Eleanor garvey
Test por , creado hace más de 1 año

Test V: 3, 7, 27, 43, 55, 61, 73, 91, 96, 100, 101, 105, 109, 112, 114, 115, 120, 121, 123, 126, 128, 130, 135, 147, 150

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Eleanor garvey
Creado por Eleanor garvey hace más de 4 años
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Psychopharmacology Test 5

Pregunta 1 de 25

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Test 5 Question 3. While working in the emergency room you evaluate a patient with confusion, myoclonus, diarrhea, hypotension, tachycardia, and a normal creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level. The patient is not speaking. His family tells you that he was recently started on a new medication by his psychiatrist for treatment of bipolar disorder. They don’t know the name of the medication or what kind of medication it was. Using your astute clinical skills and significant psychiatric knowledge you narrow the diagnosis down to either neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) or serotonin syndrome. But alas, you must pick one diagnosis for the medical record. Which one will it be and why?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • NMS because the patient is confused

  • NMS because rigidity is more commonly part of serotonin syndrome

  • Serotonin syndrome because it commonly presents with hypotension

  • NMS because it usually presents with normal CPK

  • Serotonin syndrome because it more commonly presents with myoclonus and gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 25

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Test 5 Question 7. Which one of the following is not an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 (CYP) 1A2?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Amiodarone

  • Tobacco

  • Cimetidine

  • Fluvoxamine

  • Grapefruit juice

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 25

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Test 5 Question 27. A patient in treatment for bipolar disorder reports severe mid-upper abdominal pain radiating to the back, nausea, anorexia, fever, and evidence of acute abdominal pain. Pain is worse after eating and upon lying down. She is taking citalopram
and valproic acid. Which of the following tests would be most useful in making a diagnosis?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Complete blood count

  • Basic metabolic panel

  • Liver function tests

  • Amylase

  • Prolactin level

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 25

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Test 5 Question 43. Which one of the following is not a substrate for CYP 2D6?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Aripiprazole

  • Bupropion

  • Codeine

  • Duloxetine

  • Haloperidol

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 25

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Test 5 Question 55. Caution should be exercised when prescribing which one of the following to a patient on carbamazepine because the combination will increase carbamazepine levels?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Cyclosporine

  • Doxycycline

  • Erythromycin

  • Phenobarbital

  • Theophylline

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 25

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Test 5 Question 61. Why does mirtazapine decrease nausea?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5-HT 2 antagonism

  • 5-HT 3 antagonism

  • 5-HT 2 agonism

  • α2 Antagonism

  • α2 Agonism

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 25

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Test 5 Question 73. Mirtazapine works via action on which of the following receptors?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Dopamine type 2 (D2)

  • α2

  • Glutamate

  • α1

  • γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 25

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Test 5 Question 91. Which of the following classes of psychotropic medications has the best documented treatment effects for agitation in the demented patient?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Antipsychotics

  • Mood stabilizers

  • Benzodiazepines

  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants

  • Tricyclic antidepressants

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 25

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Test 5 Question 96. Which one of the following properties of atypical antipsychotics is hypothesized to be responsible for these medications being less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Decreased binding to D2 receptors

  • Rapid dissociation from D2 receptors

  • Affinity for muscarinic cholinergic receptors

  • Binding to multiple dopamine receptors other than D2 receptors

  • Higher affinity for D1 receptors

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 25

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Test 5 Question 100. When triiodothyronine is added to a tricyclic antidepressant for augmentation, the clinician needs to be cautious if:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The patient is a woman over 50years of age

  • The patient has subclinical hypothyroidism

  • The patient has a history of hypertension

  • The patient has a history of cognitive deficits with depression

  • The patient relapsed while on a previously effective tricyclic antidepressant

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 25

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Test 5 Question 101. One of your patients has been taking zolpidem for sleep recently and started having sleep-walking episodes on the medication. She finds these episodes to be disturbing. She asks you about taking eszopiclone instead. Which of the following possible responses to her question is most accurate?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Eszopiclone is a bad choice because she will develop tolerance over time

  • Eszopiclone can also cause sleep walking

  • Eszopiclone works as a melatonin receptor agonist

  • Eszopiclone is used to treat both sleep and depression

  • Unlike with zolpidem, hallucinations do not occur with eszopiclone

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 25

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Test 5 Question 105. Which of the following is true about administering different mood stabilizers together?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Valproic acid will increase lamotrigine levels

  • Lamotrigine will increase valproic acid levels

  • Valproic acid will decrease lamotrigine levels

  • Valproic acid will decrease carbamazepine levels

  • Carbamazepine will increase lithium levels

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 25

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Test 5 Question 109. Which of the following statements about benzodiazepines is correct?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Clonazepam has a rapid rate of absorption

  • Alprazolam has a half-life of 2.5hours

  • Diazepam has a half-life of 200 hours

  • Lorazepam is considered a short-acting benzodiazepine

  • Clonazepam is considered a short-acting benzodiazepine

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 25

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Test 5 Question 112. The following choices are potential side effects of lithium except:

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Hair loss

  • Tremor

  • Confusion

  • Neural tube defects

  • Seizures

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 25

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Test 5 Question 114. Which of the following terms refers to spastic contractions of discrete muscle groups such as the neck, tongue, eyes, or back?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Akathisia

  • Tardive dyskinesia

  • Acute dystonia

  • Blepharospasm

  • Tardive dystonia

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 25

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Test 5 Question 115. Which one of the following is not an inducer of CYP 3A4?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Carbamazepine

  • Oxcarbazepine

  • Phenytoin

  • Fluoxetine

  • Rifampin

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 25

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Test 5 Question 120. A 67-year-old male carries a diagnosis of bipolar disorder and is being treated with carbamazepine. His family brings him to the ER because he has become confused and disoriented over the past 2 days. He is afebrile and has no neurological deficits. Although you could reasonably order any of the following tests to evaluate his condition, which of the following is most important that you check given the patient’s history?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Head CT

  • Chest X-ray

  • Urinalysis

  • Basic metabolic panel

  • TSH

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 25

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Test 5 Question 121. Which of the following medications would be the best choice for a patient with psychosis and impaired hepatic function?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Olanzapine

  • Quetiapine

  • Paliperidone

  • Ziprasidone

  • Risperidone

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 25

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Test 5 Question 123. Which one of the following statements is false concerning desvenlafaxine extended-release tablets (Pristiq)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Desvenlafaxine may cause orthostasis and hyponatremia in the elderly

  • Dosage should be adjusted for patients with renal disease

  • Monitoring must be conducted for increase in suicidality during treatment, especially in children and teens

  • Taking desvenlafaxine in combination with an monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) may precipitate a serotonin syndrome

  • Desvenlafaxine has no impact on blood pressure, unlike venlafaxine

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 25

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Test 5 Question 128. Naltrexone extended-release injectable suspension (Vivitrol) is indicated for treatment of which of the following disorders?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Major depressive disorder

  • Generalized anxiety disorder

  • Psychosis

  • Alcohol dependence

  • Cocaine withdrawal

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 25

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Test 5 Question 130. Which of the following medications is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, lacks significant antihistaminic effects, can cause withdrawal symptoms if stopped abruptly, and has an indication for neuropathic pain?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Mirtazapine

  • Quetiapine

  • Nefazodone

  • Paroxetine

  • Duloxetine

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 25

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Test 5 Question 126. Which one of the following statements is false concerning atomoxetine (Strattera)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Atomoxetine works as a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

  • Full results are seen within 2 weeks of initiating treatment with atomoxetine

  • Once-daily dosing of atomoxetine works well for most patients

  • Most common side effects include dizziness and reduced appetite

  • Atomoxetine carries a black box warning for suicidality

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 25

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Test 5 Question 135. Which of the following statements is correct concerning clozapine?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Smoking will not affect clozapine levels

  • Risk of agranulocytosis is dose-related

  • Clozapine carries a high risk of prolactin elevation

  • Doses of clozapine greater than 600 mg/day carry a much higher risk of seizures than lower doses

  • Adding lithium to clozapine lowers the chances of NMS

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 25

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Test 5 Question 147. Which of the following medications is a partial nicotine agonist that decreases craving and withdrawal in patients trying to stop smoking?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Bupropion

  • Buspirone

  • Nicotine gum

  • Nicotine nasal spray

  • Varenicline

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 25

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Test 5 Question 150. One of your patients asks you for information about mirtazapine. If you made all of the following statements to the patient, which one would be considered factually inaccurate?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Mirtazapine blocks serotonin reuptake

  • Mirtazapine causes minimal sexual dysfunction

  • Mirtazapine can be very sedating

  • Mirtazapine is a potent H1 receptor antagonist

  • Mirtazapine can cause weight gain

Explicación

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