Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?

• A. Process owner

• B. Change manager

• C. Service manager

• D. Process practitioner

Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?

• A. Service level management

• B. IT operations management

• C. Capacity management

• D. Incident management

Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?

• A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge

• B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom

• C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data

• D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new servicebe
defined?

• A. Service design: Design the processes

• B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings

• C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment

• D. Service operation: IT operations management

Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

• A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

• B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt

• C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

• D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?

• A. To identify patterns of business activity

• B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction

• C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services

• D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist

The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four
Ps?

• A. People, process, partners, performance

• B. Performance, process, products, plans

• C. People, process, products, partners

• D. People, products, plans, partners

Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?

• A. Allows higher volumes of successful change

• B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages

• C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages

• D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make
  their customers successful

Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

• A. Incident and financial management

• B. Change and release and deployment management

• C. Incident and event management

• D. Knowledge and service level management

Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

• A. Change proposal

• B. Change policy

• C. Service request

• D. Risk register

Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

• A. 1 only

• B. 2 only

• C. Both of the above

• D. Neither of the above

Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?

• A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities

• B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA

• C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA

• D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting

Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?

• A. Roles

• B. Inputs and outputs

• C. Functions

• D. Metrics

Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of
all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?

• A. Service level management

• B. Service catalogue management

• C. Demand management

• D. Service transition

A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be
expected of them?

• A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity

• B. Perform an activity

• C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity

• D. Manage an activity

Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only

• B. 1 and 2 only

• C. 1, 2 and 4 only

• D. All of the above

Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

• A. Components

• B. Processes

• C. The end-to-end service

• D. Customer satisfaction

Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

• A. Capacity management

• B. Incident management

• C. Service level management

• D. Financial management

Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service life cycle?

• A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages

• B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services

• C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
  service designs that are produced

• D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

• A. Outcome

• B. Incident

• C. Change

• D. Problem

Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

• A. Change management

• B. Service portfolio management

• C. Supplier management

• D. Continual service improvement

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

• A. 1, 2 and 4 only

• B. 2, 3 and 4 only

• C. 1, 3 and 4 only

• D. 1, 2 and 3 only

What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

• A. Informational, scheduled, normal

• B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency

• C. Informational, warning, exception

• D. Warning, reactive, proactive

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources
and deliverables from service management?

• A. Employers

• B. Stakeholders

• C. Regulators

• D. Accreditors

Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

• A. 1 and 2 only

• B. 2 and 3 only

• C. 1 and 3 only

• D. All of the above

What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the
normal change process?

• A. Technical management

• B. Emergency change advisory board

• C. Urgent change board

• D. Urgent change authority

Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

• A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported

• B. To provide training and certification in project management

• C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets

• D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio
management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service

• A. 1 and 3 only

• B. All of the above

• C. 1 and 2 only

• D. 2 and 3 only

The BEST description of an incident is:

• A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

• B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service

• C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned

• D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is
  impacted or not

Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement
approach?

• A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;Continually
  improve

• B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep
  the momentum going?

• C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan;
  Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution

• D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we
  get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found

• A. 2 only

• B. 1 only

• C. Neither of the above

• D. Both of the above

What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the
assessment and prioritization of changes?

• A. The change authorization board

• B. The change advisory board

• C. The change implementer

• D. The change manager

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have
met their targets?

• A. Continual service improvement

• B. Change management

• C. Service level management

• D. Availability management

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

• A. The value of a service

• B. Governance

• C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)

• D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

• A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity

• B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components

• C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service

• D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

• A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not

• B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset

• C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not

• D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

• A. Measurement, methods and metrics

• B. Service design package

• C. Service portfolio design

• D. Process definitions

What should a service always deliver to customers?

• A. Applications

• B. Infrastructure

• C. Value

• D. Resources

Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?

• A. Service catalog management

• B. Service asset and configuration management

• C. Change management

• D. Information security management

Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

• A. IT services and components

• B. IT services and business processes

• C. Components and business processes

• D. IT services, components and business processes

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents
a set of items that are related to each other?

• A. Configuration baseline

• B. Project baseline

• C. Change baseline

• D. Asset baseline

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

• A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

• B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

• C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening

• D. To detect security events and make sense of them

Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice

• A. All of the above

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 1 and 2 only

• D. 2 and 3 only

Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

• A. The Deming Cycle

• B. The continual service improvement approach

• C. The seven-step improvement process

• D. The service lifecycle

The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?

• A. Continual service improvement

• B. Service strategy

• C. Service design

• D. Service transition

Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general inquiries from
users?

• A. Service level management

• B. Service portfolio management

• C. Request fulfillment

• D. Demand management

Which of the following BEST describes partners' in the phrase people, processes, products and
partners"?

• A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors

• B. Customers

• C. Internal departments

• D. The facilities management function

Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?

• A. The service level management

• B. The IT service continuity management

• C. The service catalogue management

• D. The supplier management

The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of
understanding within knowledge management?

• A. Data

• B. Information

• C. Knowledge

• D. Governance

Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?

• A. A service option

• B. A service transition package (STP)

• C. A service design package (SDP)

• D. A service charter

Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1. Financial arrangements related to the contract
2. Description of the goods or service provided
3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

• A. 1 and 2 only

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 2 and 3 only

• D. All of the above

Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

• A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment
  management

• B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management

• C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration
  management

• D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request
  fulfillment

Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?

• A. Reduced total cost of ownership

• B. Improved quality of service

• C. Improved Service alignment with business goals

• D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they
have replaced?

• A. Availability management

• B. Capacity management

• C. Service portfolio management

• D. Service catalogue management

Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

• A. Job descriptions

• B. Functions

• C. Teams

• D. Roles, people or groups

Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?

• A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incident

• B. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill

• C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer
  satisfaction

• D. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement

Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data center?

• A. Technical management

• B. Service desk

• C. Application management

• D. Facilities management

Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in
an organizational structure?

• A. RACI model

• B. Incident model

• C. Continual service improvement (CSI) approach

• D. The Deming Cycle

Which process will regularly analyse incident data to identify discernible trends?

• A. Service level management

• B. Problem management

• C. Change management

• D. Event management

Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?

• A. One which directly supports the business processes of customers

• B. A service that cannot be allowed to fail

• C. One which is not covered by a service level agreement

• D. A service not directly used by the business

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term service management?

• A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
  services

• B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole,operating
  together for a common purpose

• C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities

• D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

• A. To prevent problems and their resultant Incidents

• B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle

• C. To restore service to a user

• D. To eliminate recurring incidents

Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?

• A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreement

• B. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements

• C. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access it

• D. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available

Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment
management?

• A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service design

• B. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets
  and service components

• C. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate

• D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the
continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

• A. Implementing service and process improvements

• B. Reviewing measurements and metrics

• C. Creating a baseline

• D. Defining measurable targets

Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

• A. Definitive media library (DML)

• B. Configuration management system (CMS)

• C. Statement of requirements (SOR)

• D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)

The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of
actions would be BEST to manage risk?

• A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risks

• B. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to risk

• C. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capital

• D. Training of all staff and investment of capital

Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?

• A. Standards

• B. Technology

• C. Academic research

• D. Internal experience

Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four Ps" include
Partners,People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?

• A. Profit

• B. Preparation

• C. Products

• D. Potential

Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?

• A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogue

• B. The design of new or changed services

• C. The design of market spaces

• D. The design of the technology architectures

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

• A. A service level agreement (SLA)

• B. A request for change (RFC)

• C. The service portfolio

• D. A service description

Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customer's successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business
environment
3. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages

• A. All of the above

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 1 and 2 only

• D. 2 and 3 only

What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?

• A. Informational, scheduled, normal

• B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency

• C. Informational, warning, exception

• D. Warning, reactive, proactive

A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Defining the process strategy
2. Assisting with process design
3. Improving the process
4. Performing all activities involved in a process

• A. 2, 3 and 4 only

• B. All of the above

• C. 1, 2 and 3 only

• D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

• A. Capacity management

• B. Governance

• C. Service design

• D. Service level management

Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and
metrics?
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only

• B. 1, 3 and 4 only

• C. 2, 3 and 4 only

• D. All of the above

Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?

• A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit

• B. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers

• C. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components

• D. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs

Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?

• A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources

• B. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions

• C. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes

• D. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes

What are underpinning contracts used to document?

• A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service provider

• B. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliers

• C. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customer

• D. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams

In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements again
sttargets?

• A. Operational level agreement (OLA)

• B. Capacity plan

• C. Service level agreement (SLA)

• D. SLA monitoring chart (SLAM)

Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to
the agreed and documented standard?

• A. The IT director

• B. The process owner

• C. The service owner

• D. The customer

Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?

• A. Knowledge management

• B. Release and deployment management

• C. Service asset and configuration management

• D. Service level management

Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet

• A. Both of the above

• B. 1 only

• C. 2 only

• D. Neither of the above

Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?

• A. The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA)

• B. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service

• C. All the accumulated knowledge of the service provider

• D. All incidents reported to the service desk

Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of
the Service Lifecycle?

• A. Service Strategy

• B. Continual Service Improvement

• C. Service Operation

• D. Service Design

Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service
designs?

• A. Availability management

• B. Capacity management

• C. Design coordination

• D. Release management

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources
and deliverables from service management?

• A. Employers

• B. Stakeholders

• C. Regulators

• D. Accreditors

What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after?
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?

• A. What is the return on investment (ROI)?

• B. How much did it cost?

• C. How do we keep the momentum going?

• D. What is the value on investment (VOI)?

Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

• A. The ECAB considers every high priority request for change (RFC)

• B. Amongt the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes

• C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB

• D. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

Which of the following BEST describes a problem?

• A. An issue reported by a user

• B. The cause of two or more incidents

• C. A serious incident which has a critical impact to the business

• D. The cause of one or more incidents

Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL
framework?

• A. Internal

• B. External

• C. Service desk

• D. Shared services unit

Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?

• A. Incidents can only be reported by users

• B. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal
  service

• C. All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidents

• D. Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems

Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?

• A. Incident management

• B. Access management

• C. Change management

• D. Request fulfillment

What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider
to deliver customer facing services?

• A. Business services

• B. Component services

• C. Supporting services

• D. Customer services

Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow
2. Measurement and reporting
3. Release and deployment
4. Process design

• A. 2, 3 and 4 only

• B. 1, 3 and 4 only

• C. 1, 2 and 3 only

• D. All of the above

How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

• A. As many as necessary to complete the activity

• B. Only one - the process owner

• C. Two - the process owner and the process enactor

• D. Only one - the process architect

The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service
component and its associated documentation is a definition of what?

• A. A change

• B. A change model

• C. A change request

• D. A change advisory board

Where should the following information be stored?
1. The experience of staff
2. Records of user behavior
3. Supplier's abilities and requirements
4. User skill levels

• A. The forward schedule of change

• B. The service portfolio

• C. A configuration management database (CMDB)

• D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS)

Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1. The approach is pre-authorized
2. The risk is usually low and well understood
3. Details of the change will be recorded
4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfillment process

• A. 1 only

• B. 2 and 3 only

• C. 1, 2 and 4 only

• D. All of the above

Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation
stage of the service lifecycle?

• A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access
  management

• B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management

• C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfillment, and event
  management

• D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfillment, access management, and event
  management

With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding
systems?

• A. Incident management

• B. Service asset and configuration management

• C. Capacity management

• D. IT service continuity management

What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

• A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers

• B. Reporting intervals should be set by the service provider

• C. Reports should be produced weekly

• D. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services

Which one of the following does service metrics measure?

• A. Functions

• B. Maturity and cost

• C. The end-to-end service

• D. Infrastructure availability

Which one of the following is NOT a valid purpose or objective of problem management?

• A. To prevent problems and resultant incidents

• B. To manage problems throughout their lifecycle

• C. To restore service to a user

• D. To eliminate recurring incidents

Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

• A. Demand management

• B. Incident management

• C. Release and deployment management

• D. Request fulfillment

Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

• A. Technical management

• B. IT operations management

• C. Request fulfillment

• D. Applications management

Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes

• A. All of the above

• B. 1, 2 and 3 only

• C. 2 and 4 only

• D. 3 and 4 only

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

• A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results

• B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes

• C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction

• D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

• A. Do

• B. Perform

• C. Implement

• D. Measure

What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service
improvement (CSI)?

• A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality

• B. Strategic, tactical and operational

• C. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities

• D. Technology, process and service

Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users

• A. All of the above

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 1 and 2 only

• D. 2 and 3 only

From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees
their service targets known as?

• A. User

• B. Customer

• C. Supplier

• D. Administrator

Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard
services?

• A. Request fulfillment

• B. Service portfolio management

• C. Service desk

• D. IT finance

Which of the following is the best definition of service management?

• A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs

• B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
  services

• C. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers

• D. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers

Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

• A. Knowledge

• B. Information

• C. Wisdom

• D. Data

Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?

• A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services

• B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services

• C. To create and populate a service catalogue

• D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

• A. Defining where the vendor of an application should be located

• B. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome

• C. Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will be

• D. Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

What is a RACI model used for?

• A. Performance analysis

• B. Recording configuration items

• C. Monitoring services

• D. Defining roles and responsibilities

The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

• A. Before the change is approved

• B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out

• C. After implementation but before the post implementation review

• D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change

Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination
activities?

• A. Only changes that introduce new services

• B. It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity

• C. Only changes to business critical systems

• D. Any change that the organization believes could benefit

What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

• A. Service catalogue management

• B. Service portfolio management

• C. Service desk

• D. Business relationship management

Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

• A. To ensure the impact of changes are understood

• B. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated

• C. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration
  management system (CMS)

• D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users

What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known
as?

• A. Strategic customers

• B. External customers

• C. Valued customers

• D. Internal customers

124. Access management is closely related to which other process?

• A. Capacity management only

• B. 3rd line support

• C. Information security management

• D. Change management

In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue
management,information security management, and supplier management?

• A. Service strategy

• B. Service design

• C. Service transition

• D. Service operation

Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

• A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management
  (ITSM)activities

• B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided

• C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency

• D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service

A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a work around
has been found. Is this a valid approach?

• A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do
  so

• B. No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged

• C. No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised

• D. No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service

Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business
environment
3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

• A. All of the above

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 1 and 2 only

• D. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1. Things that were done correctly
2. Things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future

• A. 1 only

• B. 2 and 3 only

• C. 1, 2 and 4 only

• D. All of the above

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration
management?

• A. Describes the topography of the hardware

• B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services

• C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware

• D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices

• A. All of the above

• B. 1 and 3 only

• C. 1 and 2 only

• D. 2 and 3 only

Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only

• B. All of the above

• C. 1 and 3 only

• D. 2 and 4 only

Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

• A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

• B. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening

• C. Eliminating recurring incidents

• D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are
CORRECT?
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.

• A. 1 only

• B. 2 only

• C. Both of the above

• D. Neither of the above

Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Enabling
2. Core
3. Enhancing
4. Computer

• A. 1, 3 and 4 only

• B. 2, 3 and 4 only

• C. 1, 2 and 4 only

• D. 1, 2 and 3 only

In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?

• A. The service level agreement (SLA)

• B. The problem record

• C. The availability management information system

• D. The IT service plan

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

• A. It is measurable

• B. It delivers specific results

• C. It responds to specific events

• D. It structure an organization

Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transaction stage of the service
lifecycle?

• A. To ensure that a service managed and operated accordance with constraints specified during
  design

• B. To design and develop capabilities for service management

• C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services

• D. To plan the resources required to manage a release

Which of the following BEST describes technical management?

• A. A function responsibilities for facilities management and building control systems

• B. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service
  to customers

• C. Senior managers responsibilities for all staff within the technical support function

• D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT

Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume ofITIL?

• A. Local

• B. Centralized

• C. Outsourced

• D. Virtual

What is the primary focus of the business management?

• A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual
  elements of IT technology

• B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management

• C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the
  live,operational IT services

• D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented
  in a timely fashion

Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks which could seriously affect IT
services, the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?

• A. Change management

• B. IT service continuity management

• C. Financial management for IT services

• D. Service catalog management

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?

• A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change

• B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for

• C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface

• D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager
  without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting

Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops
below acceptable limits?

• A. Service asset and configuration management

• B. Event management

• C. Service catalogue management

• D. Problem management

Which one of the following do major incidents require?

• A. Separate procedures

• B. Less urgency

• C. Longer timescales

• D. Less documentation

What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

• A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle

• B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services

• C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs

• D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operations
contribution?

• A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated

• B. Measures for optimization are identified

• C. Service value is modeled

• D. Service value is visible to customers

Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

• A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)

• B. Customer and user satisfaction

• C. Service requirements and warranty

• D. Resources and capabilities

Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?

• A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held

• B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs)
  arestored and protected

• C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs

• D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and
  protected

Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

• A. Service level agreements (SLAs)

• B. Third-party contracts

• C. The service portfolio

• D. Operational level agreements (OLAs)

Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service
lifecycle?

• A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified
  during design

• B. To design and develop capabilities for service management

• C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services

• D. To plan the resources required to manage a release

Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
1. Hardware within a data center or computer room
2. Applications
3. Power and cooling equipment
4. Recovery sites

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only

• B. All of the above

• C. 1, 3 and 4 only

• D. 1 and 3 only

Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

• A. Service design

• B. Service transition

• C. Continual service improvement

• D. Service operation

Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and modeling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern recognition and analysis
4. Detection and monitoring

• A. 1, 2 and 3 only

• B. 1, 3 and 4 only

• C. 2, 3 and 4 only

• D. All of the above

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

• A. The availability of a service or component

• B. The level of risk that affects a service or process

• C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing

• D. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order

Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?

• A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate

• B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained

• C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service
  portfolio

• D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue

Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

• A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes

• B. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the
  configuration management system (CMS)

• C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized

• D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

• A. The configuration management system is part of the known error database

• B. The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management system

• C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system

• D. The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database

Implementation of ITIL service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective
and efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?

• A. People, process, partners, performance

• B. Performance, process, products, problems

• C. People, process, products, partners

• D. People, products, perspective, partners

Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment

• A. 1, 2 and 4 only

• B. 1, 2 and 3 only

• C. 2, 3 and 4 only

• D. 1, 3 and 4 only

What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

• A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization

• B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization

• C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis

• D. A document that describes business services to operational staff

Which one of the following generates demand for services?

• A. Infrastructure trends

• B. Patterns of business activity (PBA)

• C. Cost of providing support

• D. Service level agreements (SLA)

Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?

• A. To negotiate service levels for new services

• B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value

• C. To minimize the impact of service outages on day-to-day business activities

• D. To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

• A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT
  service

• B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service

• C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service

• D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of
the service lifecycle?

• A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle

• B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services

• C. To design and build processes which will meet business needs

• D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?

• A. An incident which is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be
  found

• B. An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve

• C. An incident logged by a senior manager

• D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business

Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed
to reactive?
1. Monitoring system availability
2. Designing availability into a proposed solution

• A. None of the above

• B. Both of the above

• C. 1 only

• D. 2 only

Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?

• A. Intrusion detection

• B. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data center

• C. Recording service desk staff absence

• D. Monitoring the status of configuration items

The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this
type of SLA?

• A. Customer level

• B. Service level

• C. Corporate level

• D. Configuration level

Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?

• A. Supplier management and service level management

• B. Supplier management and change management

• C. Availability management and service level management

• D. Supplier management and availability management

Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between
components of the IT infrastructure?

• A. Service level management

• B. Change management

• C. Incident management

• D. Service asset and configuration management

Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?

• A. Act

• B. Plan

• C. Do

• D. Co-ordinate

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?

• A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party

• B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization

• C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier

• D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer

Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service
lifecycle?
1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is
2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
3. Defining how value is created

• A. 1 only

• B. 2 only

• C. 3 only

• D. All of the above

In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?
1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models