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Quiz to prep for microbio exam 1.

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Microbiology EXAM 1

Microbiology EXAM 1

Pregunta 1 de 66

1

Approximately 5% of known microbes cause disease in humans.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 2 de 66

1

Selecciona la opción correcta de los menús desplegables para completar el texto.

Prokaryotic cells divide via ( binary fission, mitosis and/or meiosis ) and reproduce ( asexually, sexually or asexually ).

Explicación

Pregunta 3 de 66

1

Which of the following are TRUE of prokaryotic cells?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • single circular chromosome of DNA

  • plasma membrane is a fluid-mosaic structure and contains sterols

  • genes are located in a nuclear region

  • extrachromosomal DNA is located in plasmids and mitochondria

  • they have many intracellular organelles

  • ribosomes are 70S

Explicación

Pregunta 4 de 66

1

When flagella are present on eukaryotic cells, they are fibrils of flagellin. When flagella are present on prokaryotic cells, they are membrane-enclosed structures comprised of microtubules.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 5 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE about the pili on eukaryotic cells?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Eukaryotic cells do not have pili

  • The pili function as attachment or conjugation pili; this contributes to the virulence of many pathogens

  • The pili are embedded in the external slime layer and assist researchers in identification of pathogens

  • They are complex, membrane-enclosed structures, comprised of microtubules

Explicación

Pregunta 6 de 66

1

Rellena el espacio en blanco para completar el texto.

Metabolism is the sum of all the processes carried out by living organisms.

Explicación

Pregunta 7 de 66

1

Which of the following is FALSE concerning metabolism?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Anabolism requires energy, whereas catabolism produces or 'frees up' energy

  • The energy required for catabolism is obtained from either organic or inorganic compounds

Explicación

Pregunta 8 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning oxidation and reduction?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Oxidation involves the loss of electrons and hydrogen, whereas reduction involves the gain of electrons and hydrogen

  • Oxidation is exothermic and endergonic; reduction is endothermic and exergonic

  • Reduction allows for the storage of energy; oxidation allows for the liberation of energy

  • During oxidation, oxygen is gained; during reduction, oxygen is neither lost nor gained

  • "Redox" reactions refer to the simultaneous occurrence of oxidation and reduction

Explicación

Pregunta 9 de 66

1

Selecciona la opción correcta de los menús desplegables para completar el texto.

Fermentation is a(n) ( anaerobic, aerobic ) process that ( does not, does ) create ATP.

Explicación

Pregunta 10 de 66

1

Which of the following are aerobic?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fermentation

  • Glycolysis

  • Respiration

Explicación

Pregunta 11 de 66

1

Which of the following creates the most ATP?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fermentation

  • Glycolysis

  • Aerobic respiration

  • Anaerobic respiration

Explicación

Pregunta 12 de 66

1

Selecciona la opción correcta de los menús desplegables para completar el texto.

( Caspids, Envelopes, Spores ) are a key structural component of viruses. They protect ( nucleic acids, ribosomes, pili ) and determine the ( shape, method of replication, host range ) of the virus, which can help in identification.

Explicación

Pregunta 13 de 66

1

Viruses can have RNA or DNA, both of which can either be single stranded or double stranded.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 14 de 66

1

Which of the following are TRUE concerning viral envelopes?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Few viruses have a typical bilayer membrane

  • Some viruses do not have a membrane, they only have a nucleocaspid

  • Certain viruses have glycoprotein spikes that help attach to host cells

Explicación

Pregunta 15 de 66

1

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in viral replication?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

  • Assembly; Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Release

  • Introduction; Transcription; Penetration; Release

  • Penetration; Transcription; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

Explicación

Pregunta 16 de 66

1

Selecciona la opción correcta de los menús desplegables para completar el texto.

Different viruses release their particles differently. Certain viruses ( lyse, engulf ) the cell upon release, thereby causing cell death. Other viruses that cause persistent illness exit the host cell via ( exocytosis, endocytosis ). In latent infections, there is no viral release from host cells.

Explicación

Pregunta 17 de 66

1

Rellena el espacio en blanco para completar el texto.

HPV and Epstein-Barr and both types of viruses, which inhibit tumour suppression.

Explicación

Pregunta 18 de 66

1

Oncogenic viruses may be used as a treatment, whereby they enter all cells but only lyse tumour cells, which initiates a systemic anti-tumour immune response.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 19 de 66

1

Bacteria do not have nuclei.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 20 de 66

1

Bacteria may be identified by:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • size

  • shape

  • staining

  • growth

  • biochemical tests

Explicación

Pregunta 21 de 66

1

Gram positive bacteria retain ink and they turn pink. Gram negative bacteria do not retain the ink and they turn purple.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 22 de 66

1

Select allh the CORRECT statements regarding the growth and replication of bacteria.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Bacteria exhibit a growth curve (lag, log, stationary, and decline/death)

  • Bacteria replicate via meiosis or mitosis

  • Bacteria undergo asexual reproduction

  • Bacteria may be obligate intracellular, facultative intracellular, or extracellular in their growth

  • Bacteria require an intercellular location in which to grow

Explicación

Pregunta 23 de 66

1

Bacterial endospores are resistant to heat, pH changes, and bleach, but may be killed by radiation.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 24 de 66

1

Rellena el espacio en blanco para completar el texto.

Quorum sensing is a key part of the formation of a .

Explicación

Pregunta 25 de 66

1

Biofilms may form in diabetic ulcers or on urinary catheters and pose major problems for culturing. Antibiotics are usually ineffective but bacteriophage treatment may work.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 26 de 66

1

The development of peptic ulcers, secondary to an infection with h. pylori, is an example of...

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • non-communicable disease

  • communicable disease

  • the effects of bacterial biofilms

  • a side effect of bacteriophage treatment

Explicación

Pregunta 27 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning parasites?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Protozoa are eukaryotic and most are multicellular

  • Helminths are usually multicellular and only roundworms and flatworms contain parasitic species

  • Arthropods include insects (e.g. lice) and arachnids (e.g. ticks) but not crustaceans (e.g. crayfish)

  • Protozoa are prokaryotic and most are unicellular

Explicación

Pregunta 28 de 66

1

Tapeworms and pinworms are examples of...

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • helminiths

  • protozoa

  • arthropods

  • flukes

Explicación

Pregunta 29 de 66

1

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding parasitic hosts?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Definitive hosts are where parasites reproduce sexually, whereas intermediate hosts are where parasites spend other life stages (e.g. larval)

  • Reservoir hosts cannot spread parasites to humans but they can to other animals

  • Accidental host is another term for reservoir host

  • A dead-end host is where parasites spend the larval stage

Explicación

Pregunta 30 de 66

1

A biological vector can be an intermediate or definitive host, whereas a mechanical vector is not a host.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 31 de 66

1

Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Fungi are eukaryotic and most are multicellular (e.g. molds, mushrooms) but some are unicellular (e.g. yeasts)

  • Most fungi cell walls contain chitin, which is the same polysaccharide in exoskeletons of arthropods

  • Fungi are classified via the nature of the sexual stage of their lifecycle but classification can be very difficult

  • Yeast have hyphae, whereas molds replicate asexually via buds

Explicación

Pregunta 32 de 66

1

Rellena el espacio en blanco para completar el texto.

The concept of refers to the ability of certain fungi to change their structure in response to a change in environment. This can be seen with the organism p. brasiliensis, which is yeast-like when on the human body and mold-like when in the environment.

Explicación

Pregunta 33 de 66

1

Selecciona la opción correcta del menú desplegable para completar el texto.

Fungi use ( ergosterol instead of cholesterol, cholesterol instead of ergosterol ), which is why drugs such as fluconazole target the enzymes used in synthesis.

Explicación

Pregunta 34 de 66

1

Fungal infections are caused by the use of drugs, such as steroids, antibiotics, and chemo. Fungal infections are not caused by pathogens.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 35 de 66

1

Fungi are very important because they produce antimicrobials, such as penicillin.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 36 de 66

1

Rellena los espacios en blanco para completar el texto.

The clinical microbiology lab consists of six main areas: bacteriology (bacteria); (fungi); virology (viruses); (detect antibodies in the blood); parasitology (protozoa, helminthes); and (acid-fast bacteria, e.g. TB).

Explicación

Pregunta 37 de 66

1

Which of the following statements comparing direct detection, culturing, and nucleic acid/signal amplification testing is FALSE?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • SAT and direct detection both have short turnaround times, whereas culturing has a long TAT

  • SAT is both the most expensive and the most sensitive test, compared to culturing and direct detection

  • Culturing involves growing cells on agar plates, whereas direct detection looks at an actual cell

  • Direct detection can only be used for bacteria, not viruses, unlike culturing and SAT

Explicación

Pregunta 38 de 66

1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the process of gram staining?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Crystal violet; Iodine; Alcohol; Safranin

  • Crystal violet; Alcohol; Iodine; Safranin

  • Safranin; Iodine; Crystal Violet; Alcohol

  • Alcohol; Safranin; Iodine; Crystal violet

Explicación

Pregunta 39 de 66

1

During a gram staining test, the gram negative bacteria go from purple to invisible to pink.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 40 de 66

1

Select which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding direct detection.

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Gram staining is a very common method of direct detection for viruses

  • Calcofluor is a test used to detect fungi; the substance binds to cellulose and chitin

  • Electron microscopy and direct fluorescent antibody staining are two methods to detect viruses

  • Electron microscopy is a common method of direct detection for bacteria

Explicación

Pregunta 41 de 66

1

The main purpose of streaking on an agar plate is to isolate only a single specie.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 42 de 66

1

After a bacterium has been cultured, it may be identified via growth in a medium. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding "selective" mediums?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Increases the growth of some bacteria and decreases the growth of others (e.g. adding abx to agar plate)

  • Has additive that causes observable change (e.g. colour, pH)

  • Increases the growth of some bacteria but does not suppress the growth of others

  • Agar plate is embedded with antibiotics

Explicación

Pregunta 43 de 66

1

What is the name of the test that involves pouring a test specimen into a plate imbedded with specific antigens?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Enzyme immunoassay

  • Electron microscopy

  • Calcofluor

  • Gram staining

Explicación

Pregunta 44 de 66

1

A bacterial susceptibility test cannot be performed on a direct detection sample; the bacteria must be cultured first.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 45 de 66

1

In the context of bacterial susceptibility tests, was does "MIC" stand for?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Minimum inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum inhibitory complex

  • Maximum inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum immunoabsorbent complex

Explicación

Pregunta 46 de 66

1

Which of the following are CORRECT regarding the procedure for drawing blood cultures?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Use a peripheral poke whenever possible

  • Use a peripheral IV, if present

  • Take samples 30 minutes apart

  • Use two sets (4 bottles total), never just one (sometimes three)

  • Use a central line, if present

Explicación

Pregunta 47 de 66

1

Selecciona la opción correcta del menú desplegable para completar el texto.

( Amplicon, Shotgun, Whole genome ) sequencing involves taking one part from a pure or mixed sample and comparing it to a reference.

Explicación

Pregunta 48 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Amplicon sequencing involves taking one part from a pure sample only and comparing it to a reference.

  • Shotgun (aka meta genomic) sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed/complex template and investigating that sample in detail.

  • Whole genome sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed template and fully understanding that one piece.

  • Shotgun and whole genome sequencing are similar, in that they both sample from a pure template.

Explicación

Pregunta 49 de 66

1

16s ribosomal RNA assists in sequencing microbiomes because they serve as a kind of bacterial barcode.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 50 de 66

1

All bacteria have 16s ribosomal RNA but there are small differences between them.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 51 de 66

1

Select all of TRUE statements from the following, regarding how diversity is assessed in the human microbiome:

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • number of taxa (species)

  • relative abundance of each species present

  • degree of phylogenetic dissimilarity of the species present

  • whether someone is colonized or infected with an ARO

Explicación

Pregunta 52 de 66

1

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding dysbiosis?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Pathobionts is the overgrowth of organisms usually present, versus pathogens, which cause harm in certain numbers

  • Pathogens are usually present in healthy human bodies, versus pathobionts cause significant harm when at all present

Explicación

Pregunta 53 de 66

1

The term "dysbiosis" refers to changes in the microbiome that are associated with disease.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 54 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the relationship between diversity and relative abundance of any single microbe?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • An increase in abundance of one specie drives down diversity, and less diversity contributes to disease

  • A decrease in the abundance of one specie relates to an increase in diversity, and greater diversity contributes to disease

Explicación

Pregunta 55 de 66

1

B. thetaiotaomicron stimulates the host to produce anti-microbial peptides that target gram positive bacteria. This is an example of...

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Indirect colonization resistance

  • Direct colonization resistance

  • Dysbiosis

  • Colonization

Explicación

Pregunta 56 de 66

1

The rationale for using fecal transplants to treat a c. diff infection is that the transplant can increase diversity.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 57 de 66

1

Which of the following diseases are associated with a decrease in diversity?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • C Diff

  • Recurrent UTIs

  • Atopic dermatosis

  • IBD

  • Bacterial vaginosis

Explicación

Pregunta 58 de 66

1

Which of the following statements is the best description of "commensalism"?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Both benefit

  • One benefits and there is no effect on the other

  • One benefits, the other is harmed

  • E.coli, because it aids in vitamin K absorption in the large intestine

Explicación

Pregunta 59 de 66

1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the factors that contribute to virulence?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Strains of bacteria, such as n. gonorrhoeae, are rarely able to cause disease if they have fimbriae (aka "attachment pili")

  • Pathogens that have fimbriae may cause hemeagglutination

  • Capsules contribute to virulence because they act as a barrier to host defenses

  • Pathogens that have haemolysin may cause host tissue damage

Explicación

Pregunta 60 de 66

1

Exotoxins are associated mostly with gram negative bacteria and are released when cells divide or when cells die. Endotoxins are produced and released mostly by gram positive bacteria and the ingestion of the toxin can cause disease (e.g. botulinum).

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 61 de 66

1

Which of the following is the correct order of stages of disease?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Incubation, prodromal, invasive, decline, convalescence

  • Invasive, prodromal, incubation, decline, convalescence

  • Prodromal, incubation, invasive, decline, convalenscene

  • Incubation, prodromal, convalescence, invasive, decline

Explicación

Pregunta 62 de 66

1

The most severe signs and symptoms of a disease are during the invasive period.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 63 de 66

1

The surface proteins on the flu virus that contribute to its virulence are hemeagglutinin and neuraminidase.

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 64 de 66

1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the flu virus?

Selecciona una de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • The flu virus has a "segmented genome", which means that it has 8 segments of RNA. This contributes to virulence.

  • Shedding starts after exposure and continues until day 6 of the illness. The peak of shedding is at day 2.

  • Shedding occurs between days 4 and 6, when the person feels most ill.

  • Hemeagglutinin is the only surface protein on the flu virus.

Explicación

Pregunta 65 de 66

1

An antigenic shift causes seasonal influenza every year and is a result of the segmented genome of the flu virus (liable to make small mistakes each time they copy).

Selecciona uno de los siguientes:

  • VERDADERO
  • FALSO

Explicación

Pregunta 66 de 66

1

Which of the following statements are TRUE concerning limiting the spread of the flu virus?

Selecciona una o más de las siguientes respuestas posibles:

  • Vaccinations are very important and are only contraindicated in children under 6 months, people who have had a previous anaphylactic reaction, and people who have had Guillain-Barre syndrome as a result of the flu vaccine in the past.

  • Practicing good hand hygiene is a good way to limit the spread of the flu virus

  • "Social distancing" is a very effective way of preventing the spread of the flu virus

  • Masks are most effective when worn by ill persons, not healthy persons

Explicación

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