Kevin John Hopp
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Kevin John Hopp
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Pregunta 1 de 200

1

(203) What design standards do you need to be aware for all military construction?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Military and government only.

  • Military, industrial, and government.

  • Military, industrial, and local ordinances

  • Metropolitan ordinances, military, and industrial.

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 200

1

(203) Where can you find the military design standards for military construction?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • AFMC.

  • AFCESA.

  • US Army Corps of Engineers.

  • Unified Facilities Guide Specification.

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 200

1

(204) In the Unified Soils Classification System, what type of soil group does the letter “M” designates?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Silt.

  • Sand.

  • Gravel.

  • Highly organic.

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 200

1

(204) At least what percent of the soil must be retained on the No. 200 sieve for it to be classified as coarse grained?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10 percent.

  • 20 percent.

  • 40 percent.

  • 50 percent.

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 200

1

(204) What size sieve is used to distinguish between gravels and sands?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • No. 4

  • No. 10

  • No. 40

  • No. 200

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 200

1

(204) Which of these properties indicate whether or not soil contains clay?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Cohesion.

  • Plasticity.

  • Compaction.

  • Permeability.

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 200

1

(204) When wet soil is air-dried in a laboratory, the moisture is removed by evaporation until

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a constant weight is attained.

  • the meniscus in the pore openings restricts the rate of capillary rise.

  • the hygroscopic moisture in the soil is in equilibrium with the moisture vapor in the air.

  • the capillary fringe in the soil recedes to a point where it is in equilibrium with hygroscopic moisture.

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 200

1

(204) What is the plasticity index of a soil with a liquid limit of 28 and a plastic limit of 21?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 0.75.

  • 1.33

  • 7.00

  • 49.0

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 200

1

(205) What do we call the particle size distribution of a soil aggregate?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Angularity

  • Durability.

  • Gradation.

  • Granularity.

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 200

1

(205) A soil whose individual grains cover a narrow range of particle sizes is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • un-graded.

  • gap-graded.

  • well-graded.

  • poorly graded.

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 200

1

(205) What should be done if a structure is likely to be affected by the ground water table or by capillary action?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Lower the grade line.

  • Raise the ground water table.

  • Keep the site location regardless of cost.

  • Change the site location if there is enough cause.

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 200

1

(206) To prevent the flow of water from standing in low places and seeping into the ground, the minimum longitudinal grade of a ditch should be

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 0.2 percent.

  • 0.5 percent.

  • 2 percent.

  • 5 percent

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 200

1

(206) The maximum grade of ditch side slopes is determined by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the nature of the soil.

  • the area to be drained.

  • specification limitations.

  • the equipment available.

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 200

1

(206) Which of these conditions is a function of subsurface drainage?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • To lower the water table.

  • To raise the water table.

  • To maintain underground springs.

  • To collect water in pools or layers beneath the surface.

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 200

1

(206) What is the minimum distance required between the top of the base course and the natural water table if frost action is to be prevented?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 feet

  • 3 feet

  • 4 feet

  • 5 feet

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 200

1

(207) Asphalt cement is usually made fluid by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • heating

  • adding alcohol

  • mixing with coal tar

  • adding ascorbic acid

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 200

1

(208) Which of these is not one of the functions of aggregate in a bituminous pavement mix?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Provide a nonskid surface.

  • Provide a binder for the bitumen.

  • Transmit the load to the base course.

  • Take the abrasive action of the traffic.

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 200

1

(208) Which of these can determine an aggregate’s affinity for water?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Wash test.

  • Stripping test

  • Distillation test

  • Mohs hardness test

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 200

1

(209) Which variables affect the final mix-design of a bituminous pavement?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Moisture content and aggregate size.

  • Moisture content, intended use, gradation, and angularity.

  • Intended use, binder type, loading, and maximum aggregate size.

  • Plasticity, binder type, maximum aggregate size, and angularity.

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 200

1

(209) A bituminous pavement mixture should be

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • durable, workable, and porous.

  • able to withstand traffic loads, durable, and porous

  • able to withstand traffic loads, workable, and durable.

  • workable, able to withstand traffic loads, and durable.

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 200

1

(210) Water’s main function in concrete mix is to

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • make the mix workable and inhibit hydration.

  • make the mix workable and start hydration.

  • increase the weight of mix and inhibit hydration.

  • decrease the amount of mix and start hydration.

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 200

1

(210) Fine aggregate used in cement paste should have a

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • rough shape to promote workability.

  • round shape to promote workability.

  • round shape to promote uniformity.

  • rough shape to promote uniformity.

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 200

1

(210) To be suitable for construction, concrete should be

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • strong, watertight, durable, and workable.

  • economical, strong, watertight, and uniform.

  • durable, watertight, workable, and uniform.

  • well graded, economical, strong, and watertight.

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 200

1

(211) Which of these plastic concrete properties is affected as you add more aggregate to a given amount of cement paste?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Non-segregation.

  • Workability.

  • Uniformity.

  • Durability.

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 200

1

(211) Which of these factors affects the watertightness of a concrete mix?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Aggregate size.

  • Aggregate gradation.

  • Water to cement ratio.

  • Cement amount in mix.

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 200

1

(212) The acceptable range for air content in air-entrained concrete is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 to 5.5 percent.

  • 3 to 6.6 percent

  • 4 to 7.5 percent.

  • 5 to 8.5 percent.

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 200

1

(212) When too much silt and clay are present in a concrete mixture, the concrete surface

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • cannot withstand abrasion.

  • may be covered by hair cracks.

  • has large cracks.

  • is shiny.

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 200

1

(213) Cracks in concrete may be controlled by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • reducing restraint through the use of joints and increasing moisture to the concrete mix.

  • reducing steel stresses at service load conditions and increasing restraint through the use of joints.

  • increasing moisture to the concrete mix and providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement.

  • providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement and reducing restraint through the use of joints.

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 200

1

(213) Which type of joint is used to allow placement of separate construction elements at different times?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Control joints.

  • Seismic joints.

  • Expansion joints.

  • Construction joints.

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 200

1

(214) The loads present within a structure are classified as

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • uniformly distributed loads and concentrated loads.

  • uniformly distributed loads and live loads.

  • concentrated loads and dead loads.

  • live loads and dead loads.

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 200

1

(214) Which kind of stress in a structure occurs on the side opposite the load?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Shear

  • Torsion

  • Tension

  • Compression

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 200

1

215) Walls, columns, piers, or pilasters resting on footings are used with

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • spread foundations.

  • mat foundations.

  • raft foundations.

  • pile foundations.

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 200

1

(215) In general, footings should be located so that they

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • rest on compacted organic soil.

  • are at a minimum of 5 feet below undisturbed soil.

  • are above the ground water table and above the frost line.

  • are above the ground water table but below the frost line.

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 200

1

(215) A foundation that develops the load bearing capacity through friction with the adjacent soil

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • uses isolated footings.

  • uses continuous footings.

  • is a type of pile foundation.

  • is a type of spread foundation.

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 200

1

(216) What type of concrete masonry unit CMU is not used for Air Force facilities?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Type I, moisture controlled.

  • Type II, moisture controlled.

  • Type I, non-moisture controlled.

  • Type II, non-moisture controlled.

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 200

1

(217) When may structural steel for buildings be permanently exposed to weather?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • When using hollow steel columns.

  • When using exterior structural steel.

  • When overall efficiency and economy will result.

  • When using non-expansion and non-contraction joints.

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 200

1

(217) Temperature and deflection movements in a structural steel framing system are controlled by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • rigid framing techniques.

  • the spacing between members.

  • expansion and contraction joints.

  • welding the connections instead of using rivets or bolts.

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 200

1

(218) The dimensional stability of plywood is improved through

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • additional layers.

  • cross-lamination.

  • the use of waterproof glue.

  • additives impregnated into the fibers.

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 200

1

(218) In regard to wood framing, values known as allowable unit stresses consider the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • species and grade of wood members.

  • stress values within the wood members.

  • necessary dimensions for wood members.

  • effects of strength reducing characteristics such as knots.

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 200

1

(218) The stiffness of a wood beam is measured by its

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • strength.

  • allowable unit stress.

  • modulus of elasticity.

  • resistance to bending.

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 200

1

(219) When constructing a facility what factors determine the design of the plumbing system?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Quantity and types of fixtures, length of storm drainage, capacities of water main, and total number of building population.

  • Capacity of water main, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and total number of building population.

  • Total number of building population, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and capacities of equipment and tanks.

  • Capacities of equipment and tanks, total number of building population, length of storm drainage, and quantity and types of fixtures.

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 200

1

(220) Any part of a piping system, other than a main riser or stack piping, leading from the runout to the individual fixture is called a

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • branch vent

  • loop vent

  • relief vent

  • branch

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 200

1

(220) The single sloping drain from the base of a soil or waste stack to its junction with the main building drain or with another branch is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a runout.

  • an interceptor.

  • a primary branch.

  • a building sewer.

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 200

1

(221) Which of the following pipe is used for hot and cold water distribution systems and venting piping?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fiber.

  • Cast-iron.

  • Wrought-iron

  • Copper tubing.

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 200

1

(222) Sewage systems are made up of the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • main, drain, and vent piping systems.

  • main, waste, and vent piping systems.

  • main, drain, and waste piping systems.

  • drain, waste, and vent piping systems.

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 200

1

(223) The proportions of gases that make up dry air

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • are substantially constant at all points on the earth’s surface.

  • change with the amount of water vapor present in the air.

  • change with variations in temperature.

  • vary with the barometric pressure.

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 200

1

(224) Which of the following provides positive and reliable means for controlling temperature, humidity, and moisture condensation?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Cooling by forced or natural ventilation with outside air.

  • Cooling by the effects of heat conduction into the surrounding earth.

  • Mechanical cooling and dehumidifying with refrigeration or well water.

  • Capitalizing on natural elements by orienting facilities to shade and prevailing wind.

Explicación

Pregunta 48 de 200

1

(225) Outside air temperatures usually drop after sundown while inside temperatures are kept up by heat absorbed by the structure. Therefore, one way to effectively cool the building is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ventilating the building with outside air during the heat of the day only.

  • ventilating the building with small quantities of outside air after sundown.

  • ventilating the building with large quantities of outside air after sundown.

  • ventilating the building with moderate quantities of outside air throughout the day.

Explicación

Pregunta 49 de 200

1

(226) High-pressure heating systems are defined as those which operate at pressures in excess of

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 150 psi.

  • 100 psi.

  • 30 psi.

  • 15 psi.

Explicación

Pregunta 50 de 200

1

(226) A low-pressure heating system requires

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • less radiator surface but larger pipes than a high-pressure system.

  • the same radiator surface and pipe size as a high-pressure system.

  • less radiator surface and smaller pipes than a high-pressure system.

  • greater radiator surface and larger pipes than a high-pressure system.

Explicación

Pregunta 51 de 200

1

(227) What type of ventilation can be used only in areas such as storage buildings and hangars?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Unit.

  • Gravity.

  • Comfort.

  • Mechanical.

Explicación

Pregunta 52 de 200

1

(227) The two general classifications of fans are

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • vane and tube.

  • axial and vane.

  • axial and centrifugal.

  • tube and centrifugal.

Explicación

Pregunta 53 de 200

1

(227) Most air filters in use today are the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • viscous type.

  • air washer type.

  • electrostatic precipitators.

  • permanent and reusable type.

Explicación

Pregunta 54 de 200

1

(228) Which of the following principles are used in the refrigeration cycle?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Evaporation, expansion, and pressure of liquids.

  • Temperature, pressure, and expansion of liquids.

  • Expansion, evaporation, and pressure of liquids.

  • Evaporation, pressure, and temperature of liquids.

Explicación

Pregunta 55 de 200

1

(228) A direct expansion system is best used to effectively cool

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • multistory buildings.

  • single-story buildings.

  • a group of buildings.

  • small single offices.

Explicación

Pregunta 56 de 200

1

(229) What type of dual-temperature system uses a two or four-pipe system?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • All air system.

  • All water system.

  • Air and water system.

  • Radiant heating system.

Explicación

Pregunta 57 de 200

1

(230) A unit of electrical measure that shows current drain is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • amp

  • watt

  • ohm

  • volt

Explicación

Pregunta 58 de 200

1

(231) In electrical design, what should generally be the minimum size of a conductor for a branch circuit?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 8 gauge.

  • 10 gauge.

  • 12 gauge.

  • 14 gauge.

Explicación

Pregunta 59 de 200

1

(232) What funding document is used to initially request and authorize funds toward design and/or construction requirements?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • AF IMT 9, Request For Purchase.

  • AF IMT 103, Work Clearance Request.

  • AF IMT 332, Base Civil Engineer Work Request.

  • DD Form 1391, FY __ Military Construction Project Data.

Explicación

Pregunta 60 de 200

1

(233) All construction design projects, whether designed in-house or by an Architectural- Engineering (A-E firm), are required to go through a

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • conceptual design review.

  • constructability review.

  • contractibility review.

  • contingency review

Explicación

Pregunta 61 de 200

1

(234) Which IDIQ contract has been tailored to support MILCON Air Force Military Family Housing (MFH) and other light commercial construction projects such as dormitories, transient lodging, and administration facilities?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Design Build Plus (DB+).

  • Design Bid Build (D-B-B).

  • Multiple Award Construction Contracts (MACC).

  • Simplified Acquisition Base Engineer Requirement (SABER).

Explicación

Pregunta 62 de 200

1

(234) What do the detailed task specifications encompass under a SABER contract?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Real property maintenance and repair.

  • Real property repair and construction needs for the installation.

  • Real property maintenance and construction needs for the installation.

  • Real property maintenance, repair, and construction needs for the installation.

Explicación

Pregunta 63 de 200

1

(235) Which of the following would not be included in the Statement of Work (SOW) for a construction contract?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Government drawings.

  • Government cost estimates.

  • Government technical specifications.

  • Government maps (i.e., travel routes or restricted areas).

Explicación

Pregunta 64 de 200

1

(236) Which statement is not true regarding general provision in a contract?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • General provisions pertain to all contracts.

  • They are optional and used at the discretion of the contracting officer.

  • They protect the contractor and government in fulfilling the terms of the contract.

  • They are the required FAR clauses and a standard to all fixed-price construction projects.

Explicación

Pregunta 65 de 200

1

(237) Who must make sure the as-built drawings are submitted to drafting to become record drawings?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • BCE

  • Inspector

  • Contracto

  • Project Manager

Explicación

Pregunta 66 de 200

1

(238) Which statement is not true regarding Independent Government Estimates?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • They are used for comparing costs or prices proposed by offeror(s)

  • They are used for budgeting and reserving funds for the contract.

  • They are used to capture relative cost incurred during construction.

  • They are used for determining price reasonableness when only one proposal is received.

Explicación

Pregunta 67 de 200

1

(239) Which of the following is not a viable source for developing independent government cost estimates?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Contractor proposals.

  • Previous similar contracts.

  • Commercial pricing guides and software.

  • Existing architectural engineer estimates.

Explicación

Pregunta 68 de 200

1

(240) Independent Government Cost Estimates should be classified

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Secret.

  • Sensitive.

  • Confidential.

  • For Official Use Only

Explicación

Pregunta 69 de 200

1

(241) It is permissible for the contract inspector and contractor’s representative to have lunch and discuss business as long as the meal is paid for by the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Government.

  • contract inspector.

  • Dutch treat method.

  • contractor’s representative.

Explicación

Pregunta 70 de 200

1

(242) For a Military Construction Project (MCP) project, the major command’s responsibilities for surveillance normally require how many visits before the acceptance inspection?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • One

  • Monthly

  • Quarterly

  • At least two

Explicación

Pregunta 71 de 200

1

(242) Under the military construction program, when the Air Force is not the construction agent, the AF inspector is concerned with which of the following surveillance programs?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Daily and partial.

  • Daily and routine.

  • Routine and initial.

  • Routine and partial.

Explicación

Pregunta 72 de 200

1

(242) Most post-acceptance inspections are made to

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • re-assess construction costs.

  • determine routine maintenance needs.

  • ascertain scheduled maintenance frequency.

  • discover latent design or functional deficiencies.

Explicación

Pregunta 73 de 200

1

(243) Who would be the single point-of-contact for the BCE and contracting officer on a construction project?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Project inspector.

  • Project manager.

  • Contract administrator.

  • Contract superintendent.

Explicación

Pregunta 74 de 200

1

(244) Who is responsible for coordinating an onsite visits to a construction project?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Escort.

  • Project manager.

  • Prospective bidder.

  • Contracting officer.

Explicación

Pregunta 75 de 200

1

(245) Identifying omissions or errors in final construction plans can lead to

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • contractor claims and increase in construction surveillance.

  • wasted effort and decrease in administrative costs.

  • higher construction costs and subsequent claims.

  • an increase in construction surveillance.

Explicación

Pregunta 76 de 200

1

(246) Who completes the AF Form 103, Base Civil Engineering Work Clearance Request, for contract work according to the FARs?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Operations and Planning.

  • Construction manager.

  • Procurement.

  • Contractor.

Explicación

Pregunta 77 de 200

1

(247) Who conducts the pre-performance conference (PRECON) for a construction project?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Contracting officer.

  • Base civil engineer.

  • Construction manager.

  • Chief of engineering and environmental planning.

Explicación

Pregunta 78 de 200

1

(247) Which of the following offices is the only one authorized to obligate the Government with the contractor?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Using agency.

  • Base civil engineer.

  • Contracting officer

  • Construction management.

Explicación

Pregunta 79 de 200

1

(248) Which of the materials submittal methods requires an independent testing lab?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Test report.

  • Shop drawings.

  • Actual material.

  • Certificate of compliance.

Explicación

Pregunta 80 de 200

1

(249) The contractor submits AF IMT 3064, Contract Progress Schedule, for approval of any project that establishes a continuous performance period of

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 30 or more days.

  • 60 or more days.

  • 90 or more days.

  • 120 or more days.

Explicación

Pregunta 81 de 200

1

(250) Where can the documented proof of the construction project be placed?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Daily log maintained by the using agency.

  • Daily log maintained by project manager.

  • Follow-up correspondence maintained by the contractor.

  • Memo for record maintained by the construction manager.

Explicación

Pregunta 82 de 200

1

(250) After a contract inspector reports a safety violation via telephone, the contract inspector should submit a follow-up notification letter to the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • contracting office.

  • safety officials.

  • using agency.

  • contractor.

Explicación

Pregunta 83 de 200

1

(250) What happens to the inspection records after the construction project is completed?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Destroyed.

  • Filed in the BCE’s office.

  • Returned to the contractor.

  • Turned over to the contracting office.

Explicación

Pregunta 84 de 200

1

(251) Who should be present for the prefinal construction inspection?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Contracting officer, construction manager, and base civil engineer.

  • Construction manager, project inspector, and base civil engineer.

  • Base Civil Engineer, contracting officer, and contractor.

  • Project inspector, contractor, and construction manager.

Explicación

Pregunta 85 de 200

1

(252) What is the final post construction activity?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • BCE inspection.

  • Final inspection.

  • Base acceptance.

  • Final closing inspection.

Explicación

Pregunta 86 de 200

1

(001) What agency provides support for areas regarding utility systems?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Office of the Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Installations.

  • Air Force Center for Environmental Excellence.

  • Air Force Civil Engineer Support Agency.

  • Responsible major command (MAJCOM) engineering staff.

Explicación

Pregunta 87 de 200

1

(001) Ensuring that the comprehensive plans of your base support the mission and objectives of the installation is the responsibility of the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • responsible major command (MAJCOM).

  • installation commander.

  • Air Force civil engineer (CE)

  • Assistant Secretary of the Air Force.

Explicación

Pregunta 88 de 200

1

(001) Who approves the general plan for an installation?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The wing commander.

  • The responsible major command (MAJCOM).

  • The Air Force civil engineer (CE).

  • The Assistant Secretary of the Air Force.

Explicación

Pregunta 89 de 200

1

(002) The Air Force Comprehensive Planning Program

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • identifies and assesses alternatives for development of surrounding communities.

  • is primarily a budgeting process that ensures funding for base activities.

  • identifies and assesses alternatives for development of Air Force bases.

  • allocates personnel to each base according the base’s mission .

Explicación

Pregunta 90 de 200

1

(002) The comprehensive planning process analyzes

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • only the current development potential of the base.

  • only the long-range development potential of the base.

  • only the short- and long-range development potential of the base.

  • the current, short-, and long-range development potential of the base.

Explicación

Pregunta 91 de 200

1

(002) Which part of the comprehensive plan is a summary document?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • General plan.

  • Component plan.

  • Infrastructure plan.

  • Constraints and opportunities plan.

Explicación

Pregunta 92 de 200

1

(002) Which component plan would you refer to if concerned about the capacity of the base water system?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Infrastructure plan.

  • Land use and transportation plan.

  • Capital improvements program plan.

  • Composite constraints and opportunities plan.

Explicación

Pregunta 93 de 200

1

(002) Which component plan integrates the traditional elements of physical planning with other future plans into one document?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Infrastructure plan.

  • Land use and transportation plan.

  • Capital improvements program plan.

  • Composite constraints and opportunities plan.

Explicación

Pregunta 94 de 200

1

(002) Which map series would you refer to for information regarding future development?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • A

  • D

  • K

  • M

Explicación

Pregunta 95 de 200

1

(002) Which map series would you refer to for information about the architectural compatibility of your base?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • J

  • K

  • L

  • N

Explicación

Pregunta 96 de 200

1

(003) Civil engineers (CE) assist in preparing explosives site plans (ESP) by ensuring that the weapons safety office is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • fully aware of all construction actions planned on the installation.

  • informed of completed construction activities on the installation.

  • fully aware of all construction actions planned within the inhabited-building distances.

  • informed of completed construction activities within the inhabited-building distances.

Explicación

Pregunta 97 de 200

1

(003) What agency endorses the explosives site plan (ESP) before it is submitted to the DOD Explosives Safety Board?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Air Force Safety Center.

  • Installation civil engineer (CE) office.

  • Major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety office.

  • Installation weapons safety office.

Explicación

Pregunta 98 de 200

1

(003) Which example would not require the submission of an explosives site plan (ESP)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Construction of a missile maintenance facility

  • Construction of an addition to a weapons storage facility.

  • A temporary reduction in the storage capacity of UN Class I explosives.

  • Addition of an aircraft parking area not previously used for explosives operations.

Explicación

Pregunta 99 de 200

1

(004) What kind of work can civil engineers (CE) do after receiving preliminary approval of an explosives site plan (ESP)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Nothing. They must wait until final approval to plan and design the construction project.

  • Proceed with construction without restrictions.

  • Begin the first phase of construction.

  • Begin planning and design activities.

Explicación

Pregunta 100 de 200

1

(004) Which construction drawings must be submitted for final approval of the explosives site plan (ESP)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Only those drawings related to safety and protective features.

  • Only those drawings showing quantity-distance arcs.

  • Only those drawings showing the floor plan.

  • A complete set of drawings showing every aspect of construction.

Explicación

Pregunta 101 de 200

1

(004) What color coding is required on maps for an explosives site plan (ESP)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Potential explosion sites (PES) in blue and exposed sites (ES) in black.

  • PESs in yellow and ESs in blue.

  • PESs in red and ESs in green.

  • PESs blue and ESs in yellow.

Explicación

Pregunta 102 de 200

1

(005) Whose airfield safety standards apply when DOD organizations use civil airfields?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Air Standardization Coordinating Committee’s (ASCC).

  • North Atlantic Treaty Organization’s (NATO)

  • Federal Aviation Administration’s (FAA) only.

  • DOD’s if possible; if not, the FAA’s.

Explicación

Pregunta 103 de 200

1

(005) How are the airfield planning criteria in UFC 3–260–01 applied to existing facilities constructed under different standards?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Existing facilities are always exempt from conforming to these criteria.

  • Existing facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria.

  • Existing facilities can be brought into compliance with these criteria if it is feasible to do so.

  • Existing facilities must be brought into compliance with these criteria when the facilities are modified.

Explicación

Pregunta 104 de 200

1

(005) Under what circumstances can the DOD airfield planning criteria in UFC 3–260–01 be supplemented?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Only the DOD can supplement the criteria.

  • A major command (MAJCOM) needs to meet special mission requirements.

  • A service component needs to adapt to unique operational characteristics.

  • The installation commander determines that some criteria don’t apply to the installation.

Explicación

Pregunta 105 de 200

1

(006) What is the normal length and width of a clear zone for a class B runway?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2,000 feet long and 1,000 feet wide.

  • 3,000 feet long and 2,000 feet wide.

  • 3,000 feet long and 3,000 feet wide.

  • 4,000 feet long and 4,000 feet wide.

Explicación

Pregunta 106 de 200

1

(006) If an accident potential zone (APZ) is classified as an APZ I, it is beyond

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • an APZ II and has only a slight potential for an accident.

  • an APZ II and has a measurable potential for an accident.

  • the runway clear zone and has a significant potential for accidents.

  • the runway clear zone and has only a slight potential for accidents.

Explicación

Pregunta 107 de 200

1

(007) In terms of airfield airspace criteria, an obstruction can refer to

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • objects of natural growth only.

  • existing man-made objects only.

  • existing or proposed man-made objects only.

  • man-made objects, objects of natural growth, and terrain.

Explicación

Pregunta 108 de 200

1

(007) Which is not considered an obstruction to air navigation?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • An object 600 feet tall at the site of the object .

  • A 100-foot-tall object within 3 nautical miles of the airfield reference point.

  • A 400-foot-tall object within 4 nautical miles of the airfield reference point.

  • A 500-foot-tall object within 4 nautical miles from the airfield reference point.

Explicación

Pregunta 109 de 200

1

(007) What type of traverse way requires a minimum of 23 feet vertical clearance?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Interstate highway.

  • Military roads.

  • Waterways.

  • Railroads.

Explicación

Pregunta 110 de 200

1

(007) Which runway imaginary surface is an oval-shaped plane at an elevation of 150 feet above the airfield elevation?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Clear zone.

  • Conical surface.

  • Primary surface.

  • Inner horizontal surface.

Explicación

Pregunta 111 de 200

1

(008) Who approves all Air Force-wide programs to ensure they conform with DoDI 2000.16, DOD Anti-terrorism Standards?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Air Force Civil Engineer (AF/ILE).

  • Air Force Anti-Terrorism Chief, AF/AT.

  • Force Protection Working Group (FPWG).

  • Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO).

Explicación

Pregunta 112 de 200

1

(008) Which of the following is not one of the steps of engineer anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) planning?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Identify constraints.

  • Design protective systems to counter threats.

  • Determine levels of protection for assets.

  • Identify non-combatants on the installation.

Explicación

Pregunta 113 de 200

1

(009) What are the three categories of assets you should consider for anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Personnel, equipment, and aircraft.

  • Personnel, materials, and aircraft.

  • Facilities, aircraft, and personnel.

  • Facilities, equipment and materials, and personnel.

Explicación

Pregunta 114 de 200

1

(009) Which aggressors are usually oriented around an ideology, a political cause, or an issue and commonly work in small, well-organized groups with sophistication and efficient planning capability.

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Criminals.

  • Protestors.

  • Terrorists

  • Subversives.

Explicación

Pregunta 115 de 200

1

(009) Facilities are chosen for anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) measures based on

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • their current use and the assets they house.

  • their proximity to base entrance and exit points.

  • the costs to rebuild them and replace the contents.

  • the presence of classified materials within them.

Explicación

Pregunta 116 de 200

1

(009) Which attack tactic might be used to destroy a building while allowing the aggressor to maintain distance from the occupants?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Stationary vehicle bomb.

  • Moving vehicle bomb.

  • Exterior attack.

  • Forced entry.

Explicación

Pregunta 117 de 200

1

(010) When deciding which assets to protect in an anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) program, you should

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • balance the physical, resource, and political constraints against your asset priority list.

  • ignore political constraints because diplomatic channels will overcome them.

  • assume that all necessary resources will be available for AT/FP measures.

  • enact desirable AT/FP measures regardless of constraints

Explicación

Pregunta 118 de 200

1

(010) If possible, assets to be protected under the anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) program should

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • not be identified with signs.

  • be located around the exterior walls of buildings.

  • be located near activities with large visitor populations.

  • not be located where they are visible to more than one person.

Explicación

Pregunta 119 de 200

1

(011) Expeditionary site planning (ESP) is mainly associated with

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • long-range planning for permanent installations.

  • short-range planning for permanent installations.

  • long-range forecasting for national security strategy.

  • locations where the Air Force presence is not permanent.

Explicación

Pregunta 120 de 200

1

(011) Which of the following is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Expeditionary site plan (ESP).

  • Aircraft mishap survey plan (AMSP).

  • Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP).

  • In-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP).

Explicación

Pregunta 121 de 200

1

(011) Which template identifies resources and capabilities of a location by functional area?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Part II, Expeditionary Site Planning (ESP).

  • Part I, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).

  • Part II, In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP).

  • Part II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).

Explicación

Pregunta 122 de 200

1

(011) Which template identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Part II, Expeditionary Site Planning (ESP).

  • Part I, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).

  • Part II, In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan (IGESP).

  • Part II, Expeditionary Site Survey Process (ESSP).

Explicación

Pregunta 123 de 200

1

(011) You will find a complete listing of the functional responsibilities for beddown operations in

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • AFI 10–219.

  • AFI 10–404

  • AFH 10–222 v5.

  • AFI 32–1042.

Explicación

Pregunta 124 de 200

1

(011) Who provides command policy and guidance for implementing in-garrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site planning (ESP) concepts to meet the command’s specific missions?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • AF/ILE.

  • AF/XO.

  • AF/ILG.

  • Major command (MAJCOM).

Explicación

Pregunta 125 de 200

1

(011) Which of the following is not a responsibility of major command (MAJCOM) functional managers?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Take appropriate action to resolve subordinate unit limiting factors (LIMFAC).

  • Coordinate site survey requests with major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans function.

  • Exercise management control over the expeditionary site planning (ESP) program.

  • Coordinate efforts with MAJCOM logistics plans function and appropriate numbered air force (NAF) agencies.

Explicación

Pregunta 126 de 200

1

(012) What are the three sub-processes of the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Pre-site survey, site survey, post-site survey.

  • Site selection, data selection, storage and access.

  • Site survey, data selection, post-site survey.

  • Pre-site survey, storage and access, post-site survey

Explicación

Pregunta 127 de 200

1

(012) Information gathered during an expeditionary site survey is used to generate the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • limiting factors (LIMFAC).

  • airfield suitability assessment.

  • employment knowledge base (EKB).

  • anti-terrorism/force protection (AT/FP) plan.

Explicación

Pregunta 128 de 200

1

(012) During an expeditionary site survey, data is collected in which components?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Site selection, site survey, reporting.

  • Pre-site survey, site survey, post-site survey.

  • Pre-site survey, site survey, database development.

  • Site selection, database development, airfield suitability survey.

Explicación

Pregunta 129 de 200

1

(013) Expeditionary site survey data collected with the survey tool for employment planning (STEP) is stored in the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Reconnaissance information database (RID).

  • Employment knowledge base (EKB).

  • Expeditionary site assessment tool (ESAT).

  • Beddown capability assessment tool (BCAT).

Explicación

Pregunta 130 de 200

1

(013) Who should units desiring to conduct site surveys outside of their area of responsibility (AOR) contact for permission?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • AF Deputy Chief of Staff, Air & Space Operations (AF/XO).

  • Director of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG).

  • Their own wing commander.

  • Their own major command (MAJCOM).

Explicación

Pregunta 131 de 200

1

(013) How many members should an expeditionary site survey team have?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Three

  • Five

  • Ten

  • Depends on the mission

Explicación

Pregunta 132 de 200

1

013) What is the purpose of the follow-on team in an expeditionary site survey?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Produce an airfield suitability survey.

  • Gather data relevant to the success of the specific mission.

  • Produce minimum essential data such as a full spectrum threat assessment.

  • Gather data for the expeditionary combat support (ECS) beddown assessment.

Explicación

Pregunta 133 de 200

1

(013) Who certifies the data collected by an expeditionary site survey team?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • All team members.

  • Site survey team chief.

  • Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

  • Director of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG).

Explicación

Pregunta 134 de 200

1

(014) In the context of expeditionary site planning, what are limiting factors (LIMFAC)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Minor supply shortfalls.

  • Budget shortfalls that must be made up.

  • Enemy strengths that threaten combat support operations.

  • Personnel or materiel deficiencies that threaten the mission.

Explicación

Pregunta 135 de 200

1

(014) In AFI 10–404, Base Support and Expeditionary Site Planning, where would you find guidance on depicting utility layouts that reflect possible expansion of USAF and host nation lines?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Attachment 8 (Ch 7, “Airfield Operations, Part 1”).

  • Attachment 9 (Ch 8, “Airfield Loading/Parking Plan, Part 2”).

  • Attachment 45 (Ch 44, “Maps, Part 1”).

  • Attachment 46 (Ch 45, “Combat Logistic Support, Part 1”).

Explicación

Pregunta 136 de 200

1

(015) What is a minimum operating strip (MOS)?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The minimum clear zone around a runway.

  • The shortest acceptable length of an aircraft operating surface.

  • The minimum distance between airfield operations and base facilities.

  • The smallest acceptable length and width of an aircraft operating surface.

Explicación

Pregunta 137 de 200

1

(015) The minimum operating strip (MOS) layout is acceptable when it

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • meets the requirements specified in Chapter 44 “Maps, Part 1” of AFI 10–404, Base Support and Expeditionary Site Planning.

  • conforms to the standards set by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).

  • is approved by the Director of Logistics Readiness (AF/ILG).

  • meets the requirements of the wing/installation commander.

Explicación

Pregunta 138 de 200

1

(015) The minimum airfield operating strip marking system (MAOSMS) must be correct because it

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • indicates the location of aircraft staging areas.

  • serves as the emergency airfield lighting system (EALS).

  • allows pilots to visually acquire the airfield’s operating surface on approach.

  • shows the minimum operating strip (MOS) layout requirements of the installation commander.

Explicación

Pregunta 139 de 200

1

(016) When arriving at an aircraft mishap site, you must consider all the following hazards except

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ejection seat explosives.

  • human remains.

  • fuel/hydraulic fluids.

  • cleared unexploded ordnance (UXO).

Explicación

Pregunta 140 de 200

1

(016) What is the minimum number of personnel required for an aircraft mishap survey team?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • One

  • Two

  • Four

  • Five

Explicación

Pregunta 141 de 200

1

(016) A full aircraft mishap survey party consists of a survey party chief (SPC) and instrument operator, as well as

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a reconnaissance chief, rod person, and rod person recorder.

  • an instrument operator recorder, rod person, and rod person recorder.

  • a recovered item recorder, rod person, and reconnaissance assistant.

  • an instrument operator recorder, rod person, and survey marker.

Explicación

Pregunta 142 de 200

1

(201) What facility design element determines how well a facility serves the mission requirement and its occupants on a day in and day out basis?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Functionality.

  • Flexibility.

  • Accuracy.

  • Economy.

Explicación

Pregunta 143 de 200

1

(201) When assessing existing conditions at a proposed construction site, what potential hazards should you look for?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Weapons storage area, asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.

  • Asbestos, weapons storage area, and contaminated soil.

  • Asbestos, lead-based paint, and weapons storage area.

  • Asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.

Explicación

Pregunta 144 de 200

1

(202) What should govern all military construction designs?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Flexibility.

  • Accuracy.

  • Economy.

  • Function.

Explicación

Pregunta 145 de 200

1

(203) What design standards do you need to be aware for all military construction?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Military and government only.

  • Military, industrial, and government.

  • Military, industrial, and local ordinances.

  • Metropolitan ordinances, military, and industrial.

Explicación

Pregunta 146 de 200

1

(203) Where can you find the military design standards for military construction?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • AFMC.

  • AFCESA.

  • US Army Corps of Engineers.

  • Unified Facilities Guide Specification.

Explicación

Pregunta 147 de 200

1

(204) In the Unified Soils Classification System, what type of soil group does the letter “M” designates?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Silt

  • Sand

  • Gravel

  • Highly organic

Explicación

Pregunta 148 de 200

1

(204) At least what percent of the soil must be retained on the No. 200 sieve for it to be classified as coarse grained?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 10%

  • 20%

  • 40%

  • 50%

Explicación

Pregunta 149 de 200

1

(204) What size sieve is used to distinguish between gravels and sands?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • No. 4.

  • No. 10.

  • No. 40.

  • No. 200.

Explicación

Pregunta 150 de 200

1

(204) Which of these properties indicate whether or not soil contains clay?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Cohesion.

  • Plasticity.

  • Compaction.

  • Permeability.

Explicación

Pregunta 151 de 200

1

(204) When wet soil is air-dried in a laboratory, the moisture is removed by evaporation until

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a constant weight is attained.

  • the meniscus in the pore openings restricts the rate of capillary rise

  • the hygroscopic moisture in the soil is in equilibrium with the moisture vapor in the air.

  • the capillary fringe in the soil recedes to a point where it is in equilibrium with hygroscopic moisture.

Explicación

Pregunta 152 de 200

1

(204) What is the plasticity index of a soil with a liquid limit of 28 and a plastic limit of 21?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 0.75

  • 1.33

  • 7.00

  • 49.0

Explicación

Pregunta 153 de 200

1

(205) What do we call the particle size distribution of a soil aggregate?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Angularity

  • Durability.

  • Gradation.

  • Granularity.

Explicación

Pregunta 154 de 200

1

(205) A soil whose individual grains cover a narrow range of particle sizes is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • un-graded.

  • gap-graded.

  • well-graded.

  • poorly graded.

Explicación

Pregunta 155 de 200

1

(205) What should be done if a structure is likely to be affected by the ground water table or by capillary action?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Lower the grade line

  • Raise the ground water table.

  • Keep the site location regardless of cost.

  • Change the site location if there is enough cause.

Explicación

Pregunta 156 de 200

1

(206) To prevent the flow of water from standing in low places and seeping into the ground, the minimum longitudinal grade of a ditch should be

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 0.2 percent.

  • 0.5 percent.

  • 2 percent.

  • 5 percent.

Explicación

Pregunta 157 de 200

1

(206) The maximum grade of ditch side slopes is determined by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • the nature of the soil.

  • the area to be drained.

  • specification limitations.

  • the equipment available.

Explicación

Pregunta 158 de 200

1

(206) What is the minimum distance required between the top of the base course and the natural water table if frost action is to be prevented?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2'

  • 3'

  • 4'

  • 5'

Explicación

Pregunta 159 de 200

1

(207) Asphalt cement is usually made fluid by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • heating.

  • adding alcohol

  • mixing with coal tar.

  • adding ascorbic acid.

Explicación

Pregunta 160 de 200

1

(208) Which of these is not one of the functions of aggregate in a bituminous pavement mix?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Provide a nonskid surface.

  • Provide a binder for the bitumen.

  • Transmit the load to the base course.

  • Take the abrasive action of the traffic.

Explicación

Pregunta 161 de 200

1

(208) Which of these can determine an aggregate’s affinity for water?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Wash test.

  • Stripping test.

  • Distillation test.

  • Mohs hardness scale.

Explicación

Pregunta 162 de 200

1

(209) Which variables affect the final mix-design of a bituminous pavement?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Moisture content and aggregate size.

  • Moisture content, intended use, gradation, and angularity.

  • Intended use, binder type, loading, and maximum aggregate size.

  • Plasticity, binder type, maximum aggregate size, and angularity.

Explicación

Pregunta 163 de 200

1

(209) A bituminous pavement mixture should be

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • durable, workable, and porous.

  • able to withstand traffic loads, durable, and porous.

  • able to withstand traffic loads, workable, and durable.

  • workable, able to withstand traffic loads, and durable.

Explicación

Pregunta 164 de 200

1

(210) Water’s main function in concrete mix is to

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • make the mix workable and inhibit hydration.

  • make the mix workable and start hydration.

  • increase the weight of mix and inhibit hydration.

  • decrease the amount of mix and start hydration.

Explicación

Pregunta 165 de 200

1

(210) Fine aggregate used in cement paste should have a

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • rough shape to promote workability.

  • round shape to promote workability.

  • round shape to promote uniformity.

  • rough shape to promote uniformity.

Explicación

Pregunta 166 de 200

1

(210) To be suitable for construction, concrete should be

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • strong, watertight, durable, and workable.

  • economical, strong, watertight, and uniform

  • durable, watertight, workable, and uniform.

  • well graded, economical, strong, and watertight.

Explicación

Pregunta 167 de 200

1

(211) Which of these plastic concrete properties is affected as you add more aggregate to a given amount of cement paste?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Non-segregation.

  • Workability.

  • Uniformity.

  • Durability.

Explicación

Pregunta 168 de 200

1

(211) Which of these factors affects the watertightness of a concrete mix?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Aggregate size.

  • Aggregate gradation.

  • Water to cement ratio.

  • Cement amount in mix.

Explicación

Pregunta 169 de 200

1

(212) The acceptable range for air content in air-entrained concrete is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 2 to 5.5 percent.

  • 3 to 6.6 percent.

  • 4 to 7.5 percent.

  • 5 to 8.5 percent.

Explicación

Pregunta 170 de 200

1

(212) When too much silt and clay are present in a concrete mixture, the concrete surface

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • cannot withstand abrasion.

  • may be covered by hair cracks.

  • has large cracks.

  • is shiny.

Explicación

Pregunta 171 de 200

1

(213) Cracks in concrete may be controlled by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • reducing restraint through the use of joints and increasing moisture to the concrete mix.

  • reducing steel stresses at service load conditions and increasing restraint through the use of joints.

  • increasing moisture to the concrete mix and providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement.

  • providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement and reducing restraint through the use of joints.

Explicación

Pregunta 172 de 200

1

(213) Which type of joint is used to allow placement of separate construction elements at different times?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Control joints.

  • Seismic joints.

  • Expansion joints.

  • Construction joints.

Explicación

Pregunta 173 de 200

1

(214) The loads present within a structure are classified as

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • uniformly distributed loads and concentrated loads.

  • uniformly distributed loads and live loads.

  • concentrated loads and dead loads.

  • live loads and dead loads.

Explicación

Pregunta 174 de 200

1

(214) Which kind of stress in a structure occurs on the side opposite the load?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Shear.

  • Torsion.

  • Tension.

  • Compression.

Explicación

Pregunta 175 de 200

1

(215) Walls, columns, piers, or pilasters resting on footings are used with

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • spread foundations.

  • mat foundations.

  • raft foundations.

  • pile foundations.

Explicación

Pregunta 176 de 200

1

(215) In general, footings should be located so that they

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • rest on compacted organic soil

  • are at a minimum of 5 feet below undisturbed soil.

  • are above the ground water table and above the frost line.

  • are above the ground water table but below the frost line.

Explicación

Pregunta 177 de 200

1

(215) A foundation that develops the load bearing capacity through friction with the adjacent soil

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • uses isolated footings.

  • uses continuous footings.

  • is a type of pile foundation.

  • is a type of spread foundation.

Explicación

Pregunta 178 de 200

1

(216) What type of concrete masonry unit CMU is not used for Air Force facilities?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Type I, moisture controlled

  • Type II, moisture controlled.

  • Type I, non-moisture controlled.

  • Type II, non-moisture controlled.

Explicación

Pregunta 179 de 200

1

(217) When may structural steel for buildings be permanently exposed to weather?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • When using hollow steel columns.

  • When using exterior structural steel.

  • When overall efficiency and economy will result.

  • When using non-expansion and non-contraction joints.

Explicación

Pregunta 180 de 200

1

(217) Temperature and deflection movements in a structural steel framing system are controlled by

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • rigid framing techniques.

  • the spacing between members.

  • expansion and contraction joints.

  • welding the connections instead of using rivets or bolts.

Explicación

Pregunta 181 de 200

1

(218) The dimensional stability of plywood is improved through

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • additional layers.

  • cross-lamination.

  • the use of waterproof glue.

  • additives impregnated into the fibers.

Explicación

Pregunta 182 de 200

1

(218) In regard to wood framing, values known as allowable unit stresses consider the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • species and grade of wood members.

  • stress values within the wood members.

  • necessary dimensions for wood members.

  • effects of strength reducing characteristics such as knots.

Explicación

Pregunta 183 de 200

1

(218) The stiffness of a wood beam is measured by its

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • strength.

  • allowable unit stress.

  • modulus of elasticity.

  • resistance to bending.

Explicación

Pregunta 184 de 200

1

(219) When constructing a facility what factors determine the design of the plumbing system?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Quantity and types of fixtures, length of storm drainage, capacities of water main, and total number of building population.

  • Capacity of water main, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and total number of building population.

  • Total number of building population, quantity and types of fixtures, storm drainage pipe sizes, and capacities of equipment and tanks.

  • Capacities of equipment and tanks, total number of building population, length of storm drainage, and quantity and types of fixtures.

Explicación

Pregunta 185 de 200

1

(220) Any part of a piping system, other than a main riser or stack piping, leading from the runout to the individual fixture is called a

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • branch vent.

  • loop vent.

  • relief vent.

  • branch.

Explicación

Pregunta 186 de 200

1

(220) The single sloping drain from the base of a soil or waste stack to its junction with the main building drain or with another branch is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • a runout.

  • an interceptor.

  • a primary branch.

  • a building sewer.

Explicación

Pregunta 187 de 200

1

(221) Which of the following pipe is used for hot and cold water distribution systems and venting piping?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fiber.

  • Cast-iron.

  • Wrought-iron.

  • Copper tubing.

Explicación

Pregunta 188 de 200

1

(222) Sewage systems are made up of the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • main, drain, and vent piping systems.

  • main, waste, and vent piping systems.

  • main, drain, and waste piping systems.

  • drain, waste, and vent piping systems.

Explicación

Pregunta 189 de 200

1

(223) The proportions of gases that make up dry air

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • are substantially constant at all points on the earth’s surface.

  • change with the amount of water vapor present in the air.

  • change with variations in temperature.

  • vary with the barometric pressure.

Explicación

Pregunta 190 de 200

1

(224) Which of the following provides positive and reliable means for controlling temperature, humidity, and moisture condensation?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Cooling by forced or natural ventilation with outside air.

  • Cooling by the effects of heat conduction into the surrounding earth.

  • Mechanical cooling and dehumidifying with refrigeration or well water.

  • Capitalizing on natural elements by orienting facilities to shade and prevailing wind.

Explicación

Pregunta 191 de 200

1

(225) Outside air temperatures usually drop after sundown while inside temperatures are kept up by heat absorbed by the structure. Therefore, one way to effectively cool the building is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • ventilating the building with outside air during the heat of the day only.

  • ventilating the building with small quantities of outside air after sundown.

  • ventilating the building with large quantities of outside air after sundown.

  • ventilating the building with moderate quantities of outside air throughout the day.

Explicación

Pregunta 192 de 200

1

(226) High-pressure heating systems are defined as those which operate at pressures in excess of

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • 150 psi.

  • 100 psi.

  • 50 psi.

  • 30 psi.

Explicación

Pregunta 193 de 200

1

(226) A low-pressure heating system requires

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • less radiator surface but larger pipes than a high-pressure system.

  • the same radiator surface and pipe size as a high-pressure system.

  • less radiator surface and smaller pipes than a high-pressure system.

  • greater radiator surface and larger pipes than a high-pressure system.

Explicación

Pregunta 194 de 200

1

(227) What type of ventilation can be used only in areas such as storage buildings and hangars?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Unit.

  • Gravity.

  • Comfort.

  • Mechanical.

Explicación

Pregunta 195 de 200

1

(227) The two general classifications of fans are

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Vane and tube

  • axial and vane

  • axial and centrifugal

  • tube and centrifugal

Explicación

Pregunta 196 de 200

1

(227) Most air filters in use today are the

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • viscous type.

  • air washer type

  • electrostatic precipitators

  • permanent and reusable type

Explicación

Pregunta 197 de 200

1

(228) Which of the following principles are used in the refrigeration cycle?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Evaporation, expansion, and pressure of liquids.

  • Temperature, pressure, and expansion of liquids.

  • Expansion, evaporation, and pressure of liquids.

  • Evaporation, pressure, and temperature of liquids.

Explicación

Pregunta 198 de 200

1

(228) A direct expansion system is best used to effectively cool

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • multistory buildings.

  • single-story buildings.

  • a group of buildings.

  • small single offices

Explicación

Pregunta 199 de 200

1

(229) What type of dual-temperature system uses a two or four-pipe system?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • All air system.

  • All water system.

  • Air and water system.

  • Radiant heating system.

Explicación

Pregunta 200 de 200

1

(230) A unit of electrical measure that shows current drain is

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • amp

  • watt

  • ohm

  • volt

Explicación

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