Shawn Tredinnick
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study resource for ADV PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS 20S-NURS-G820-W03 2nd test

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Shawn Tredinnick
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advanced Pharm study guide for test 2

Pregunta 1 de 81

1

What is the significance of bradykinin in the RAAS system

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • it is a peptide needed for the release of aldosterone by the adrenal gland

  • It is a peptide that causes blood vessels to constrict, raising blood pressure

  • it causes contraction of non-vascular smooth muscle

  • it is broken down by angiotensin converting enzyme causing vasodilation and mild dieresis

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 81

1

the patient complains of a dry cough, what medication would be the most likely to have this finding?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Captopril

  • Losartan

  • Amilodipine

  • Naproxen

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 81

1

angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) work on what part of the RAAS system?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • blocks Renin from stimulating the release of Angiotensinogen

  • blocks Angiotensinogen conversion to Angiotensin I

  • Blocks Angiotensin I conversion to Angiotensin II

  • blocks Angiotensin II conversion to aldosterone

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 81

1

what class of medications will reduce the adverse affects of Diabetes on the kidneys as well as decrease inappropriate remodeling of the heart

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • thiazide diuretics

  • angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

  • Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)

  • angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 81

1

What statement is true regarding ACE inhibitors?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • they are potassium wasting and must be monitored for hypokalema

  • they have little negative effect on lipids or sexual function

  • African-Americans & low-renin hypertensives are extremely sensitive to monotherapy

  • they increase the effectiveness of NSAIDs

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 81

1

What is considered the most serious ADR with ACE inhibitors?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Angioedema <1%

  • <1% neutropenia & agranulocytosis

  • Hyperkalemia

  • Proteinuria & glomerulonephritis

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 81

1

Ace inhibitors and ARBs would be the drug of choice for which patient?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 37yo Caucasian male with Hx of MI, and kidney failure

  • 57yo Asian Female currently taking spironolactone

  • 49yo caucasian female with Hx of DM, HF and MIx3

  • 46yo African American male with Hx of DM, HTN and kidney stones

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 81

1

which of the following statements is True about ACE inhibitors and ARBs used for the treatment of hypertension .

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ACEIs affect the myocardial oxygen demand but not the myocardial oxygen supply

  • ACEIs affect the myocardial oxygen supply but not the myocardial oxygen demand

  • ACEIs affect both the myocardial oxygen supply and the myocardial oxygen demand

  • ACEIs and ARBs are contraindicated in treating heart failure related to CAD

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 81

1

where are the primary sites of metabolism and excretion for ACEI's?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • all ACEIs are prodrugs and do not need to be metabolized, excretion is from the kidneys.

  • ACEI's are metabolized in the avieoli of the lungs, excretion is primarily by GI tract with the capsule being whole but hollow

  • all ACEI's are prodrugs and converted to active metabolites in the liver, The kidney is the primary organ of excretion

  • ACI's are prodrugs and converted to active metabolites in the liver, excretion is primarily by GI tract with the capsule being whole but hollow

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 81

1

What are the contraindications for the use of ACEI's?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Hypertensive Proteinuric Diabetes

  • Bilateral renal artery stenosis

  • Postmyocardial Infarction

  • Pregnancy

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 81

1

what is the first goal of Hypertension management?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Controlling isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)

  • Prevent the rise of BP with age

  • reduction in Cardio vascular risk

  • Improve control of HTN to below 140/90 mm Hg in adults and below 150/90 in those greater than age 60

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 81

1

what statement is true with reguard to Dihydropyridines

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • greater affinity for vascular ca+ channels than cardiac Ca+2 channels

  • greater affinity for cardiac Ca+2 channels than vascular ca+ channels

  • Blocks L-type calcium channels producing vasoconstriction

  • Has an intrinsic natriuretic effect requiring the use of a diuretic

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 81

1

select all of the adverse drug reactions for Nondihydropyridines

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Reflex tachycardia

  • Anorexia

  • Constipation

  • Bradycardia

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 81

1

Most CCBs have short-acting forms with half-lives between 2 and 8 hours and sustained-release forms with half-lives of 12 to 24 hours what is the exception to this?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Digoxin, with a half life of 36-48 hours

  • Cardizem, with a half life of 3-4 hours

  • Amlodipine, with a half-life of 30 to 50 hours

  • isradipine with a half life of 1.5-2 hours

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 81

1

what is the main effect of digoxin

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • opens the ATPase pump allowing free flow of Na+ and Ca+

  • inhibits the ATPase pump preventing Na+ from leaving the cell

  • Blocks L-type calcium channels producing vasodilation

  • inhibits the ATPase pump preventing Ca+ from leaving the cell

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 81

1

how is dosing for digoxin determined?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The principal tissue reservoir is skeletal muscle, Dosing should be based on lean muscle mass

  • The principal tissue reservoir is adipose tissue, Dosing should be based on BMI%

  • The principal tissue reservoir is the CNS and dosing should be based on CSF results

  • there is not a principal tissue reservoir, dosage is determined by weight in Kg.

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 81

1

select the contraindications for the use of digoxen.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Renal Impairment

  • AV blocks or uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmias

  • Atrial Fibrillation

  • idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS)

  • Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 81

1

what finding would make you suspect CG Toxicity?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • serum levels of 4.5 ng/mL.

  • the patient presents with severe anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

  • ST-T wave changes on the a 12-lead ECG

  • pt presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and serum levels of 2.3 ng/mL.

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 81

1

Arrhythmias are caused either by abnormal pacemaker activity or by abnormal impulse conduction, which is NOT an example of The major mechanisms by which antiarrhythmics act?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • blockade of Central Nervous System (CNS) effects on the heart

  • prolongation of the effective refractory period

  • sodium channel blockade

  • blockade of the calcium channel

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 81

1

sodium channel blockers are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 81

1

Beta Blockers are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 81

1

Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB) are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 81

1

How are Antiarrhythmics metabolized.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • antiarrhythmics are already in their metabolized form after absorption and are deactivated by the liver.

  • All antiarrhythmics are metabolized and excreated from the GI tract

  • all antiarrhythmics are prodrugs and do not need to be metabolized

  • All antiarrhythmics are metabolized By the liver

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 81

1

this drug class was introduced for the treatment of angina in the 19th century

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ACEs

  • CCBs

  • nitrates

  • ARBs

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 81

1

what statement is true with reguard to Nitrates?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • by providing more nitric oxide (NO) to vascular endothelium and arterial smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation.

  • cause targeted relaxation of large veins resulting in decreased pre-load

  • Arterial dilation is more common with lower doses and can result in a decrease in systemic arterial pressure

  • Arterial dilation is more common with higher doses and can result in an increase in systemic arterial pressure

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 81

1

in which of the following cases would you NOT give nitrates.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 33yo female c/o migraine with HR111 bp 200/120

  • 75yo male c/o chest pain that has not improved, HR 63 bp 110/65

  • 45yo male car vs tree, c/o dizziness, chest pain and nausea. had MI 2 years ago. HR110 BP185/96

  • 35yo female with weakness to one side of her body, difficulty speaking and pain in the jaw that radiates to her back

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 81

1

which statement about Peripheral Vasodilators is FALSE?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Significant clinical improvement of PVD can rarely be seen with monotherapy

  • Peripheral alpha1 antagonists and central alpha2 agonists can be used to treat resistant HTN and PVD.

  • monotherapy is recommended to show Significant clinical improvement of PVD without associated ADRs

  • act by direct relaxation and dilation of arteriolar smooth muscle, thereby decreasing PVR

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 81

1

when prescribing reductase inhibitors, what lab tests should also be performed?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • CBC

  • AST/ALT

  • BUN/creatinine

  • Lipid Panel

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 81

1

what is the clinical indication for the use of Antilipidemics?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • increased LDL, decreased HDL, high VLDL

  • High VLDL, increased HDL, Decreased LDL

  • increased HDL, increased LDL, low VLDL

  • decreased LDL, increased HDL, low VLDL

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 81

1

The liver is the primary site of metabolism for most diuretics, which diuretic has nonhepatic and hepatic metabolism

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Furosemide (Lasix)

  • spironolactone (Aldactone)

  • Amiloride

  • hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 81

1

if a patient is taking an aminoglycoside medication what Adverse drug reaction would you actively assess for?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a white crystalline precipitate to form in the superficial portion of the cornea.

  • localized ocular toxicity

  • itching/swelling of the face/tongue/throat

  • Increased Ocular Pressure in narrow-angle glaucoma

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 81

1

if planning on using a combination of steroids and anti-infectives for ophthalmic Anti-Infective treatment in primary care what must be used to perform the assessment?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Keratometry

  • retinoscope

  • opthalmoscope

  • Tonometry device

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 81

1

which of the following Ophthalmic Anti-Infectives has a high hypersensitivity rate?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • azithromycin

  • erythromycin

  • polymyxin B

  • gentamicin

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 81

1

what is important to remember when using Sulfacetamide

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • it is incompatible with silver-containing preparations

  • must have tonometry available

  • it has a high hypersensitivity rate

  • may cause localized ocular toxicity

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 81

1

Children 3 months through 8 years are most likely to have what type of Bacterial conjunctivitis
select all that apply

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • staphylococcal

  • strepto­coccal

  • Haemophilus

  • Staphylococcus aureus

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 81

1

what is the treatment for Conjunctivitis-otitis syndrome

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • high-dose amoxicillin

  • parenteral antibiotics (ceftriaxone)

  • ophthalmic/otitc antibiotics

  • erythromycin ointment

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 81

1

What symptoms would make you suspect herpes keratitis? if herpes keratitis is suspected what should be done next?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • intense redness of the eye, Watery/mucus discharge from the eye, fever blister on or near the eye; examination with woodslamp

  • Swelling of the lymph nodes in front of the ears, fever, slight Pinkness of the eye; referral to ophthalmologist

  • burning, gritty sensation to the eye, lesion close to or on the eye, fever; referral to ophthalmologist

  • Crustiness around the eyelids upon waking in the morning, cough, fever; ocular assessment with ophthalmoscope

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 81

1

while removing a cerumen impaction you notice that while irrigating, your patient suddenly develops nystagmus and states that they are suddenly dizzy. what is the likely cause of this?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • irrigation was being performed too forcefully

  • the irrigation solution was not warmed

  • irrigation solution has bypassed the ear drum and is interfering with the middle ear

  • the patient is having a seizure

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 81

1

which statement is FALSE with reguard to Corticosteroids

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • have metabolic, anti-inflammatory, and growth-suppressing effects

  • high levels of cortisol can cause decreased memory recall, anxiety and disturbed sleep patterns

  • Glucocorticoids decrease blood glucose concentration by stimulating glycogenesis in the liver

  • Corticosteroids can raise your risk of infections due to the wide range of effects on the immune system

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 81

1

What determines systolic Blood pressure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • mean arterial pressure

  • Total peripheral resistance

  • end-diastolic volume (EDV) - end-systolic volume (ESV)

  • HR times stroke volume

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 81

1

What determines diastolic blood pressure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Total peripheral resistance

  • Cardiac output

  • mean arterial pressure divided by ejection fraction

  • end-diastolic volume (EDV) - end-systolic volume (ESV)

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 81

1

select what factors will have a direct effect on systemic arterial pressure. select all that apply.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • total peripheral resistance

  • heart rate

  • Stroke volume

  • mean arterial pressure

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 81

1

an increase in BP will send inhibitory impulses to the sympathetic vasomotor center in the brainstem resulting in what?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • excitation of efferent nerves in the SNS results in decreased heart rate,

  • Inhibition of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle results in increased heart rate

  • Inhibition of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle results in vasodilation of peripheral arterioles

  • excitation of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 81

1

changes in BP is sensed by ____ located in _____

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • baroreceptors; aorta

  • Mechanoreceptors; carotid arteries

  • Nociceptors; arch of the aorta

  • Mechanoreceptors; kidneys

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 81

1

what are the ultimate goals of Angina therapy

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • to treat anginal chest pain and return to normal activities

  • reduce the risks of stroke

  • reduce the risks of MI

  • smooth muscle and cardiac relaxation

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 81

1

what statements are true about organic nitrates. select all that apply

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Reduces preload

  • Increases afterload

  • Inhibit platelet aggregation

  • leads to the mediation of smooth muscle relaxation

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 81

1

what makes Ranolazine unique for the treatment of angina?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Have a negative chronotropic and inotropic effect and ↓ afterload, Decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, Increases myocardial perfusion

  • decreases peripheral vascular resistance and thereby MOD, as the heart has decreased afterload

  • cause arterial smooth muscle relaxation, which results in peripheral vasodilation, decreased afterload,

  • Has antianginal and anti-ischemic effects that do not depend on reduction in heart rate or blood pressure

Explicación

Pregunta 48 de 81

1

what medication reduces platelet aggregation by inhibiting the synthesis of thromboxane A2

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Aspirin

  • Nitroglycerin

  • Nifedipide (Procardia)

  • Diltiazem (Cardizem)

Explicación

Pregunta 49 de 81

1

select what would be classified as class I according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

Explicación

Pregunta 50 de 81

1

select what would be classified as class II according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

Explicación

Pregunta 51 de 81

1

select what would be classified as class III according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

Explicación

Pregunta 52 de 81

1

select what would be classified as class IV according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

Explicación

Pregunta 53 de 81

1

What is considered to be the foundation of initial drug therapy for patients with angina ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ACEI and beta-adrenergic blockers

  • ACEI and CCB

  • BB and CCB

  • Nitrates and BB

Explicación

Pregunta 54 de 81

1

when diagnosing heart failure why might a chest x-ray be ordered?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • it can be used to identify and distinguish between systolic dysfunction and preserved systolic function.

  • can show Cephalization of the vascular supply

  • can show left-ventricular hypertrophy and axis deviation

  • used to rule out pulmonary embolism

Explicación

Pregunta 55 de 81

1

select the types of heart failure. select all that apply

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • low-output failure

  • high-output failure

  • Systolic dysfunction

  • Diastolic dysfunction

Explicación

Pregunta 56 de 81

1

What is the most common BB used in heart failure?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Atenolol

  • Losartan

  • carvedilol

  • clonidine

Explicación

Pregunta 57 de 81

1

how does Digoxin work?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Digoxin decreases contractility by decreasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin increases heart rate by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin increases contractility by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin decreases heart rate by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

Explicación

Pregunta 58 de 81

1

Patients with left-ventricular dysfunction with current or prior symptoms of HF are classified as what stage according to ACC and AHA guidelines.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Stage A

  • Stage B

  • Stage C

  • stage D

Explicación

Pregunta 59 de 81

1

Which of the following is NOT one of the diagnostic criteria for DM?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • A1C ≥6.5%

  • FPG ≥126 mg/dL

  • plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL

  • classic symptoms of hyperglycemia and a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL

Explicación

Pregunta 60 de 81

1

What is true about DM type 1?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Typically diagnosed early in life

  • the bodies compensatory insulin production mechanisms reduce the onset of clinical symptoms for many years

  • 90% to 95% of cases are diagnosed before the age of 30.

  • If the disease progresses without treatment hypoglycemia, coma and death can occur.

Explicación

Pregunta 61 de 81

1

What are the treatment targets for Glycemic control in DM? select all that apply

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 hour postprandial plasma glucose less than 180 mg/dL

  • Hemoglobin A1c less than 5%

  • Random urine albumin/Cr less than 30mcg/mg
    creatinine

  • Preprandial plasma glucose 70 to 130 mg/dL

Explicación

Pregunta 62 de 81

1

What is the treatment target for blood pressure when treating DM?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • less than 130/80, 140/80 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 120/60, 130/80 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 140/80, 145/85 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 130/80, 150/90 for patients with DM, hypertension

Explicación

Pregunta 63 de 81

1

what are the treatment targets for lipid control when treating DM?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • HDL >100mg/dl, LDL <50mg/dl, triglicerides less than 150mg/dl

  • HDL >150mg/dl, LDL <100mg/dl, triglicerides less than 50mg/dl

  • HDL >50mg/dl, LDL <100mg/dl, triglicerides less than 150mg/dl

  • HDL >100mg/dl, LDL <150mg/dl, triglicerides less than 50mg/dl

Explicación

Pregunta 64 de 81

1

what factors effect the treatment plan and drug selection process when treating DM? Select all that apply

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • individual patient variables (race, weight, pregnant etc.)

  • current AHA guidelines

  • Desiered gylcemic target

  • type of diabetes

  • severity of the hyper/hypo glycemia

Explicación

Pregunta 65 de 81

1

For the treatment of type 2 DM what is the first-line therapy for most patients?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Insulin

  • Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

  • Metformin

  • Glipizide

Explicación

Pregunta 66 de 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 5-30min, peak 0.5-3h and duration of 3-4h describes what type of insulin?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explicación

Pregunta 67 de 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 30-60min, peak 2-4h and duration of 3-7h describes what type of insulin?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explicación

Pregunta 68 de 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 1-2h, peak 4-10h and duration of 10-16h describes what type of insulin?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explicación

Pregunta 69 de 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 1-2h, no peak, and duration of 20-24h describes what type of insulin?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explicación

Pregunta 70 de 81

1

Generally, what percentage of daily insulin is given as an intermediate or long-acting form of insulin?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 0-25%

  • 25-50%

  • 50-75%

  • 75-100%

Explicación

Pregunta 71 de 81

1

a 1 Unit bolus of insulin will typically lower glucose by approximately

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10-20mg/dl

  • 60-90mg/dl

  • 20-60mg/dl

  • 10-40mg/dl

Explicación

Pregunta 72 de 81

1

Each 15 gm Carbohydrate serving raises BG by approximately

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 15mg/dl

  • 25mg/dl

  • 50mg/dl

  • 70mg/dl

Explicación

Pregunta 73 de 81

1

what percentage of beta cells must be lost before hyperglycemia occurs?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 50-60%

  • 60-70%

  • 70-80%

  • 80-90%

  • 90-100%

Explicación

Pregunta 74 de 81

1

what statement is true about Insulin

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • alcohol use, increases hyperglycemia

  • Beta blockers mask hypoglycemic symptoms

  • Short-acting Insulin onset of action is 1 to 1.5 hours, and its duration is 12 to 24 hours

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI) duration of action is 4 to 6 hours

Explicación

Pregunta 75 de 81

1

what is the preferred injection site that absorbs 50% more than other sites

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Inhalation method

  • Abdominal site

  • upper outer area of the arm

  • front and outer sides of the thighs

Explicación

Pregunta 76 de 81

1

what insulin's are pregnancy category C? select all that apply

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Aspart

  • Humulin R

  • glargine

  • glulisine

Explicación

Pregunta 77 de 81

1

What is important to consider if your patient has Hyperthyroidism and is taking insulin?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • delays insulin breakdown, and may require less insulin units

  • they have improved insulin sensitivity, will require less insulin

  • increases renal clearance, requiring more insulin than baseline

  • insulin can potentiate effects of antidiuretic hormone

Explicación

Pregunta 78 de 81

1

what is the indication for the use of Sulfonylureas when treating DM?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Excessive production of glucose by the liver

  • rapid intestinal glucose dumping

  • Insufficient production of endogenous insulin

  • Decreased tissue insensitivity to insulin

Explicación

Pregunta 79 de 81

1

what patient would you NOT prescribe Metformin (Glucophage) for the treatment of type 2 DM?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 20yo female who had ambulatory surgery 3 days ago

  • 11yo male with HTN

  • 9yo female HTN and HF

  • 18yo male who is currently taking a sulfonylurea

Explicación

Pregunta 80 de 81

1

your patient who is taking metformin and an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor to treat their DM presents with unsteady gait, generalized confusion and elevated anxiety CBG is 50mg/dl. what would you give to correct this?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a piece of hard candy held between the cheek

  • 15gm CHO

  • sugar packets

  • Lactose

Explicación

Pregunta 81 de 81

1

what DM medication should not be used with ACEIs due to the increased risk of angioedemia

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Thiazolidinediones

  • Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

  • Biguanides

  • Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4

Explicación