures are most often affected by Paget disease? (Select all that apply.)

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Vertebrae

  • Skull

  • Sternum

  • Metacarpals

  • Pelvis

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 40

1

Which clinical manifestations are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.)

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Subcutaneous tissue crystals

  • Anorexia

  • Painful, stiffening of joints

  • Edema of the wrists

  • Fever

Explicación