Soheila Amri
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Physiology Cycle 1 - BLOOD

Pregunta 1 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly describes beta-adrenergic (β-adrenergic) receptors?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • β-adrenergic receptor is a ligand-gated channels.

  • Activity of some adrenergic receptors brings fEPSP to the postsynaptic membranes.

  • Beta-adrenergic receptors initiate transduction resulting with activation of adenylate cyclase.

  • Activation of beta-adrenergic receptors up-regulates synthesis of cAMP.

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 100

1

Which of following expressions about MHC class I complexes are true?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • They are present in almost all cells, except for erythrocytes.

  • They are present only on antigen presenting cell.

  • Their role is to present proteins and activate helper T-lymphocytes

  • It plays role in defense against intracellular pathogens.

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 100

1

Put following cations of the extracellular fluid (ECF) in proper order. Begin from the most concentrated:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Sodium-calcium-potassium-magnesium

  • Magnesium-sodium - calcium

  • Potassium-sodium-calcium-magnesium

  • Sodium-potassium-calcium-magnesium

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 100

1

In Rhesus system of blood:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • D antigen the oligosaccharide bound to the cellular membrane.

  • D antigen is the most immunogenic (the strongest) component of the system.

  • All antigens of the Rhesus system are proteins located only on membranes of erythrocytes.

  • Agglutinins are synthesized in RhD-negative individuals after exposure to RhD-postive
    blood.

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 100

1

Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Rise of liberation of histamine from mast cel

  • Rise of gluconeogenesis.

  • Rise of plasma concentration free fatty acids.

  • Intensification of catecholamine-dependant bronchodilation.

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 100

1

Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It activates fibrinolysis.

  • TxA2 activates platelets – it intensifies their degranulation (release of the content of
    granules).

  • It mediates vascular contraction.

  • It prevents aggregation of platelets.

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through the cellular membrane against concentration gradient.

  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water

  • Facilitated diffusion characterizes with finite rate of transfer of substance defined as
    maximum saturation.

  • Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 100

1

Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Prolonged time of the clotting time test.

  • Prolonged prothrombin time.

  • Prolonged time of bleeding time test.

  • Prolonged time of Rumpel-Leede test.

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 100

1

Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Na/K ATP-ase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires two ATP molecules.

  • Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K ATP-ase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport.

  • Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This
    mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF.

  • Active transport mechanisms are able to move substances against concentration gradient.

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 100

1

Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5-7 % of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood.

  • 50 % of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Process is catalyzed angiotensin converting enzyme.

  • All the bicarbonate produced in erythrocytes and exchanged for chloride. It’s called
    Hamburger’s phenomenon.

  • Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carboxyhemoglobin

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 100

1

Which of following sentences are true?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Immunoglobulins against antigen D of Rhesus system develop in childhood.

  • Immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma of the newborn is almost zero.

  • Immunoglobulins against antigens ABO blood type system are produced by the fetus before their birth.

  • Agglutinins in ABO system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B commonly present in environment.

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 100

1

Which of following receptors are ionotropic receptor for cations?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • IP3 receptor.

  • Ryanodine receptor.

  • Glycine receptors.

  • GABAA receptors.

  • Nicotinic receptors.

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 100

1

Which of following events don’t match the signal transduction of the G protein coupled receptor.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of β-subunit of the receptor. β-subunit
    phosphorylates other proteins.

  • Subunits of G protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins.

  • Receptor interacts with G protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP for GTP.

  • Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates.

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Administration of aspirin slows the process of agglutination

  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin

  • Gamma globulins of IgM class easily agglutinate erythrocytes in room temperature.

  • Agglutination is slowed by albumin molecules

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 100

1

Actions of heparin are:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It inhibits activity of plasma coagulation factors I and IV.

  • It activates natural anticoagulant protein of plasma – antithrombin III.

  • It inhibits activity of activated Stuart factor and thrombin (factors X and II).

  • It intensifies adhesion and degranulation of platelets.

  • It intensifies proteolytic degradation of plasminogen.

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • They migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes.

  • They release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin.

  • They belong to the adaptive immune system. They are not able to phagocyte.

  • They aggregate in tissues where allergic reactions occur (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma).

  • They exhibit chemotaxis.

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 100

1

Hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left due to:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Decline of the concentration 2,3 BPG.

  • Rise of pCO¬2

  • Anemia.

  • High body temperature

  • Rise of pH.

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 100

1

Muraminidase:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It is a part of innate immune response.

  • It activates complement cascade.

  • It is an enzyme that performs bacterial lysis.

  • It is present in plasmocytes.

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 100

1

Oxytocin:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It produces contraction of cells of the deferent duct.

  • It up-regulates synthesis IP3 in smooth muscle cells of the uterus.

  • It is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells.

  • It has galactopoetic activity – it stimulates production of milk

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 100

1

Which of following statements concerning coagulation are proper:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Thrombin dependant. factor are factors l, ll, X & Xll

  • Thrombin is a proteolytic enzyme catalyzing conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin.

  • Vitamin K is necessary in process of post-translatory modification of prothrombin in liver

  • Exposition of thrombin to fibrin degradation products accelerate coagulation.


Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 100

1

Hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left due to:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Decline of the temperature.

  • Rise of 2,3 BPG.

  • Impulses from carotid bodies.

  • Rise of pH.

  • Hypercapnia (rise of pCO2).


Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 100

1

Actions of heparin are:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It inhibits activity of plasma coagulation factors I and IV.

  • It activates natural anticoagulant protein of plasma antithrombin III.

  • It inhibits activity of activated Stuart factor and thrombin (factors X and II)

  • It intensifies adhesion and degranulation of platelets.

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 100

1

Find true statements concerning vasopressin:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It increase water reabsorption from the collecting duct via AQP2 up-regulated after hormone -binds to VP1 receptor.

  • In smooth musculature of vessels, it up-regulates synthesis of IP3 in smooth muscle cells, eliciting contraction.

  • Its plasma level rises in effect of decreasing osmotic pressure of blood and cerebrospinal fluid.

  • Decompression of baroreceptors of the carotid sinus and aortic arch increases liberation of that hormone.

  • Activates Thirst complex

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through the cellular membrane against concentration gradient.

  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.

  • Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2.

  • Facilitated diffusion characterizes with finite rate of transfer of substance defined as maximum saturation.

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 100

1

Lactoferrin:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It is a part of innate immune response.

  • It activates complement cascade.

  • It is an enzyme of saliva binding iron necessary for proliferation of microbs.

  • It is an enzyme of saliva reducing Fe2+ to Fe3+.


Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 100

1

Which of following receptors are intracellular ionotropic receptor for cations?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • IP3 receptor.

  • Nicotinic receptors.

  • Ryanodine receptor.

  • Glycine receptors.

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 100

1

Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It up-regulates liberation of histamine from mast cells.

  • It intensifies gluconeogenesis in liver.

  • It down-regulates number of lymphocytes and eosinophils.

  • It intensifies catecholamine-dependent broncho-constriction.

  • It increases GFR.


  • Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are rise of plasma conc. of free fatty acids

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 100

1

Put following cations of the extracellular fluid (ECF) in proper order. Begin from the least concentrated:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Sodium-potassium-calcium- magnesium

  • Magnesium-calcium-potassium-sodium

  • Potassium-sodium-calcium- magnesium

  • Sodium- calcium - potassium - magnesium

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 100

1

Which of following sentences are true?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Ratio of agglutinins of ABO in plasma of blood rises throughout childhood.

  • Agglutinins in ABO system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B, being simple and common antigens.


  • Immunoglobulins against antigens ABO blood type system are produced by the fetus before their birth.

  • Immunoglobulins against antigen D of Rhesus system develop in childhood.

  • Agglutinins are present in adult blood plasma

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 100

1

Which of following statements concern G-protein coupled receptors?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • G-protein coupled receptors hydrolyses GTP, transferred from G-protein to the binding site of the receptor.

  • Muscarinic receptor is an example of G-protein coupled receptor.

  • All adrenergic receptors belong to family of G-protein coupled receptors.

  • G-protein coupled receptors are metabotropic, they initiate formation of second messengers: cAMP or IP3.


Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Administration of heparin slows the process of agglutination.

  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon, in vivo process continues, engaging mechanism of destruction of erythrocytes

  • Administration of isotonic solution of NaCl can facilitate IgG-dependent agglutination of
    erythrocytes

  • Gamma globulins of IgG class easily agglutinate erythrocytes in room temperature.


Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 100

1

Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Prolonged time in the clotting time test.

  • Prolonged prothrombin time.

  • Prolonged time of bleeding time test.

  • Prolonged time of Rumpel-Leede test.

  • Prolongerd APTT

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 100

1

Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It activates fibrinolysis.

  • TxA2 activates platelets & it intensifies their degranulation (release of the content of granules).

  • It prevents aggregation of platelets.

  • It mediates vascular contraction.

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 100

1

Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Na/K ATP-ase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires two ATP molecules.

  • Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K ATP-ase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport.

  • Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF.

  • Active transport mechanisms are able to move substances against concentration gradient.

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe metabotropic receptors (MR)?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • GABAb receptor is an example of metabotropic receptor

  • Tyrosine kinase receptors are metabotropic receptor able to autophosphorylates after binding their ligands

  • Some adrenergic receptors are tyrosine kinase receptors

  • Muscarinic receptors are coupled to phospholipase C & adenylyl cyclase

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 100

1

Which of the following statements properly concern G proteins?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Binding of insulin to G protein of the insulin receptor initiates process of activation of adenylyl cyclase

  • Extracellular ligands bind to G-protein coupled receptors which in turn activate particular G protein

  • Inhibitory G protein (Gi protein) is coupled to carbonic anhydrase of some cells

  • The G-protein activates a cascade of signaling events that finally results in a change in cell function

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 100

1

Which of the following receptors are ionotropic?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Ryanodine receptor

  • Rhodopsin receptor

  • PTH receptor

  • Nicotine receptor

  • IP3 receptor

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 100

1

Which of the following statements properly describe hormones produced by anterior pituitary gland(APG)?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Dopamine decreases liberation of from APG in mechanism of negative feedback

  • Liberation of corticoliberin (CRH) from APG is stimulated by corticotropin (ACTH)

  • TSH is liberated from APG. TSH binds its metatropic receptor of the membrane of the thyroid cell

  • GnRH (gonadoliberin) from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH and LH

  • Prolactin is produced by supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus and liberated by the anterior pituitary

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 100

1

Actions of angiotensin II are:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • it mediates vasoconstriction

  • It stimulates secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex

  • It decreases reabsorption of sodium ions in kidneys

  • It increases heart rate

  • It is a product of partial proteolysis of plasma protein angiotensinogen, process initiated by renin.

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 100

1

Oxytocin

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It binds to the ligand-gated sodium channel of smooth muscle cells of the uterus

  • It is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells

  • It has galactopoietic activity -it stimulates production of milk

  • It produses contraction of the cells in the deferent duct

  • It up-regulates synth of IP3 in SMC of the uterus

  • It produces contraction of the uterus

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 100

1

Phenomena causing increased liberation of renin are:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Reduced volume of ECF and hypoperfusion of the kidney

  • Increased arterial pressure

  • Decreased load of distal tubular fluid (NaCl) in area of the macula densa (of the distal tubule

  • Increased volume of ECF (hypervolemina)

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 100

1

Channels embedded in cellular membrane can be gated by:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Extracellular ligand such as glycine

  • Change of the electrical potential of the cellular membrane

  • Mechanical deformation of the cell (ex. Organ of corti)

  • Second messenger such as IP3

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • PTH increases conc. of Ca2+ in plasma blood.

  • PTH up-regulates mobilisation of Ca2+ ions from bones.

  • PTH increases activity of la-hydroxylase of 25OH D3 in kidneys

  • Thyroid hormones decrease plasma concentration of calcium

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Growth hormone exerts hypercalcemic effect

  • PTH decreases activity of 1alpha-hydroxylase of vitamin 25-OHD3 in kidney

  • Calcitonin & glucocorticoids decrease plasma level of Ca2+

  • Tetany is a symptom of hypercalcemia

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 100

1

Tetany:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Is a symptom of neuromuscular hyperexcitability

  • Can be produced by respiratory alkalosis (by hyperventilation)

  • Is caused by Low phosphate levels

  • Tetany can be prod by low plasma levels of Mg2+

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 100

1

Which of following will NOT haemolyse erythrocytes?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5% solution of glucose

  • 0.3 % NaCl

  • Distilled water

  • 0,6% saline​

  • Benzene, ether & other organic solvents hemolyse RBC’s

  • Temp. above 60C

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 100

1

Which of following will facilitate detachment of oxygen from oxyhemoglobin?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Rise of pH

  • Rise pO2 ​

  • Rise in body temp

  • Rise in pCO2

Explicación

Pregunta 48 de 100

1

What's true about EPO?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • EPO is produced by interstitial cells in peritubular capillary bed of kidneys

  • Adenosine and androgens inhibit secretion of EPO

  • Hypoxia (low partial pressure of O2) in kidney is the main stimulus for EPO release

  • EPO increases the number of erythropoietin sensitive committed stem cells in the bone marrow that are converted by red blood cell precursors

Explicación

Pregunta 49 de 100

1

EPO;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Is a cholesterol

  • Is a glycoprotein

  • Synthesised in the liver

  • Synthesised in the kidneys

Explicación

Pregunta 50 de 100

1

Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10% of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Conversion is spontaneous and performed in plasma of blood

  • 5-7% of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood

  • Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin

  • carbaminohemoglobin is an example of reduced hemoglobin of red-brown colour

  • CO2 can be found as carbaminians & carbanomoHb in the blood

  • Most of CO2 is converted to HCO3- by carbonic anhydrase of RBC

Explicación

Pregunta 51 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • They migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes

  • They aggregate in tissues when allergic reactions occur, (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma)

  • They release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin

  • They exhibit chemotaxis

Explicación

Pregunta 52 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern agglutination?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Administration of heparin slows the process agglutination

  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin

  • Agglutination results from an interaction between the platelet’s GP IIb/IIIa and vascular collagen

  • Gamma globulins of IgM class are able to produce immediate agglutination in room temperature

Explicación

Pregunta 53 de 100

1

What is correct about AB blood type?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of N-acetylgalactosamine onto H-Ag.

  • Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of D-galactose onto H-Ag.

  • AB is the most common blood type

  • Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of fucose forming H-Ag.

  • AB has no antigens

Explicación

Pregunta 54 de 100

1

What is true about Agglutination?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Agglutination of Anti-D Antibody gives Rhesus -

  • Agglutination by anti-A Antibody, but not Anti-B Antibody gives the blood type A

  • No agglutination of Anti-D ab, gives Rhesus -

  • Agglutinins of A-B-O are produced in adulthood

  • All Ag of the rhesus system are proteins located on membranes of RBC’s.

Explicación

Pregunta 55 de 100

1

What is true about blood type?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Agglutination of both Anti-B & Anti-A ab, give blood type AB

  • No Agglutination of either Anti-A or Anti-B Ab give blood type O

  • There are 4 blood types

  • Ag are proteins located only on membranes of RBC

Explicación

Pregunta 56 de 100

1

Hemolysis;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 5% solution of glucose is isotonic will hemolyse RBC

  • IgG against D-Ag administered to RhD-neg mother after delivery of RhD-pos child, will not hemolyse maternal RBC’s

  • Hemolysis by hypotonic saline solutions start at 0,45%

  • Hypertonic solutions hemolyse RBC's

Explicación

Pregunta 57 de 100

1

Turk's solution;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • solution stains RBC

  • solution shrinks RBC

  • used in hemocytermeter dilutes blood

  • hemolyse RBC's

  • stains organelles of WBC

Explicación

Pregunta 58 de 100

1

Hayem's solution;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • solution stains RBC

  • solution shrinks RBC

  • solution dilute blood

  • stains organelles of WBC

  • Hemolyse RBC's

Explicación

Pregunta 59 de 100

1

Complement;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Presenting on the water soluble antigen

  • Complement have chemotaxis of macrophages & neutrophils

  • Complements promotes agglutination of invading microbes

  • Complement have opsonising abilities

  • degranulation of the eosinophils and monocytes

Explicación

Pregunta 60 de 100

1

What is correct about diffusion?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.

  • Facilitated diffusion characterises with infinite rate of transfer of substance defined as maximum saturation.

  • Simple diffusion - its rate is directly proportionate to the surface area & directly proportionate to the molecular size & thickness of the membrane

  • Secondary active transport uses potential energy in conc. gradient of some ions created by energy liberated from ATP, such as Na+

  • Simple diffusion depends on molecules ability to dissolve in lipids

  • Secondary active transport can transfer co-transported molecules even against conc. gradient.

Explicación

Pregunta 61 de 100

1

What is correct about blood?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Sphingosine 1-phosphate (SIP) derived from RBC membrane is a chemoattractant for HSC from bone marrow.

  • High % of RDW indicates anisocytosis of RBC

  • D-Ag is the most Ag (strongest) component of the Rh system

  • ESR decreases with conc of plasma globulins

Explicación

Pregunta 62 de 100

1

Water;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ICF is 20% of TBW

  • TBW is 60% of body mass

  • ICF main cation is K+

  • ECF main cation is Mg2+

Explicación

Pregunta 63 de 100

1

Functions of ionised Ca2+

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • maintenance of proper function of neurons & myocytes

  • maintenance of function of cell-memb. (Transport)

  • Increase blood volume

  • Factor 4 in blood coagulation

Explicación

Pregunta 64 de 100

1

B-cells;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • B-cells mediate humeral immunity

  • B-cells mediate cellular immunity

  • B-cells work in effect of antigenic stimulation, they form plasma cells which secrete immunoglobulins

  • B-cells have MHC-2 present on their membranes

Explicación

Pregunta 65 de 100

1

IgG;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • IgG is a memory immunoglobulin

  • IgG binds C1 complex of complement to Ag-IgG complex, initiating classical pathway

  • IgG has only 2 Ag-binding sites

  • IgG can be found in tears & saliva

Explicación

Pregunta 66 de 100

1

Correct sequence of phagocytosis/inflammatory response;
1. Rolling
2. Chemotaxis
3. Diapedesis
4. Adhesion

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1, 3, 2, 4,

  • 2, 4, 3, 1

  • 1, 4, 3, 2

  • 3, 4, 2, 1

Explicación

Pregunta 67 de 100

1

What is INCORRECT about blood

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to Hb, forming carbamino-Hb

  • Ag’s are found in various tissues in addition to blood

  • Blood type A has a N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase catalysing its attachment to H-Ag

  • RBC have MHC-1

Explicación

Pregunta 68 de 100

1

Identify right statements concerning the Bleeding time test

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Its duration is inversely proportional to the number of platelets

  • it does not depend on concentration and activity of plasma factors of secondary hemostasis

  • it is prolonged in people treated with heparin

  • it tests processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

Explicación

Pregunta 69 de 100

1

Analyze ABO system of a couple: a woman (blood type A) has a father whose blood type is O, and is married to a man whose blood type is B (his mother type is A). What is their child probability of blood type A:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 75%

  • 0%

  • 50%

  • 25%

Explicación

Pregunta 70 de 100

1

Which of the following statements properly concern muscarinic receptors?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • All muscarinic receptors are serpentine G-coupled receptors.

  • Some of them are ligand-gated ionic channels.

  • Muscarinic receptors modify activity of adenylyl cyclase of phospholipase C.

  • Acetylcholine is an antagonist of all muscarinic receptors.

Explicación

Pregunta 71 de 100

1

Find proper sequence of events in signal transduction of the G-Protein coupled receptor;
1. Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates ​
2. Receptor interacts with G-protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP to GTP ​
3. Subunits of G-Protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins. ​
4. Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of beta-subunit of the receptor, beta-subunit
5. ) G-Protein dissociates from the receptor, Subunits of G protein dissociate​ ​

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

  • 2, 3, 5, 4, 1

  • 1, 2, 5, 3, 4

  • 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

Explicación

Pregunta 72 de 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern gating of channels of a cellular membrane:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Glycine receptor is an example of chemically-gated channel for Cl- ion

  • Smooth muscle cells can contract being mechanically stretched. Mediated by stretch-gated channels.

  • Action potential of excitable cells is usually provoked by outflow of anions through ligand-gated channels

  • Action potential of excitable cells in usually evoked by entrance of cations through electrically gated channels. (Na+ & K+)

Explicación

Pregunta 73 de 100

1

Which of the following statements concerning water are true:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Specific Heat of water is low. Because of this reason water is excellent heat conductor

  • Water is an excellent solvent because of its polar molecule

  • Water easily passes across cellular membrane via non-gated channels for cations

  • Adipose tissue is least hydrated tissue

Explicación

Pregunta 74 de 100

1

Find right sentences concerning erythrocyte sedimentation rate;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • it is a ratio of volume of all erythrocyte to volume of whole blood

  • It is proportionate to packed cell volume (PCV, Hematocrit)

  • Proportionate to plasma concentration of globulin

  • It should not exceed 15mm/h in healthy adults. Is higher in infectious diseases & cancers

Explicación

Pregunta 75 de 100

1

IgM

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • It can easily produce agglutination of erythrocytes in room temperature

  • It can cross blood placenta barrier

  • Has 10 binding-sites

  • it’s a secretory immunoglobulin

Explicación

Pregunta 76 de 100

1

Which of the following statements are true and concern cholinergic receptors:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • All muscarinic receptors are g-protein coupled receptors​.

  • Some of them are ionotropic receptors of postsynaptic membrane of autonomic ganglia (+ CSN)

  • Activation of muscarinic receptors increases activity of adenylyl cyclase

  • Some of cholinergic receptors are tyrosine kinase

  • Only 2 types; N-cholinergic & Muscarinic

Explicación

Pregunta 77 de 100

1

Which of the following receptors are metabotropic:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • PTH receptor

  • IP3 receptor

  • IGF receptor​

  • Adrenergic receptor (Epinephrine)

Explicación

Pregunta 78 de 100

1

Which of the following statements properly describes nicotinic receptor:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • it is a ligand-gated sodium channel

  • Activity of this receptor brings IPSP to postsynaptic membrane of neuromuscular junction

  • channel for small cations and anions. blocked by nicotine

  • 2 molecules of a natural agonist are bound to alpha-subunits of receptor

Explicación

Pregunta 79 de 100

1

Young adult non-obese female 50 kg was injected intravenously with 1200 mg inulin. Laboratory analysis revealed that plasma C of inulin is 120mg/L. Proper conclusion is:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Volume of plasma is improper and equals 10 liters, possible reason is overhydration or hypervolemia

  • Volume of plasma is proper and equals 3.2-3,5 liters. Water homeostasis is maintained

  • Volume of extracellular fluid is proper and equals 10 liters. Water homeostasis is maintained

  • Volume of extracellular is improper and equals 10 liters. The possible reason is dehydration

Explicación

Pregunta 80 de 100

1

Identify right statement concerning ​erythrocytes​:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • carboxyhemoglobin is a reduced form

  • Methb is an oxidised form

  • Blood carries 97% O2

  • Blood carries 97% CO2

Explicación

Pregunta 81 de 100

1

What is correct concerning the ​intrinsic​ pathway:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • depends on factor 11-12a, Kallikrein

  • depends on release of HMWK

  • depends on factor 3-12

  • depends on vascular wall

  • needs calcium ions

Explicación

Pregunta 82 de 100

1

Growth factor is stimulated by;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • hyperglycemia

  • hypoglycemia

  • stress and sleep (REM)

  • physical exercise

Explicación

Pregunta 83 de 100

1

Identify statements characteristic for “0” typed individuals in ABO system:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • They have gene/genes coding for the sequence amino acids of fucosyl-transferase

  • have no antigens on membranes of erythrocytes

  • Both anti-A and anti-B immunoglobulins are synthesized after exposition to those antigens

  • Both anti-A and anti-B hemagglutinins are present in their plasma since their birth

Explicación

Pregunta 84 de 100

1

Haemolytic Newborn disease can cause:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Anemia

  • Hypobilirubinemia

  • death

  • edema

Explicación

Pregunta 85 de 100

1

Which of following processes may ​facilitate agglutination.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Cooling (decreasing of temp) of in vitro preparation

  • Administration of Ig against human IgG (Coombs test)

  • Enzymatic modification of molecules of IgG immunoglobulins

  • Activation of complement system performed by complexes antigen immunoglobulins IgM/IgG

Explicación

Pregunta 86 de 100

1

In healthy humans which of following morphological elements of peripheral blood have ​shortest​ life span

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Macrophages

  • Thrombocytes (platelets)

  • Hematopoietic stem cells

  • Erythrocytes​

Explicación

Pregunta 87 de 100

1

Which of following statement concerning erythrocytes are true:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • MCV is an erythrocyte index expressing average volume of erythrocytes

  • RDW (RBC distribution width) is quantitative measure of MCV

  • Conc. of hemoglobin in blood of healthy adult women ranges 12-16 g/dL

  • Standard erythrocyte due to its size + shape is not able to pass via capillaries which diameter is lower than 10 micrometer

Explicación

Pregunta 88 de 100

1

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT):

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Prolonged in case of low plasma concentration of fibrinogen (Factor 1

  • Depends on processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

  • Depends on platelets count

  • Depends on state of vascular wall

Explicación

Pregunta 89 de 100

1

Identify proper statement concerning plasma coagulation proteins dependent on vitamin K;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • They can be activated by heparin. substrates for thrombin

  • Post-translatory modification of molecules of prothrombin factor 2 & 10 in liver, depends on Vit K

  • Factor 2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S are Vit. K dep.

  • Activity is inhibited by inhibitors of cyclooxygenase

  • They are proteolytic enzymes (serine-proteases)

  • Inhibited by coumarin-derivatives such as dikumarol + warfarin

Explicación

Pregunta 90 de 100

1

Extrinsic pathway of coagulation:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • begins with liberation of tissue thromboplastin (tissue factor (3))

  • begins with exposure of collagen

  • Requires calcium ions​ & ​PL

  • Requires factor 12 for full activation of hemostatic process

Explicación

Pregunta 91 de 100

1

Ionotropic receptor producing IPSP:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • muscarinic receptor

  • nicotinic receptor

  • glycine receptor

  • GABAa receptor

Explicación

Pregunta 92 de 100

1

GABAa is:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Voltage gated Cl- channel

  • Ligand gated Cl- channel

  • Activation leads to IPSP

  • Activation leads to EPSP

Explicación

Pregunta 93 de 100

1

Thrombin dependant (hydrolyzed by thrombin) coagulation factors are;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Factor 2

  • Factor 5, 8, 13

  • Fibrinogen (factor 1)

  • high molecular weight kininogen (HmWK) -

Explicación

Pregunta 94 de 100

1

Identify right statements concerning Prothrombin time

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • is prolonged in treatment with antivitamin K (+ diseases of liver)

  • depends on processes of extrinsic pathway

  • depends on processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

  • depends on platelets count (number of platelets)

Explicación

Pregunta 95 de 100

1

In neuromuscular junction you can find:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • N-Cholinergic receptor

  • B-Adrenergic receptor

  • Acetylcholine receptor

  • Folds of cardiac membrane

Explicación

Pregunta 96 de 100

1

Primary Hemostasis:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Depend on equilibrium between plasma coagulation proteins & blood vessel

  • Tested by clotting time and APTT

  • Tested by bleeding time

  • Prolonged in individuals treated with inhibitors of cyclooxygenases (aspirin)

Explicación

Pregunta 97 de 100

1

So called contact factors of coagulation are:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Plasma coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X, C-protein, S protein

  • Pasma coagulation factors I, V, VIII, XIII

  • HMWK, prekallikrein

  • Plasma coagulation factors XI, XII

Explicación

Pregunta 98 de 100

1

Primary hemostasis is composed of:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Activation of plasma coagulation factors X, II and I.

  • Contraction of the damaged vessel

  • Adhesion, activation, aggregation, granulation of platelets

  • Agglutination and coagulation of platelets

Explicación

Pregunta 99 de 100

1

So called active immunity develops after:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • After natural invasion of a pathogen and development of the response

  • Vaccination with separated antigens of microbes

  • Parenteral administration of ready-made immunoglobulins

  • Passage of maternal immunoglobulins via placenta, with milk or colostrum

Explicación

Pregunta 100 de 100

1

Clotting time;

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Prolonged in people treated with heparin

  • Tests Intrinsic pathway & common pathway

  • Depends on the vascular wall

  • Depends on nr. of platelets

Explicación