Emergency and Critical Care Veterinary Nursing

Description

Diploma Veterinary nursing Flashcards on Emergency and Critical Care Veterinary Nursing , created by Mandy Wilkes on 15/03/2019.
Mandy Wilkes
Flashcards by Mandy Wilkes, updated more than 1 year ago
Mandy Wilkes
Created by Mandy Wilkes over 5 years ago
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Resource summary

Question Answer
Definition of Triage Sorting patients according to their need for medical care. (most critical first)
What is 'First Aid' Attending to the initial and essential welfare needs of the animal
What does the 'RCVS professional code of conduct' state for veterinary surgeons? That they must take steps to provide 24hr emergency first aid an pain relief
What are the 3 aims of first aid? 1. Preserve Life 2. Prevent situation deteriorating 3. Prevent suffering
What are some clinical signs of a HEAD INJURY 1. Aniscora 2. Epistaxis 3. Altered mentation 4. Tremors
What are some clinical signs of DYSPNOEA 1. Respiratory stridor 2. Hyperthermia 3. Cyanosis
What are some clinical signs of CONSCIOUS COLLAPSE? 1. Weakness 2. Twitching 3. Ataxia 4. Pyrexia
What is meant by Primary Triage? Determine if animal is having a true emergency. 1. Collect a brief history from owner 2. Observations of vital signs (A,B,C)
What is meant by Secondary Triage A more detailed assessment when time allows. 1. Full conversation with owner 2. Full physical examination
What are the special considerations when it comes to triage ? 1.Neonate 2. Wildlife 3. Exotics 4. Mass injury 5. Disaster triage
Emergencies can be classified in to 3 groups. What are they? 1. Life threatening 2. Serious 3. Minor
Examples of life threatening emergencies 1. Unconsciousness 2. Dyspnoea/Cyanosis 3. Severe Haemorrage 4. GDV (Gastric Torsion) 5. Heat stroke 6. Gutstasis 7. Poisoning
Examples of serious emergencies 1. Gaping wounds 2. Fractures/dislocations 3. Severe Dysuria 4. Dystocia
Examples of Minor Emergencies. 1. Insect Stings 2. Minor wounds 3. Minor Burns 4. Aural Haematoma 5. Lameness 6. Abcessess
What is the mnemonic for emergency secondary evaluations ? A Crash Plan: A: Airway C: Circulation R: Respiration A: Abdomen S: Spine H: Head P: Pelvis L: Limbs A: Arteries N: Nerves
When preparing for the arrival of an emergency patient, What equipment should you have? 1. Stethoscope 2. Thermometer 3. Gloves 4: Penlight 5: Hospital Sheet 6. Pen
In reading blood gases, What do the Lactate levels refer to? The functionality of the organs within the Cardiovascular and Respiratory Systems
When is the term 'SHOCK' used? When oxygen delivery to the tissues is poor due to tissue Hypoperfusion
What are the 4 types of shock? 1. Hypovolaemic 2. Obstructive/Distributive 3. Cardiogenic 4. Maldisruptive
What are the 4 stages of shock 1. Compensatory 2. Early de-compensatory 3. Late Decompensatory 4. Resuscitation: End stage
What are the routes of fluid therapy? Intravenous Oral/ Enteral Intraperitoneal Intraosseus Subcutaneous
What are the two types of fluids? Crystalloid Synthetic colloids
What is a crystalloid fluid Fluid containing electrolyte and non electrolyte solute that is capable of entering all body compartments
What is a Synthetic Colloid fluid Fluids containing atoms or molecules that resist moving out of the blood stream.
What is a simple fracture Bone broken in two pieces
What is a compound fracture A skin wound leading to a fracture site (open fracture)
A complicated fracture is? Where organs and blood vessels are damaged around the fracture site.
What is a multiple fracture A fracture in multiple places of the bone with a distance between then
What is a comminuted fracture The bone is shattered and there are splintered fragments
A Green-stick fracture is? A fracture that is incomplete through the bone. Generally seen in young animals
Clinical Signs of a fracture? 1. Deformity 2. Pain 3. Crepetus 4. Swelling 5 Loss of function / Lameness
What type of heat causes burns? Dry Heat
What type of heat causes scalds? Moist heat
The percentage of burns is worked out how? Assessing the amount of body area affected
A superficial burn is? When the burn penetrates no deeper than the skin surface
A deep burn is? Burned through the skin surface and into the tissues below
An acid burn should be treated with? Concentrates solutions of Bi-carbonate Soda
An alkali burn should be treated with? A weak solution of white vinegar and water
Define Haemorrhage Active blood loss
What is meant by direct pressure? Applying pressure directly to the wound
What is meant by indirect pressure? Applying pressure to the pressure points around the wound
What are the main pressure points? 1. Bracheal artery 2. Femoral artery 3: Coccygeal artery
An incised wound has Neat edges
A Lacerated wound has? Jagged edges (tear)
A Puncture wound? Hole into (dog bite)
An Abrasion Grazed skin surface (RTA)
An Avulsion? Tear with a skin flap
A Contusion? Bruise
Explain Artificial respiration Manually ventilating the patient via an endotracheal tube that is cuffed
Explain the steps of Mouth to Nose resuscitation 1. Lay patient in lateral and extend neck 2. Pull tongue forward 3. Close mouth firmly 4. Blow into nose 5. Blow gently as to not over inflate lungs
How would you perform CPR on a smaller animal (e.g. small dog/cat) Hand around chest with finger and thumb on either side. Apply even pressure when squeezing together.
How would you perform CPR on a larger animal? 1. Lay in lateral recumbency 2. Use heal of hand and other hand on top. 3. Apply pressure over heart region
What do you need to assess if the animal is collapsed? whether it is Alert, Depressed or Obtunded.
Alert collapse means? Collapsed but normal mentation
Depressed Collapse Quiet but is responding to stimuli
Obtunded Collapse Decreased level of consciousness, Responsive to pain
When handling and transporting a collapsed patient, what is the main concern? Maintenance of airway. Support head and neck
What are the common causes of Hypovolaemic shock? Haemorrhage Severe vomiting and diarrhoea Dehydration
What are the signs of Hypovolaemic shock? Tachycardia Poor Pulse Quality Low Blood Pressure Decreased cardiac output Decreased arterial blood pressure
What is Tissue Hypoxia? Reduced blood flow to the kidneys
What signs are seen in hypovolaemic shock? Tissue Hypoxia mucosal damage in the gut Acidosis Blood clots DIC (disseminated intravascular dissemination)
What are the flow rates for fluid with an animal in shock? (dog and cat) Cats: 40-60ml/kg/hour Dogs: 60-90ml/kg/hour
Distributive Shock Excessive dilation of blood vessels meaning the blood volume is unable to maintain normal perfusion.
Signs of distributive shock are? -Tachycardia - poor pulse quality - Red MM - Initially rapid CRT that progressively slows
Some of the causes of distributive shock are? Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (Pancreatitis, sepsis, Ruptured Pyometra) Severe Allergic reaction (Anaphylaxis)
Define Cardigenic Shock? Failure of the heart to pump effectively
Signs of cardiogenic shock - Heart Murmur - Ireegular Pulse (with defecits) Tachycardia or Bradycardia
Define obstructive shock Physical obstruction to blood flow in the vascular system
What are some of the causes of obstructive shock? -GDV (Gastric Volvulus Dilation) Thromboembolism
What are the normal levels of Lactic acid blood gas? 2.5mmol/L or less
What does a lactic acid reading of 6 mmol/l or more indicate? Severe shock
On an ECG, what does the P wave represent Atrium Contraction
On an ECG, What does the Q,R,S,T wave represent? Ventrical contraction
When placing ECG clips, Which clip goes where? Red: Right forelimb Yellow: Left Forelimb Green: Left Hind Black: Right hind
What is a holter? an ambulatory (portable) ECG device
What is meant by an 'Atrial standstill' ? No Atrial Output
in ECG terms, What does AVIR stand for? Accelerated Idioventricular Rhythm
What is the shelf life of fresh whole blood? 8 hours
What are the components of Fresh Whole Blood? -Red blood Cells Plasma Protein Coagulant Factors White Blood Cells Platelets
What is the shelf life of Stored Whole blood? What temperature is it stored at? 42 days depending on coag used 1-6 degrees
What are the components of Stored Whole Blood? Red Blood Cells Plasma Protein
what is the shelf life of 'Platelet Rich Plasma' and how is it stored? 5 days, kept at 22 degrees and intermittent agitation needed
What are the components of platelet rich plasma? Red blood cells White blood cells plasma
What is the shelf life of fresh frozen plasma? and how is it stored? 12 months stored in a freezer @ -18degrees
What are the components of fresh frozen plasma? Plasma Albumin Coagulant factors
What is the shelf life of frozen plasma? 5 years kept at -18degrees
What is the 'go-to' fluid in an emergency? Saline
What does Mannitol do and when is it used? Reduction of intracranial pressure and used only in a blunt head trauma case
What are the gauges for catheter sizes? Pink: 20g Blue: 22G Yellow: 24G Purple: 26G
When placing an intravenous catheter, what and when is the cut down technique used? where a hole is made first over the vein and then cannulation is completed. Used in cases of extreme venous collapse.
Which human non steroidal is toxic to animals? Ibuprofen
In poisons, what does chocolate contain? Theobromine
What is the antidote to paracetomol? Parvolex
What dangerous drug does bob martins flea products contain? Permethrine
What does slug killer contain Metaldahyde
What does the ingestion of lillies cause? Renal failure
What does grapes cause ? Renal failure
What is in anti-freeze and what does it do to the body? Ethylene-glycol. Crystalises in the kidney
What does chewing gum contain? Zylotol
What would you give in the case of an anti-coagulant poisoning? Vitamin K
What is an Opiod reversal Naloxone
Characteristics of benign tumours? - Grow Slowly - Encapsulated - Little blood supply - Minimal effects on other tissue - microscopically look the same as normal tissue
Characteristics of malignant tumours? - Rapid Growth - Invade other tissues - Metastasis - Different to other tissue microscopically
Name some Benign Tumours? - Melanoma - Lipoma - Osteoma - Papilloma - Chondroma
Name some Malignant Tumours - Transitional cell Carcinoma - Squamous cell carcinoma - Mast Cell Tumour - Osteosarcoma
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