1. Which cancer originates from connective tissue?
a. Osteogenic sarcoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Adenocarcinoma
2. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
a. Blood vessels
b. Epithelial cells
c. Connective tissue
Glandular
3. Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
a. Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
b. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
c. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
d. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
4. Which term is used to describe a cell showing a loss of cellular differentiation?
a. Dysplasia
b. Hyperplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. Anaplasia
5. What are tumor cell markers?
a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells
b. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
c. Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells
d. Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy
6. What is one function of the tumor cell marker?
a. To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer
b. To treat certain types of cancer
c. To predict where cancers will develop
d. To screen individuals at high risk for cancer
7. Which statement supports the hypothesis that intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in the development of colon cancer?
a. Cancer cells accumulate slower than noncancer cells.
b. An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required to develop cancer.
c. Tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.
d. Apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli, including excessive growth.
8. Autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to do what?
a. Stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply
b. Encourage secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors
c. Secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth
d. Divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use
9. What is apoptosis?
a. Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
b. Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
c. Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
d. Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia
10. A student studying biology asks the professor to describe how the ras gene is involved in cancer proliferation. What explanation by the professor is best?
a. It suppresses the action of the tumor-suppressor genes.
b. It changes the way the growth promotion genes work.
c. A mutation in this gene allows continuous cell growth.
d. It activates a cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus.
11. The professor explains to students that oncogenes are genes that are capable of what?
a. Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation
b. Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue
c. Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue
d. Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis
12. Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
a. Point mutation
b. Chromosome translocation
c. Gene amplification
d. Chromosome fusion
13. In childhood neuroblastoma, the N-myc oncogene undergoes which type of mutation of normal gene to oncogene?
b. Chromosome fusion
d. Chromosome translocation
14. What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?
a. Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.
b. The tumor-suppressor gene is turned off.
c. Genetic amplification causes the growth.
d. Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.
15. Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes?
a. Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.
b. The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.
c. Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to affect carcinogenesis.
d. The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
16. How does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?
a. Designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
b. Duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies
c. Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs
d. Promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes
17. How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase?
a. To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth
b. As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division
c. To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
d. To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely
18. What are characteristics of benign tumors?
a. Benign tumors invade local tissues.
b. Benign tumors spread through the lymph nodes.
c. Benign tumors cause systemic symptoms.
d. Benign tumors include the suffix -oma.
19. What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?
a. Herpes simplex virus type 6
b. Herpes simplex virus type 2
c. Human papillomavirus
d. Human immunodeficiency virus
20. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
a. Ovarian
b. Uterine
c. Cervical
d. Vaginal
21. A healthcare professional is caring for a patient undergoing chemotherapy. What is the skin- related health risk the professional should assess the patient for and be prepared to treat?
a. Infection
b. Ultraviolet damage
c. Pain
d. Erythema
22. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?
a. Proto-oncogenes
b. Oncogenes
c. Tumor-suppressor genes
d. Growth-promoting genes
23. What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation?
a. Cells undergo apoptosis.
b. Cells escape apoptosis.
c. Cells receive less oxygen.
d. Cells adhere more readily.
24. Which gastrointestinal tract condition can be an outcome of both chemotherapy and radiation therapy?
a. Increased cell turnover
b. Constipation
c. Stomatitis
d. Bloody stool
25. What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis?
a. To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells
b. To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells
c. To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis
d. To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels
26. It has been determined that a patient’s tumor is in stage 2. How does the healthcare professional describe this finding to the patient
a. Cancer is confined to the organ of origin.
b. Cancer has spread to regional structures.
c. Cancer is locally invasive.
d. Cancer has spread to distant sites.
27. A cancer patient has pain at the tumor site and is worried the tumor has metastasized. What does the healthcare provider understand about this patient’s complaint?
a. Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.
b. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.
c. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.
d. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.
28. A healthcare professional is caring for four patients with cancer. Which patient does the professional educate about brachytherapy?
a. Lung
b. Colon
d. Brain
29. A child has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). What does the healthcare professional tell the parents about the survival rate at 5 years for this disease
a. 90%
b. 70%
c. 40%
d. 20%
30. By what process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals?
a. Proto-oncogene
b. Autocrine stimulation
c. Reliance on caretaker genes
d. Pleomorphology
31. What is the role of caretaker genes?
a. Maintenance of genomic integrity
b. Proliferation of cancer cells
c. Secretion of growth factors
d. Restoration of normal tissue structure
32. In a normal, nonmutant state, what is an oncogene referred to as?
a. Basal cell
b. Target cell
c. Caretaker gene
d. Proto-oncogene
33. What does the student learn about pleomorphic cells?
a. Pleomorphic cells are similar in size.
b. They have different sizes and shapes.
c. They are a result of anaplasia.
d. Pleomorphic cells differentiate uniformly.
34. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
a. Nausea
b. Fatigue
c. Hair loss
d. Weight loss
35. What does the health professions student learn about benign tumors?
a. The resulting pain is severe.
b. Benign tumors are not encapsulated.
c. Benign tumors are fast growing.
d. The cells are well-differentiated.
1. Normally, which cells are considered immortal? (Select all that apply.)
a. Germ
b. Stem
c. Blood
d. Epithelial
e. Muscle
2. What is the most common route for distant metastasis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Seeding
b. Blood
c. Lymphatic vessels
d. Invasion
e. Proliferation
3. What cellular characteristics are affected by anaplasia? (Select all that apply)
a. Size
b. Ability to differentiate
c. Life expectancy
d. Tissue structure
e. Shape
4. What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections among patients with cancer? (Select all that apply.)
a. Indwelling medical devices
b. Suppressed immune system
c. Visitor-introduced microorganisms
d. Poor appetite
e. Inadequate wound care
5. Which statements concerning aging and the occurrence of cancer are true? (Select all that apply.)
a. Decline in immunologic functions
b. Predisposition to nutritional inadequacies
c. Unwillingness to access healthcare services
d. Reluctance to engage in cancer screenings
e. Effects of immobility on the immune system
6. Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation? (Select all that apply.)
a. Brain
Bone
d. Thyroid gland
e. Urinary bladder
7. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who has cancer and a hemoglobin of 8.8 mg/dL. What factors should the professional assess the patient for?
a. Chronic bleeding
b. Malabsorption of iron
c. Malnutrition
d. Recent blood transfusion
e. Current infection
