Gold Seal FAA Private Pilot Section 3

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Pregunta 1 de 152

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The 0 degree line of latitude passes through Greenwich England.
Line of longitude cross the equator at right angles.
Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 152

What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
*Refer to printed full sized reference**

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

47 Degrees 25 minutes North - 98 Degrees 6 minutes West.
47 Degrees 55 minutes North - 98 Degrees 6 minutes West.
47 Degrees 25 minutes N -99 Degrees 54 minutes West.

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 152

The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
Compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.
Compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 152

What type of military flight operations should pilot expect along IR 644?
Refer to Hard copy PDF

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.
Instruments training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.
IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 152

What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 152

The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

126.0 Mhz
133.4 Mhz
122.95 Mhz

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 152

Which public use airport depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Refer to Hard copy PDF

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Mercer County Regional Airport (Area 3) and Garrison (Area 2).
Minot Int'l (Area 1) and Garrison (Area 2).
Minot Int'l (Area 1).

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 152

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 152

What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nm southwest of Savannah International?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

1,532 feet AGL
1,500 feet MSL.
1,549 feet MSL.

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 152

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
Received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
Filed an IFR flight plan.

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 152

If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

126.35 MHz
120.3 MHz
122.95 MHZ

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 152

At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

135.075 MHz.
122.05 MHz.
122.8 MHz.

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 152

The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet AGL.
Unmarked blimp hangers at 300 feet MSL.

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 152

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
Airport/Facility Directory.
NOTAMs.

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 152

The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

190 feet.
19 feet.
216 feet.

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 152

Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

47 degrees 24 Minutes N - 75 Degrees 58 Minutes West.
36 Degrees 48 minutes North - 76 Degrees 1 Minute West.
36 Degrees 24 Minutes North - 76 Degrees 1 Minute West.

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 152

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
Airports with special traffic patterns.
Out boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 152

The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

122.9 MHz.
123.0 MHz.
122.8 MHz.

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 152

What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Transmit intentions on 122.9 when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.
Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 152

Which airport is located at approximately 47 degrees 21 minutes N latitude and 101 degrees 1 minute West longitude?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Evenson.
Underwood.
Washburn.

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 152

if air traffic control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

4096
1200
0000

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 152

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Class D and Class G (below 10,000 MSL).
Class A, Class B, (and withing 30 nm of the Class B primary airport), and Class C
Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 152

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

0700, 1700, 7000
7500, 7600, 7700
1200, 1500, 7000

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 152

At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which altimeter code should be selected?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Mode F, Code 1200
Mode 3/A, Code 1200
Mode C, Code 4096

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 152

For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A properly functioning thermostat.
The circulation of lubricating oil.
Air flowing over the exhaust manifold.

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 152

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increased air density.
Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreased air density.

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 152

Applying carburetor heat will?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Enrich the fuel/air mixture.
result in more air going through the carburetor.
Not affect the fuel/air mixture.

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 152

If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

May continue to fire.
Will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit.
Will not operate.

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 152

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed pitch propeller) is detonating during climb out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
Apply carburetor heat.
Lean the mixture.

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 152

Which of the following is a true statement concerning electrical systems?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The master switch provides current to the electrical system.
The airspeed indicator is driven by the electrical system.
Lights and radios use the electrical system for power.

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 152

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Lower cylinder head temperature.
A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
Detonation.

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 152

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The unburned charge in the cylinder explodes instead of burning normally.
Hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
The spark plugs are fouled or shorted out of the wiring is defective.

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 152

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
In the event the engine driven pump fails.
Constantly except in starting the engine.

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 152

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
There will be more fuel in the cylinder than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 152

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 152

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Experience avionics equipment failure.
Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.
Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 152

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
Test each brake and the parking brakes.
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 152

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
An increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 152

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 152

The operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 152

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Combustion.
Detonation.
Pre-ignition.

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 152

With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

More susceptible to icing.
Equally susceptible to incing.
Susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 152

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
Loss of RPM
Engine roughness.

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 152

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The mixture set too rich.
Higher than normal oil pressure.
Too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 152

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating.
Using fuel that has a higher than specified fuel rating.
Operating with higher than normal oil pressure.

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 152

Excessively high engine temperatures will?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Cause a loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinders cooling fins.
Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 152

An abnormally high engine temperature indication may be caused by?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The oil level being too low.
Operating with a too high viscosity oil.
Operating with an excessively rich mixture.

Explicación

Pregunta 48 de 152

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Enrich the fuel mixture.
Increase the RPM.
Reduce the airspeed.

Explicación

Pregunta 49 de 152

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Decrease engine performance.
Increase engine performance.
Have no effect on engine performance.

Explicación

Pregunta 50 de 152

What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The next higher octane aviation gas.
The next lower octane aviation gas.
Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

Explicación

Pregunta 51 de 152

During the run up at a high elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.

Explicación

Pregunta 52 de 152

To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Less than the battery voltage.
Equal to the battery voltage.
Higher than the battery voltage.

Explicación

Pregunta 53 de 152

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Temperature between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F and high humidity.
An temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
Temperature between 32 degrees F and 50 degrees F and low humidity.

Explicación

Pregunta 54 de 152

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tanks sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Lowest point in the fuel system.
Fuel strainer drain.
Fuel strainer drain and fuel tank sumps.

Explicación

Pregunta 55 de 152

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Uniform heat distribution.
Improved engine performance.
Balanced cylinder head pressure.

Explicación

Pregunta 56 de 152

Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
Be at the controls in the cockpit.
Call "contact" before touching the propeller.

Explicación

Pregunta 57 de 152

A positive indication on an ammeter?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Indicates the aircraft's battery will soon lose its charge.
Means more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced.
Shows the rate of charge on the battery.

Explicación

Pregunta 58 de 152

Filing the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

Explicación

Pregunta 59 de 152

What is the advantage of a constant speed propeller?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

Explicación

Pregunta 60 de 152

With winds reported out of the north at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Runway 29
Runway 6
Runway 32

Explicación

Pregunta 61 de 152

What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220 Degrees at 30 knots?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

23 knots.
19 knots.
30 knots.

Explicación

Pregunta 62 de 152

With winds reported as 180 degrees at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Runway 24
Runway 10
Runway 14

Explicación

Pregunta 63 de 152

The tower is reporting wind as 220 degrees at 30 knots. What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

30 knots.
23 knots.
19 knots.

Explicación

Pregunta 64 de 152

Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45 degree crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

35 knots.
25 knots.
29 knots.

Explicación

Pregunta 65 de 152

While flying a rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90 degrees?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Corners 1 and 4.
Corners 1 and 2.
Corners 2 and 4.

Explicación

Pregunta 66 de 152

When flying a rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Corner 1.
Corner 3.
Corners 2 and 3.

Explicación

Pregunta 67 de 152

While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not complete before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.
1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn.

Explicación

Pregunta 68 de 152

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

Explicación

Pregunta 69 de 152

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Flight over a densely populated area.
Flight within D airspace.
Flight under instrument flight rules.

Explicación

Pregunta 70 de 152

FAA advisory circulars(some free, others at a cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Subscribing to the Federal Register.
Distribution from the nearest FAA district office (FSDO).
Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

Explicación

Pregunta 71 de 152

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

An in flight radio communications failure.
An in flight generator or alternator failure.
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

Explicación

Pregunta 72 de 152

For private pilot operations, a First Class Medical Certificate issued to a 21 year old pilot on October 21 this year, will expire on midnight on?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

October 31, next year.
October 31, five years later.
October 21, two years later.

Explicación

Pregunta 73 de 152

A private pilot acting as a pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in his or her personal possession, or readily accessible in the aircraft, a current?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
Logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactory accomplished.
Medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.

Explicación

Pregunta 74 de 152

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Anytime.
At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

Explicación

Pregunta 75 de 152

To Determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Registration Certificate.
Airworthiness Certificate.
Aircraft Maintenance Records.

Explicación

Pregunta 76 de 152

The aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

July 31, next year.
July 1, next year.
July 13, next year.

Explicación

Pregunta 77 de 152

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as a pilot in command of any aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
There is no exception.
If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.

Explicación

Pregunta 78 de 152

Which incident would necessitate and immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
A forced landing due to engine failure.
Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Explicación

Pregunta 79 de 152

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
Certificate showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

Explicación

Pregunta 80 de 152

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Within 10 days.
Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
Immediately.

Explicación

Pregunta 81 de 152

At what altitude shall the altimeter be et to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

18,000 feet MSL.
24,000 feet MSL.
14,500 feet MSL.

Explicación

Pregunta 82 de 152

A certified private pilot may not act as a pilot in command or an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider.
200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow the glider.

Explicación

Pregunta 83 de 152

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, baloon.
transport, restricted, provisional.

Explicación

Pregunta 84 de 152

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

When the ELT can not longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
After any activation of the ELT other than testing.

Explicación

Pregunta 85 de 152

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea.
Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.

Explicación

Pregunta 86 de 152

Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

From the primary airport within Class D airspace.
Beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

Explicación

Pregunta 87 de 152

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Review traffic control light signal procedures.
Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Explicación

Pregunta 88 de 152

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.

Explicación

Pregunta 89 de 152

Which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

Explicación

Pregunta 90 de 152

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Clear of clouds and 2 mile visibility.
500 feet ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

Explicación

Pregunta 91 de 152

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in the maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Certified Mechanic.
Repair Station.
Owner or operator.

Explicación

Pregunta 92 de 152

Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Airship.
Glider.
Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

Explicación

Pregunta 93 de 152

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

By any private pilot.
For compensation or hire.
With passengers aboard.

Explicación

Pregunta 94 de 152

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Yes, under VFR conditions only.
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
Yes, AD's are only voluntary.

Explicación

Pregunta 95 de 152

What regulations allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

14 CFR Part 61.113
14 CFR Part 43.3
14 CFR Part 91.403

Explicación

Pregunta 96 de 152

If an aircraft is involved in an accident with results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Within 48 hours.
Immediately.
Within 7 days.

Explicación

Pregunta 97 de 152

A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

24 hours.
12 hours.
8 hours.

Explicación

Pregunta 98 de 152

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The Medical Examiner.
The FAA.
The Pilot.

Explicación

Pregunta 99 de 152

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
Owner or operator.
Repair Station.

Explicación

Pregunta 100 de 152

In addition to valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
Radio Operator's permit, and repair and alterations forms.

Explicación

Pregunta 101 de 152

What action should the pilot of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The glider pilot should give to the right.
Both pilots should give way to the right.
The airplane should give way to the left.

Explicación

Pregunta 102 de 152

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Owner or Operator.
Certified Mechanic.
Pilot in command.

Explicación

Pregunta 103 de 152

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

1,200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

Explicación

Pregunta 104 de 152

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The airship.
The airplane.
Each pilot should alter course to the right.

Explicación

Pregunta 105 de 152

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.

Explicación

Pregunta 106 de 152

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The are voluntary.
For informational purposes only.
They are mandatory.

Explicación

Pregunta 107 de 152

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

12,500 feet MSL.
14,000 feet MSL.
15,000 feet MSL.

Explicación

Pregunta 108 de 152

No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Explicación

Pregunta 109 de 152

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

within 10 days.
when requested.
within 7 days.

Explicación

Pregunta 110 de 152

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Except by prior arrangement with the pilot of each aircraft.
In class B,C, or D airspace.
Over a densely populated area.

Explicación

Pregunta 111 de 152

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

when intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees.
When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.

Explicación

Pregunta 112 de 152

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Every 24 months.
At the time of each 100 hour or annual inspection.
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.

Explicación

Pregunta 113 de 152

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 114 de 152

Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.
Alteration of main seat support brackets.
Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used.

Explicación

Pregunta 115 de 152

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
The entire flight time at those altitudes.

Explicación

Pregunta 116 de 152

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

With prior permission from the FAA local Flight Standards District Office(FSDO).
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
Only in a emergency.

Explicación

Pregunta 117 de 152

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Explicación

Pregunta 118 de 152

If recency of experience requirements for night flights are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

1929
1829
1859

Explicación

Pregunta 119 de 152

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Sunset to Sunrise.
End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

Explicación

Pregunta 120 de 152

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

An in flight generator/alternator failure.
An in flight fire.
An in flight los of VOR receiver capability.

Explicación

Pregunta 121 de 152

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

8 nm.
6 nm.
4 nm.

Explicación

Pregunta 122 de 152

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 123 de 152

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

At least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
Less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

Explicación

Pregunta 124 de 152

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

At least 3 actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
At least 3 flights in a powered glider.
At least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.

Explicación

Pregunta 125 de 152

An ATC clearance provides?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
Adequate separation from all traffic.
Priority over all traffic.

Explicación

Pregunta 126 de 152

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The designation of an alternate airport.
A study of arrival procedures at airports of intended use.
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Explicación

Pregunta 127 de 152

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Private Pilot Certification with an instrument rating.
Commercial Pilot Certificate.
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

Explicación

Pregunta 128 de 152

The definition of night time is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.
sunset to sunrise.
The time between the end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight.

Explicación

Pregunta 129 de 152

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

Explicación

Pregunta 130 de 152

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Air Traffic Control Tower.
Automated Flight Service Station.
Air Route Traffic Control Center.

Explicación

Pregunta 131 de 152

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Safety belts during takeoff and landing; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Explicación

Pregunta 132 de 152

During the pre-flight inspection, who is responsible for determining if the aircraft is safe for flight?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

The certified mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
The pilot in command.
The owner and operator.

Explicación

Pregunta 133 de 152

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.

Explicación

Pregunta 134 de 152

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

That has the other to its right.
At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
That is the least maneuverable.

Explicación

Pregunta 135 de 152

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as a pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

An endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
Passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
Received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

Explicación

Pregunta 136 de 152

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency, send a written report of the deviation to the Administration?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Upon request.
Within 7 days.
Within 10 days.

Explicación

Pregunta 137 de 152

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 138 de 152

Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Authorized mechanic only.
Student or recreational pilot.
Private or Commercial pilot.

Explicación

Pregunta 139 de 152

Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the air frame and engine logbook.
The signature, certificate number, and the kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

Explicación

Pregunta 140 de 152

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to airmen are issued under which subject number?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 141 de 152

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
Under no condition.

Explicación

Pregunta 142 de 152

If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

60 days after the date of the move.
90 days after the date of the move.
30 days after the date of the move.

Explicación

Pregunta 143 de 152

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administer, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Federal, state and local law enforcement officer.
Person in a position of authority.
Authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.

Explicación

Pregunta 144 de 152

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damages.

Explicación

Pregunta 145 de 152

A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

3312.5 hours.
3409.5 hours.
3402.5 hours.

Explicación

Pregunta 146 de 152

With regards to privileges and limitations a private pilot may?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involved only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
Not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

Explicación

Pregunta 147 de 152

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

In the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual materials, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
On the Airworthiness Certificate.
In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

Explicación

Pregunta 148 de 152

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
Landplane, Seaplane.
Normal, utility, acrobatic.

Explicación

Pregunta 149 de 152

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Federal Aviation Administration.
Pilot in command.
Aircraft Manufacturer.

Explicación

Pregunta 150 de 152

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Single engine land and sea, and multi-engine land and sea.
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.
Lighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

Explicación

Pregunta 151 de 152

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as a pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
The end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
Sunset to Sunrise.

Explicación

Pregunta 152 de 152

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Explicación

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	Creado por Reuben Moore hace más de 9 años

Multiple choice quiz for Gold Seal's UAV Private Pilot Ground School for Section 3. Includes subjects:

Gold Seal FAA Private Pilot Section 3

Gold Seal FAA Private Pilot Section 3

Pregunta 1 de 152

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 152

What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport? ***Refer to printed full sized reference****

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 152

The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a ?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 152

What type of military flight operations should pilot expect along IR 644? ***Refer to Hard copy PDF***

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 152

What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 152

The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 152

Which public use airport depicted are indicated as having fuel? ***Refer to Hard copy PDF***

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 152

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 152

What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nm southwest of Savannah International?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 152

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 152

If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 152

At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 152

The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 152

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 152

The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 152

Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 152

The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 152

The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 152

What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 152

What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
*Refer to printed full sized reference**

What type of military flight operations should pilot expect along IR 644?
Refer to Hard copy PDF

Which public use airport depicted are indicated as having fuel?
Refer to Hard copy PDF