40.2.1.2 (2618)
Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when
altitude is changed?

• Eustachian tube

• External auditory canal

• Tympanic membrane

• Cochlea

40.2.1.2 (2625)
The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC
(Time of Useful Consciousness). It
a)
b)c) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure
d) varies individually and does not depend on altitude

• is the same amount of time for every person

• varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude

• is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure

• varies individually and does not depend on altitude

40.2.1.2 (2626)
After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be
approximately:

• 5-15 seconds

• 30-45 seconds

• 45-60 seconds

• 60-90 seconds

40.2.1.2 (2628)
Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are
symptoms of

• decompression sickness

• barotrauma

• hypoxia

• air-sickness

40.2.1.2 (2642)
Hypoxia effects visual performance.A pilot may:
a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision
b)
c)
d)

• have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL

• be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL

• get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache

• get blurred and/or tunnel vision

40.2.1.2 (2644)
In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?

• This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the
  body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired
  thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions

• This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to
  compensate by decreasing the heart rate.

• This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while
  hyperventilating.ma=259200

• Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction
  opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning

40.2.1.2 (2645)
Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the
following symptoms:

• dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision

• a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate

• reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity

• blue finger-nails and lips

40.2.1.2 (2647)
The cabin pressure in airline operation is

• normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet

• normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet

• normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet

• always equivalent to sea level

40.2.1.2 (2651)
Anxiety and fear can cause

• hyperventilation

• spatial disorientation

• hypoxia

• hypoglycemia

40.2.1.2 (2655)
The normal rate of breathing is

• 12 to 16 cycles a minute

• 20 to 30 cycles a minute

• 32 to 40 cycles a minute

• 60 to 100 cycles a minute

40.2.1.2 (2657)
Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)

• below 3 000 m

• up to 5 000 m

• between 3 000 m and 5 000 m

• between 5 000 m and 7 000 m

40.2.1.2 (2658)
""The Bends"" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:

• pain in the joints

• pain in the thorax and a backing cough

• CNS-disturbances

• loss of peripheral vision

40.2.1.2 (2664)
What is hypoxia ?

• The total absence of oxygen in the air

• The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness

• Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal
  limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some
  pathological condition

• A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment
  of the masko

40.2.1.2 (2665)
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000
ft?

• Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse

• Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination

• Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness

• Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing

40.2.1.2 (2668)
Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately :

• 21% oxygen

• 5% oxygen

• 15% oxygen

• 10% oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2669)
Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:

• 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases

• 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases

• 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases

• 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases

40.2.1.2 (2674)
What is decompression sickness ?

• A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern
  aircraft

• An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues
  and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude

• The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's
  capabilities

• A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft

40.2.1.2 (2677)
Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to

• 10.000 - 12.000feet

• 15.000 feet

• 20.000 feet

• 25.000 feet

40.2.1.2 (2680)
Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells

• have a shortage of oxygen

• are saturated with nitrogen

• are saturated with oxygen

• have a shortage of carbon dioxide

40.2.1.2 (2684)
One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:

• reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin

• cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear

• impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms

• hyperventilation, causing emotional stress

40.2.1.2 (2685)
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?1. Blue
lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness..

• 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

• 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

• 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

• 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

40.2.1.2 (2692)
Hypoxia can occur because:

• you are getting toomuch solar radiation

• you inhale too much nitrogen

• you are hyperventilating

• the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude

40.2.1.2 (2694)
Hyperventilation is:


• a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood

• an increased lung ventilation

• a decreased lung ventilation

• a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.

40.2.1.2 (2698)
What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ?

• The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression

• The length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and
  physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his
  available oxygen supply

• The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia

• The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes
  aware of it

40.2.1.2 (2706)
Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:

• blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand

• leveling off and possibly climbing

• increasing the rate of descent

• using an oxygen mask

40.2.1.2 (2717)
Haemoglobin is:

• in the red blood cells

• dissolved in the plasma

• in the platelets

• in the white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2735)
The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:

• 4 cycles per minute

• 16 cycles per minute

• 32 cycles per minute

• 72 cycles per minute

40.2.1.2 (2745)
During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling
sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate:

• disorientation

• hypoxia

• hyperventilation

• carbon monoxide poisoningt

40.2.1.2 (2748)
You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The
intention is:

• to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible

• to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen

• to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung

• to reduce blood pressure

40.2.1.2 (2759)
What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?

• about 30 minutes

• 1 to 2 minutes

• 1to 2 hours

• 5 to 10 minutes

40.2.2.2 (2783)
What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog,
darkness, snow and vapor)?

• Objects seem to be closer than in reality

• Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality

• It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects

• There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny daya

40.2.2.2 (2784)
Hypoxia will effect night vision

• less than day vision

• at 5000 FT

• and causes the autokinetic phenomena

• and causes hyperventilation

40.2.2.2 (2802)
the FOVEA

• is sensitive to very low intensities of light

• is an area in which cones predominate

• Is an area in which rods predominate

• is the area responsible for night vision

40.2.2.2 (2825)
Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected reduction of the
visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage

• 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false

• 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false

• 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false

40.2.2.4 (2845)
The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor

• movements with constant speeds

• relative speed and linear accelerations

• angular accelerations

• gravity

40.2.2.5 (2882)
The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.Possible danger is:

• approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing

• approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing

• to drop far below the glide path

• to misjudge the length of the runway

40.2.2.5 (2884)
""Pilot's vertigo""

• is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory
  impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)

• is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration

• is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn

• announces the beginning of airsickness

40.2.2.5 (2886)
What do you do, when you are affected by ""pilot`s vertigo""?1. Establis maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore
illusions.4. Minimize head movements.

• 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

• 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

• 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

• Only 4 is false

40.2.2.5 (2899)
When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation

• of turning in the same direction

• of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft

• that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction

• of the immediate stabilization of the aircrafto

40.2.2.5 (2905)
Visual disturbances can be caused by:1. hyperventilation2. hypoxia3.
hypertension4. fatigue

• 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

• 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• 2, 3 and 4 are correct

• 1, 2 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.5 (2920)
How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By

• believing your body senses only.

• maintaining a good instrument cross check.

• moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.

• looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.

40.2.2.5 (2924)
If you are disorientated during night flying you must:

• look outside

• descend

• relay on instruments

• check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast

40.2.3.0 (2926)
Our body takes its energy from :1: minerals2: protein3: carbonhydrates4:
vitamines

• 2,3

• 1,4

• 1,2,3,4

• 1,3

40.2.3.2 (2937)
Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2.
pain in the ear during descent3. pressure vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinuses

• 1 and 2 are correct

• 2,3 and 4 are correct

• 1,3 and 4 are correct

• 1,2 and 4 are correct

40.2.3.2 (2938)
Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:

• pain in the sinuses

• chokes

• bends

• hypoxia

40.2.3.3 (2939)
Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?

• High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory
  system

• Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can be treated by inflight medication.

• High blood pressure only.

• Low blood pressure only.

40.2.3.3 (2942)
To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be

• avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart

• double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week

• triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week

• double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week

40.2.3.3 (2943)
Which of the following is most true?

• Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate

• Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight

• Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to
  lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption

• Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose
  weight

40.2.3.3 (2944)
Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle
ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an
obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane

• 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

• 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false

• 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

• 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

40.2.3.4 (2951)
Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance

• the side effects only have to be considered

• the primary and the side effects have to be considered

• medication has no influence on pilot´s performance

• only the primary effect has to be considered, side effects are negligable

40.2.3.4 (2956)
Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker,
has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitud

• of 10 000 FT

• above 10 000 FT

• ower than 10 000 FT

• of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen

40.2.3.4 (2959)
Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)

• is approx. 0.3% per hour

• is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited

• depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks

• definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten

40.2.3.4 (2961)
The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of
metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about

• 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour

• 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour

• 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour

• 0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour

40.2.3.6 (2976)
Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is :

• sudden

• insinuating

• obvious

• intense

40.3.1.0 (2979)
Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up
every time what they have to do.

• this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases consistency in action

• this is dangerous for every situation is different

• this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to
  comply with

• this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be
  solved by improvisation.

40.3.1.1 (2983)
The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively
monitored input channel is known as


• perception

• attention

• sensation

• appreciation

40.3.1.2 (3005)
Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :

• due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems

• due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data

• associated with the task of mental construction of the environment

• solely induced in the absence of external reference points

40.3.1.3 (3009)
Information stays in the short-term memory

• less than 1 second

• about 20 seconds

• from 5 to 10 minutes

• around 24 hourso

40.3.2.0 (3047)
What is meant by the term 'complacency'?

• To question possible solutions

• Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence

• An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Management

• Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying

40.3.3.0 (3086)
Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will
probably

• find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data

• find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different
  interpretation of the data

• find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens

• find it easy to interpret the data in different ways

40.3.3.1 (3093)
What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time
pressure ?

• A Laissez-faire strategy

• A non-sequential strategy

• A strategy of no commitment

• A strategy of preparing decisions

40.3.4.1 (3107)
You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a
meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than
expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you
manage to land there at any case.What is your appropriate way of action? You will

• continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money

• decide to divert if you think it is necessary.

• divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboard

• see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision

40.3.4.2 (3110)
The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:

• their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions

• their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions

• their execution is not lumped together with important tasks

• it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification

40.3.4.2 (3112)
In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:-1 :
know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the
crew.-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.-3 : abandon automatic mode and
instead process as much information as possible consciously.-4 : drop certain tasks
and stick to high-level priorities.The correct statement(s) is (are):

• 1 and 3 are correct

• 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• 1, 2 and 3 are correct

• 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.2 (3113)
Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?

• The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since
  attention is usually focused here

• The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept
  near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check

• All the items of a check list are equally important, their sequence is of no importance

• The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to
  be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane

40.3.4.2 (3115)
What are the advantages of coordination?

• Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.

• Interaction, cognition, redundancy.

• Cooperation, cognition, redundancy

• Redundancy, exploration, risky shift.

40.3.4.2 (3116)
Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:

• working parallel to achieve individual objectives

• working parallel to achieve one common objective

• the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions

• sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight
  situations

40.3.4.2 (3118)
Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :

• only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures

• be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in
  order to maintain maximum synergy

• only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit
  philosophies

• be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the
  aircraft

40.3.4.3 (3120)
Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:(1)
dominant behaviour(2) examplary role-behaviour(3) mastery of communication
skills(4) ""Laissez-faire"" behaviour

• 1 and 4

• 1 and 3

• 2 and 3

• 2 and 4

40.3.4.3 (3121)
During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on
the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly
motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate?

• The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to do

• The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any
  comments

• The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that
  needed

• the captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to
  keep him informed about his decisions

40.3.4.3 (3122)
Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative
leadership style?If conflicts evolve, the leader

• mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice
  and friendly atmosphere within the team

• keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing

• decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through

• tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved

40.3.4.3 (3123)
Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?

• Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the individual

• To be a member of a team can not increase one's own motivation to succeed in coping with
  task demands

• The quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of
  individual team members

• The quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-competence of individual team
  members

40.3.4.3 (3126)
Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal
conflicts?

• Staying to the own point of view.

• Responding with counter-arguments.

• Active listening.

• Giving up the own point of view

40.3.4.3 (3127)
The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on

• both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals

• both pilots wearing the same uniform

• both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude

• both pilots flying together very often for a long period

40.3.4.3 (3131)
The ""ideal professional pilot"" is, in his behaviour,

• rather ""person"" than ""goal"" oriented

• ""person"" and ""goal"" oriented

• rather ""goal"" than ""person"" oriented

• neither ""person"" nor ""goal"" oriented

40.3.4.3 (3134)
What elements establish synergy within the crew ?

• Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be
  maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)

• Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members
  (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)

• Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to
  debriefing

• It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew

40.3.4.3 (3137)
What may become the main risk of a ""laissez-faire""(liberalismo) cockpit ?

• Lack of communication

• Inversion of authority

• Disengagement of the co-pilot

• Appearance of agressiveness

40.3.4.3 (3138)
What is characterized by a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?

• Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other
  members about them

• A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other
  crew members

• The high level of independence granted to eachoding:

• The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation

40.3.4.3 (3145)
What is synergy in a crew ?

• A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions

• The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non-standard
  task

• The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which
  collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual
  performances

• The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective

40.3.4.3 (3147)
An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:

• the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members

• decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other
  crew members

• decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew

• the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level

40.3.4.3 (3149)
CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:

• intended solely to alter an individual's personality,

• intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes
  towards flight safety and human relationship management

• is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes

• not intended to change the individual's attitude at all

40.3.5.1 (3180)
Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high
workload conditions in the cockpit?

• Mentally absent.

• Sensitive.

• Disciplined.

• Jovial.

40.3.6.2 (3198)
In case of in-flight stress, one should :

• only trust in oneself, beeing sure to know the own limits

• use all available resources of the crew

• always carry out a breathing exercise

• demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew

40.3.6.2 (3205)
What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?

• The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.

• The objective threat of the situation.

• The time available to cope with the situation.

• The unexpected outcome of the situation.

40.3.6.2 (3209)
Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?

• Stress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural
  performance.

• Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or
  reduces performance.

• Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in connection with precise tasks of the kind
  encountered in aeronautics

• Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.

40.3.6.2 (3223)
Stress is above all :

• a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control

• the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the
  various situation which he may have to face

• a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his
  performance

• a phenomenon which is specific to modern man

40.3.6.2 (3229)
A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:

• coping stress

• eustress

• distress (stress reactions)

• stressors

40.3.6.3 (3238)
A fatigued pilot


• is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression

• will get precordial pain

• considerably increases the ability to concentrate

• will show signs of increased irritability

40.3.6.5 (3261)
What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints ?

• The preparation of action and time management

• The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks

• The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures

• The preparation of action and the application of procedures

50.1.1.1 (3273)
What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?

• 16 km

• 8 km

• 11 km

• 40 km

50.1.1.1 (3274)
In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?

• Tropopause.

• Stratosphere

• Troposphere.

• Stratopause.

50.1.1.1 (3276)
Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?

• Altocumulus

• Cumulonimbus

• Cirrostratus

• Altostratus

50.1.1.1 (3278)
Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?

• Lower stratosphere

• Troposphere

• Upper stratosphere

• Ionosphere

50.1.1.1 (3280)
What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?

• 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

• 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

• 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

• 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

50.1.1.1 (3284)
The tropopause is a level at which

• water vapour content is greatest

• temperature ceases to fall with increasing height

• pressure remains constant

• vertical currents are strongest

50.1.1.1 (3287)
The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of

• 8 km and - 75°C over the poles

• 16 km and -75°C over the equator

• 8 km and -40°C over the equator

• 16 km and -40°C over the poles

50.1.2.1 (3289)
The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?

• -6°C.

• -9°C.

• -18°C.

• -15°C.

50.1.2.1 (3290)
At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to
the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?

• -54°C.

• -58°C.

• -50°C.

• -56,5°C.

50.1.2.1 (3291)
An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is
the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?

• 10°C colder than ISA

• 10°C warmer than ISA

• 5°C warmer than ISA.

• 5°C colder than ISA.

50.1.2.1 (3292)
What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?

• -75°C.

• -35°C.

• -55°C.

• -25°C

50.1.2.1 (3294)
The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?

• -4°C

• 0°C

• -6°C

• +2°C

50.1.2.1 (3296)
The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?

• -4°C

• -8°C

• 0°C

• +4°C

50.1.2.1 (3301)
In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature

• decreases with altitude

• is almost constant

• increases with altitude

• increases at first and decreases afterward

50.1.2.3 (3309)
In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and 13°C at 1000m.
This layer of air is:

• stable

• unstable

• a layer of heavy turbulence

• conditionally unstable

50.1.2.3 (3315)
An inversion is a layer of air which is

• absolutely unstable

• absolutely stable

• conditionally unstable

• conditionally stable

50.1.2.3 (3317)
The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of

• 1°C/100m

• 2°C/1000FT

• 0.65°C/100m

• 0.5°C/100m

50.1.2.4 (3326)
An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature

• increases with height

• remains constant with height

• decreases with height at a constant rate

• increases with height at a constant rate

50.1.2.4 (3327)
An inversion is

• an increase of temperature with height

• an increase of pressure with height

• a decrease of temperature with height

• a decrease of pressure with height

50.1.3.1 (3332)
The station pressure used in surface weather charts is

• QFF

• QFE

• QNH

• QNE

50.1.3.1 (3334)
Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal

• QFF

• QNE
  

• QFE

• QNH

50.1.3.2 (3339)
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure ?

• It is higher at night than during the day

• It decreases with height

• It is higher in winter than in summer

• It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m

50.1.3.3 (3341)
In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?

• Temperature at the airfield.

• Elevation of the airfield.

• Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.

• Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.

50.1.3.3 (3349)
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH ?

• 1000 hPa

• 1005 hPa

• 1010 hPa

• 1015 hPa

50.1.3.3 (3350)
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?

• 985 hPa

• 990 hPa

• 1025 hPa

• 1035 hPa

50.1.3.3 (3353)
QNH is defined as

• pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere

• QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere

• QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere

• pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere

50.1.3.3 (3354)
In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?

• Temperature at the airfield

• Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL

• Elevation of the airfield

• Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield

50.1.4.1 (3355)
At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:

• Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.

• Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.

• Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.

• Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.

50.1.5.1 (3363)
A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the
following average heights is applicable ?


• FL 50

• FL100

• FL 300

• FL 390

50.1.5.1 (3364)
If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?


• -15°C

• -30°C

• -45°C

• -60°C

50.1.5.1 (3367)
How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?

• Decreases

• Increases

• Remains constant

• At first it increases and higher up it decreases

50.1.5.1 (3368)
What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere ?

• 2°C per 1000 m

• 3°C per 1000 m

• 4.5°C per 1000 m

• 6.5°C per 1000 m

50.1.5.1 (3369)
In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height
below 11 km is

• 0.65°C per 100m

• 0.5°C per 100m

• 1°C per 100m

• 0.6°C per 100m

50.1.5.1 (3370)
Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere ?

• At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m

• At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa

• At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per
  100m

• At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m

50.1.5.1 (3372)
The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :

• 0°C

• -5°C

• -20°C

• -35°C

50.1.6.1 (3374)
The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from
ISA is -15°C below FL 100.What is the true altitude of FL 100?

• 8590 FT.

• 10210 FT

• 9790 FT.

• 11410 FT.

50.1.6.1 (3382)
During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet, local QNH is
1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying?

• Its average temperature is the same as ISA

• It is colder than ISA

• It is warmer than ISA

• There is insufficient information to make any assumption

50.1.6.1 (3384)
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet, local
QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying ?

• It is colder than ISA

• Its average temperature is the same as ISA

• There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion

• It is warmer than ISA

50.1.6.1 (3385)
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet, local
QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying ?

• It is warmer than ISA

• Its average temperature is about ISA

• It is colder than ISA

• There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion

50.1.6.1 (3392)
You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea
level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?

• 19340 feet

• 18260 feet

• 21740 feet

• 20660 feet

50.1.6.1 (3395)
Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower
altitude than that actually flown ?

• Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.

• Atmospheric pressure lower than standard

• Air temperature higher than standard

• Air temperature lower than standard.(Aÿÿ8E¹)@5)

50.1.6.1 (3396)
The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if

• the outside air temperature is standard for that height

• standard atmospheric conditions occur

• the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

• the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface

50.1.6.3 (3400)
What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT
below sea level?

• QFE is greater than QNH.

• QFE equals QNH.

• QFE is smaller than QNH.

• No clear relationship exist

50.1.6.3 (3403)
An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will
happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ?

• It will increase

• It will decrease

• It will remain the same

• It will not be affected

50.1.6.3 (3404)
After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still
set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level ?

• 660 feet.

• 1200 feet.

• 1740 feet.

• 2280 feet.

50.1.6.3 (3406)
During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
during the resetting procedure?

• It will increase

• It is not possible to give a definitive answer

• It will decrease

• It will remain the same

50.1.6.3 (3408)
What pressure is defined as QFE?

• The pressure at field elevation

• The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures

• The pressure of the altimeter

• The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures

50.1.6.3 (3409)
An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this
altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated
would be

• 2922 FT.

• 3006 FT.

• 4278 FT.

• 4194 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3411)
An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter
has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately


• 7650 FT.

• 8000 FT

• 8600 FT.

• 8350 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3413)
Which of the following statements is true ?

• QNH is always equal to QFE

• QNH can be equal to QFE

• QNH is always higher than QFE

• QNH is always lower than QFE

50.1.6.4 (3422)
What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest
usable flight level?

• Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.

• Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA

• Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.

• Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA

50.1.6.4 (3423)
Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a
position where flight over mountains could be dangereous?

• Cold high.

• Cold low

• Warm high.

• Warm depression.

50.1.6.4 (3424)
A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL.
Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical
separation be?

• It remains 1000 FT

• Less than 1000 FT

• Without QNH information, it can not be determined

• More than 1000 FT

50.2.1.1 (3426)
What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per
hour?

• 35 km/h

• 45 km/h

• 5 km/h

• 60 km/h

50.2.1.1 (3427)
What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?

• 50 kt

• 55 kt

• 60 kt

• 70 kt

50.2.1.1 (3428)
What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?

• 15 m/sec

• 20 m/sec

• 25 m/sec

• 30 m/sec

50.2.1.1 (3429)
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?

• Direction relative to true north and speed in knots

• Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh

• Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots

• Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh

50.2.2.1 (3431)
Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?

• Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.

• Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.

• Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.

• Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.

50.2.2.1 (3437)
What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure
areas ?

• Surface friction

• Katabatic force

• Coriolis force

• The pressure gradient force

50.2.2.1 (3439)
Wind is caused by

• friction between the air and the ground

• the movements of fronts

• the rotation of the earth

• horizontal pressure differences

50.2.2.2 (3454)
When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
together, the wind is most likely to be

• light

• changing direction rapidly

• strong

• blowing perpendicular to the isobars

Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO
description?""There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude
but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in
air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center
of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about.
Food service and walking are difficult.""

• Light.

• Moderate

• Severe.

• Violent.

50.2.4.2 (3472)
Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?

• Altocumulus lenticularis

• Nimbostratus

• Stratocumulus

• Cirrocumulus

50.2.4.2 (3473)
Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of

• turbulence at and below the cloud level

• smooth flying conditions below the cloud level

• poor visibility at surface

• a high risk of thunderstorms

50.2.5.1 (3485)
In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows

• counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area

• clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area

• from a low pressure area to a high pressure area

• counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area.

50.2.6.1 (3493)
In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :

• during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.

• during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.

• during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.

• during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.

50.2.6.1 (3494)
A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the
Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at
the airport on a sunny afternoon?

• Land to sea.

• Variable.

• Sea to land.

• Parallel to the coastline.

50.2.6.1 (3495)
A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows

• up the slope during the day.

• down the slope during the night.

• down the slope during the day.

• up the slope during the night.

50.2.6.1 (3496)
Which of the following is true of a land breeze?

• It blows from land to water

• It blows from water to land

• It blows only at noon

• It blows by day

50.2.6.1 (3498)
The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward
the :

• mountain at night.

• valley during daylight hours.

• mountain during daylight hours.

• valley during daylight as much as at night.

50.2.6.1 (3500)
When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large
body of water will experience wind

• from the water in daytime and from the land at night

• from the land in daytime and from the water at night

• continually from land to water

• continually from water to the land

50.2.6.1 (3502)
In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows

• during the day down from the mountains

• at night up from the valley

• at night down from the mountains

• during the day up from the valley

50.2.7.2 (3504)
An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath
the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this
portion of the flight?

• It decreases.

• It remains constant.

• It first increases, then decreases.

• It increases.

50.2.7.2 (3510)
Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?

• The arctic jet stream

• The polar front jet stream

• The equatorial jet stream

• The subtropical jet stream

What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?

• 50 kt.

• 60 kt.

• 70 kt.

• 100 kt.

50.2.7.5 (3533)
In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ?


• Exactly in the centre of the core.

• The cold air side of the core.

• The warm air side of the core.

• About 12000 FT above the core

50.2.8.1 (3537)
At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be
encountered is

• altocumulus lenticularis.

• cirrostratus.

• cirrus.

• cumulus mediocris.

50.3.1.1 (3538)
What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a
weather stand-point ?

• Nitrogen

• Oxygen

• Water vapour

• Hydrogen

50.3.1.2 (3549)
The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the

• relative humidity

• air temperature

• dewpoint

• stability of the air

50.3.1.2 (3551)
The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in

• dry air

• moist air

• air with low temperature

• air with high temperature

50.3.1.2 (3552)
The dewpoint temperature

• is always lower than the air temperature

• can not be equal to the air temperature

• can be equal to the air temperature

• is always higher than the air temperature

50.3.1.2 (3553)
Relative humidity depends on

• moisture content and pressure of the air

• moisture content and temperature of the air

• temperature of the air only

• moisture content of the air only

50.3.2.1 (3557)
Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when: