Cara Carter
Quiz por , criado more than 1 year ago

Pediatric pharmacy questions from BGCOP Spring 2018

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Cara Carter
Criado por Cara Carter mais de 6 anos atrás
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Vaccines, Preventative Care and Neonatology

Questão 1 de 75

1

When is a glucose tolerance test conducted during pregnancy?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • As soon as the pregnancy is discovered

  • At 36 weeks when the pregnancy is at term

  • 24-28 weeks

  • 35-37 weeks

Explicação

Questão 2 de 75

1

When should a group B strep culture be conducted during a pregnancy?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • At the end of the 1st trimester

  • 35-37 weeks

  • 24-28 weeks

  • 27-36 weeks

Explicação

Questão 3 de 75

1

During what time period should a pregnant mother receive a Tdap?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 27-36 weeks

  • Prior to conception

  • At birth/delivery

  • 35-37 weeks

Explicação

Questão 4 de 75

1

What are the ABC's of initial pediatric assessment? (Check all that apply)

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Breathing

  • Activity

  • Appearance

  • Blinking

  • Conciousness

  • Circulation

Explicação

Questão 5 de 75

1

Newborn screening test newborns for conditions that are not detected by physical examination.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 6 de 75

1

What diseases can be detected by newborn screening? (Check all that apply)

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

  • Sickle Cell Disease

  • Cystic Fibrosis

  • Endometriosis

  • Rheumatoid Arthritis

  • Homocystinuria

  • PKU

  • Primary Congenital Hypothyroidism

Explicação

Questão 7 de 75

1

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Breastfeeding should be started within the first ( day, hour, minute, week ) of life and continued for at ( least, most ) ( twelve, five, nine, six ) months.

Explicação

Questão 8 de 75

1

Babies being placed on their back to sleep came from the 1994 "Back to Sleep" campaign to reduce what?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome

  • Infant Suffication

  • Asthma

  • Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

Explicação

Questão 9 de 75

1

At what age should children play peek-a-boo, say mama or dada and stand alone or take steps?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 12 months

  • 18 months

  • 24 months

  • 9 months

Explicação

Questão 10 de 75

1

Children should display what developmental milestones at 2 years? (Select all that apply)

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Name items in a picture book

  • Complete potty-training

  • Show defiant behavior

  • Construct short sentences

Explicação

Questão 11 de 75

1

An oral syringe should always be used to dose liquids for children.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 12 de 75

1

Preencha o espaço em branco para completar o texto.

is the phone number to poison control.

Explicação

Questão 13 de 75

1

Things that can fit through a toilet paper roll can kill a child under 5.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 14 de 75

1

Which of the following are reasons that pediatric pharmacokinetics are different than adult pharmacokinetics?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • CYP450 enzymes are still developing

  • Infants lack significant stomach acid

  • All of these are reasons

  • Infants have more body water

Explicação

Questão 15 de 75

1

Which of the following is not a reason for increased percutaneous drug absorption in pediatrics?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Children have larger surface area to mass ratio

  • Children have greater skin hydration

  • Children have greater muscle mass

  • Children have thinner skin

Explicação

Questão 16 de 75

1

A higher percentage of body water in infants leads to a larger volume of distribution

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 17 de 75

1

Why do infants and neonates have higher free fraction of drugs?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Higher body water percentage

  • Lower protein stores

  • Lower muscle mass

  • Higher surface area to body mass ratio

Explicação

Questão 18 de 75

1

What dose should be the absolute maximum dose for an obese child?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The extrapolated dose based on the child's weight

  • The dose at which results are seen

  • The adult maximum dose

  • The dose at which providers are comfortable with based on individual factors

Explicação

Questão 19 de 75

1

What is meconium?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A term used for the first cry

  • A term used for the first bowel movement

  • A term used to describe the birth crawl

  • An element on the periodic table that only infants possess

Explicação

Questão 20 de 75

1

Why is the APGAR scoring system used?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • To determine if an infant is normal at birth

  • To determine if the infant will experience genetic abnormalities through out life

  • To assess for disease at birth

  • To put parents at ease

Explicação

Questão 21 de 75

1

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The first A in APGAR stands for ( appearance, activity, angiogenesis ) and is used to determine if a neonate's ( color, muscle tone, visible blood vessels ) is normal.

Explicação

Questão 22 de 75

1

Preencha o espaço em branco para completar o texto.

The P in APGAR stands for

Explicação

Questão 23 de 75

1

The GAR in APGAR stands for which of the following

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Grimace, Activity, Respiration

  • Grin, Action, Respiration

  • Grimace, Action, Reflex

  • Grim, Activity, Reflex

Explicação

Questão 24 de 75

1

Which of the following prophylaxis treatments and disorders are correctly matched

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Gonococcal ophthalmia-erythromycin ointment or silver nitrate solution

  • Chlamydia- Oral amoxicillin

  • Vitamin K deficiency- IM phytonadione

  • Platelet aggregation-enoxaparin

Explicação

Questão 25 de 75

1

What is respiratory distress syndrome?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The name given to a condition in which infants are born with only one lung

  • A developmental disorder in which lungs are immature at birth

  • Cystic Fibrosis when diagnosed in utero

  • Lack of airway operation due to asthma or COPD at birth

Explicação

Questão 26 de 75

1

Preencha os espaços em branco para completar o texto.

deficiency, poor development and incomplete development in the lungs are common causes of respiratory distress syndrome and typically seen in neonates less than weeks.

Explicação

Questão 27 de 75

1

Which of the following is a common sign that an infant is struggling to breath?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Nasal flaring

  • Nasal salute

  • Excessive sleeping

  • Hyperactivity

Explicação

Questão 28 de 75

1

Why is surfactant given to neonates experiencing respiratory distress syndrome? (Select all that apply)

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • It is the most simple and quickest treatment

  • To cause an increase in alveolar surface tension

  • It has been proven to reduce mortality and morbidity

  • None of these

  • All of these

  • To replace deficient amounts

Explicação

Questão 29 de 75

1

What are tocolytics?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Drugs used to induce labor or contractions

  • Drugs used to stop labor or contractions

  • Drugs used during a cesarean section

  • Drugs used to increase fetal lung development

Explicação

Questão 30 de 75

1

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( Indomethacin, Calcium Channel Blockers, Magnesium sulfate ) is given at 24-32 weeks to halt labor while ( calcium channel blockers, magnesium sulfate, indomethacin ) are given at 32-34 weeks. ( magnesium sulfate, indomethacin, calcium channel blockers ) is used for neuroprotective effects.

Explicação

Questão 31 de 75

1

Antenatal steroids are given to treat respiratory distress syndrome. Why?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • They are thought to decrease overall morbidity and mortality

  • They decrease the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage

  • They decrease the incidence of patent ductus arteriosus

  • All of these are reasons to give antenatal steriods

Explicação

Questão 32 de 75

1

Which of the following drugs and drug classes is correctly matched as first line therapy for bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • HCTZ (Diuretic)

  • Theophylline (Bronchodialator)

  • Inhaled Prednisone (Corticosteroid)

  • Furosemide (Potassium supplement)

Explicação

Questão 33 de 75

1

Hypoxemia, reflex bradycardia, resuscitation and organ damage are concerns of what condition associated with prematurity?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Low birth weight

  • Respiratory distress syndrome

  • Apnea

  • Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

Explicação

Questão 34 de 75

1

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There is a positive correlation between the incidence of neonatal apnea and ( low birth weight, fetal lung development, cystic fibrosis, asthma )

Explicação

Questão 35 de 75

1

Prevention of apnea is thought to occur by competitively inhibiting adenosine. Which of the following drugs is thought to do this and thus is used to treat apnea?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Carbon dioxide

  • Theophylline

  • Caffeine

  • Azothioprine

Explicação

Questão 36 de 75

1

Preencha os espaços em branco para completar o texto.

In utero the blood flow from the placenta goes through the side of the heart and bypasses the lungs via the

Explicação

Questão 37 de 75

1

What is the name of the condition when the ductus does not normally close on its own?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Open ductus

  • Patent ductus arteriosus

  • Infantile coronary artery syndrome

  • Early onset atrial fibrilation

Explicação

Questão 38 de 75

1

What pharmacologic therapy is used to treat patent ductus arteriosus?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ACE inhibitors

  • Calcium Channel Blockers

  • Beta Blockers

  • Prostaglandin inhibitors

Explicação

Questão 39 de 75

1

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Ductal dependent ( congenital heart disease, congenital heart defect, arteriole bypass, arteriole stenosis ) is the only reason to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.

Explicação

Questão 40 de 75

1

This drug causes vasodilation by direct effect on vascular and ductus arteriosus smooth muscle to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Ibuprofen

  • Indomethacin

  • Pseudophedrine

  • Alprostail

Explicação

Questão 41 de 75

1

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Match each of the congenital heart defects with their descriptions

( Atrial Septal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta, Transposition of Great Arteries, Tetralogy of Fallot, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome ) -Opening between atria
( Ventricular Septal Defect, Atrial Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta, Transposition of Great Arteries, Tetralogy of Fallot, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome ) -Opening between ventricles
( Coarctation of Aorta, Transposition of Great Arteries, Tetralogy of Fallot, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome, Atrial Septal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect ) -Narrowing of the aorta
( Transposition of Great Arteries, Atrial Septal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta, Tetralogy of Fallot, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome ) -Vessel connection of aorta and pulmonary artery
( Tetralogy of Fallot, Transposition of Great Arteries, Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome, Atrial Septal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta ) -Opening between ventricles, right ventricular outflow obstruction and right aorta shift
( Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot, Atrial Sepatal Defect, Ventricular Septal Defect, Coarctation of Aorta, Transposition of Great Arteries ) -Underdeveloped left ventricle, opening between atria, small aorta, vessel connecting aorta and pulmonary artery

Explicação

Questão 42 de 75

1

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Early onset sepsis occurs in the first ( 7 days, 14 days, 30 days, 90 days ), typically manifests as ( pneumonia, ear infection, difficulty breathing, heart problems ) and is caused by bacteria from ( the mother, the environment, formula, neonatal cleaning ). Late onset sepsis occurs afters the first ( 7 days, 14 days, 30 days, 90 days ), typically manifests as ( meningitis and sepsis, cold, pneumonia, cystic fibrosis ) and is caused by bacteria from ( the environment, formula feedings, the mother, nosicomial setting ).

Explicação

Questão 43 de 75

1

Listeria monocytogenes, E. Coli, Group B strep and H. influemzae are the common bacteria causing what?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The common cold

  • Hospital Acquired Pneumonia in infants

  • Early Onset Sepsis

  • Late Onset Sepsis

Explicação

Questão 44 de 75

1

Which of the the following are typically used to treat early onset sepsis? (Select all that apply)

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate

  • Ampicillin

  • Levofloxacin

  • Zosyn

  • Aminoglycosides

  • Cefotaxime

  • Ceftriaxone

  • Ceftaroline

Explicação

Questão 45 de 75

1

Late onset sepsis is usually treated with what?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Rest and BRAT diet

  • Broad spectrum antibiotics

  • Anti-viral or anti-retroviral therapy

  • Amoxicillin

Explicação

Questão 46 de 75

1

TORCH is an acronym for a group of diseases that cause what due to in utero exposure?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • congenital conditions

  • chronic conditions

  • neurodegenerative conditions

  • genetic conditions

Explicação

Questão 47 de 75

1

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The acronym TORCH stands for ( taxoplasmosis, trichomoniasis ), ( other, oligobacteria ), ( rubella, rabies ), ( cytomegalovirus, Chlamydia ), ( herpes infection, H. influenzae ).

Explicação

Questão 48 de 75

1

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Toxoplasmosis is caused by ( Toxoplasma gondii, Treponema pallidum, Toxoplasma denticola ) which is a ( bacteria, protozoan parasite, virus ) found in the feces of ( cats, dogs, fish, hamsters/rodents ) and contaminated ( meat or vegetables, fruit or vegetables, beans or poultry ).

Explicação

Questão 49 de 75

1

Select all correctly matched congenitally acquired infectious diseases and their treatments

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Vibrio cholerae- Amoxicillin

  • Trepodema pallidum -Penicillin G for 10 days

  • E. coli -Vancomycin

  • Streptococcus faecalis - Ceftriaxone

  • Klebsiella pneumoniae -Metronidazole

  • Cytomegalovirus -Ganciclovir

Explicação

Questão 50 de 75

1

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Match the congenitally acquired infectious diseases with their treatment.

Chlamydia trachomatis -( systemic erythromycin or azithromycin, oral vancomycin, IM cefazolin )
( Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, HIV ) - Vaccine and HBIG within 12 hours of birth
Herpes Simplex - ( High dose acyclovir, Low dose valacyclovir, Gancyclovir, Valgancyclovir )

Explicação

Questão 51 de 75

1

Preencha o espaço em branco para completar o texto.

Finnergan Score is used to assess .

Explicação

Questão 52 de 75

1

Which of the following are first line treatments for neonatal abstinence syndrome? (Select all that apply)

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • diazepam

  • morphine

  • hydromorphone

  • oxycodone

  • phenobarbital

  • methadone

  • clonidine

  • pseudoephedrine

Explicação

Questão 53 de 75

1

Preencha o espaço em branco para completar o texto.

vaccine is recommended more for the protection of children and infants and should be given every 10 years.

Explicação

Questão 54 de 75

1

What recombinant vaccine is recommended for immunocompromised individuals aged 50 and older?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Tdap

  • Shingrix

  • HiB

  • Prevnar 13

Explicação

Questão 55 de 75

1

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( High dose, IM, Intranasal ) or ( low dose, adjuvanted IIV, recombinant ) are formulation of influenza vaccines recommended for people aged 65 and older.

Explicação

Questão 56 de 75

1

Prevnar (PCV 13) and Pneumovax (PPSV23) are pneumococcal vaccinces recommended for whom?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Adults 65 and older

  • Adults 55 and older with a comorbidity

  • Immunocompetent individuals

  • A and C

  • All of the above

  • None of the above

Explicação

Questão 57 de 75

1

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The maximum number of doses of Pneumovax (PPSV23) that any person should receive is ( three, two, four, five ) with each dose being a minimum of ( five, three, two, four ) ( years, months, days, weeks ) apart.

Explicação

Questão 58 de 75

1

When is the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine given?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • At the first well baby check up

  • At birth

  • At 3 months

  • At hospital discharge

Explicação

Questão 59 de 75

1

The minimum age for HPV vaccination is what?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • thirteen in boys and nine in girls

  • nine

  • thirteen

  • nine in boys and thirteen in girls

  • puberty in box sexes

Explicação

Questão 60 de 75

1

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The ( second, first, third ) dose of the meningococcal vaccine is given at ( thirteen, sixteen, eighteen ).

Explicação

Questão 61 de 75

1

IIV formulation of the influenza vaccine can be given at what age minimum?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • No age minimum

  • 5 years

  • 12 months

  • 6 months

Explicação

Questão 62 de 75

1

What vaccines are recommended for all pregnant women? (Select all that apply)

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Tdap

  • Influenza

  • DTap

  • HiB

  • Herpes Zoster

Explicação

Questão 63 de 75

1

Preencha os espaços em branco para completar o texto.

Adults younger than 60 years old with are a high risk indication for the vaccine

Explicação

Questão 64 de 75

1

Patients who smoke cigarettes should receive what vaccine if they are older than 18 and younger than 65?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Influenza

  • Hepatitis B

  • Pneumovax (PPSV23)

  • Tdap

Explicação

Questão 65 de 75

1

Which of the following should be given to an AIDs patient (CD4 less than 200)?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Shingles

  • Varicella

  • MMR

  • All of these

  • None of these

Explicação

Questão 66 de 75

1

An aspleenic person should be given which of the following vaccines to protect against encapsulated organisms? (Select all that apply)

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • HiB

  • Pneumococcal

  • Meningococcal

  • Influenza

  • Varicella

  • MMR

Explicação

Questão 67 de 75

1

Proper hydration and arm movement do what post-immunization?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Nothing

  • Reduce soreness

  • Provide synergistic effects for the vaccine

  • Prevent post-vaccine illness

Explicação

Questão 68 de 75

1

What year was mercury removed from vaccines except multidose flu vials?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1995

  • 2000

  • 2005

  • 2010

Explicação

Questão 69 de 75

1

Acetaminophen and Ibuprofen have been shown to reduce what?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Inflammation after vaccination

  • Immune response after vaccination

  • Vaccine associated fever

  • All of these

Explicação

Questão 70 de 75

1

Undervaccinated or unvaccincated people exposed to diseases in other countries are typically patient 0 during outbreaks.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 71 de 75

1

What vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • All vaccines

  • Live vaccines

  • Conjugate vaccines

  • Toxoid vaccines

Explicação

Questão 72 de 75

1

What is the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The group who approves vaccine schedules

  • A division of the CDC

  • A division of the FDA

  • A division of the Department of Health and Human Services

Explicação

Questão 73 de 75

1

The first dose followed by a second dose in 1 to 2 months and a third dose in 6 months is the dosing schedule for what vaccine?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • HPV

  • HiB

  • Influenza

  • Varicella

Explicação

Questão 74 de 75

1

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A patient should first be given ( PCV13, PPSV23, Menactra, Influenza vaccine ) followed by ( PPSV23, PCV13, HiB, Yellow fever vaccine ) ( six months, one year, two years, five years ) later.

Explicação

Questão 75 de 75

1

Andrew Wakefield is the British physician who fabricated data in a publication that lead to the belief that vaccines cause autism. What was the name of the publication?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The Needle Stick

  • Autism Errupts

  • Autism Conspiracy

  • The Lancet

Explicação