62.1.5.0 (4705)
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

62.1.5.0 (4706)
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at
a groundspeed of 90 kt?


62.2.1.0 (4719)
The maximum range of primary radar depends on :

62.2.1.0 (4721)
The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary
radar is the:

62.2.1.0 (4725)
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by
the:

62.2.2.0 (4737)
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is
approximately:

62.2.1.0 (4725)
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by
the:

62.2.3.0 (4742)
Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather
radar when using the 'weather beam'?

62.2.3.0 (4743)
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant
radiation pattern.

62.2.3.0 (4751)
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the
scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:

62.2.3.0 (4754)
In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR)
is at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a
beam width of 5°)

62.2.4.0 (4761)
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

62.2.4.0 (4762)
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
code:


62.2.4.0 (4763)
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight,
the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:

62.2.4.0 (4766)
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:

62.2.4.0 (4770)
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to
indicate transponder malfunction?

62.2.4.0 (4774)
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance
Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:

62.2.4.0 (4779)
The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

62.2.4.0 (4761)
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

62.2.4.0 (4762)
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
code:

62.2.4.0 (4763)
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight,
the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:

62.2.4.0 (4766)
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:

62.5.1.0 (4786)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic
Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:

62.5.1.0 (4788)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
armed modes are coloured:

62.5.1.0 (4789)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
selected data and values are coloured:

62.5.1.0 (4791)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
the active route/flight plan is coloured:

62.5.2.0 (4805)
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation
Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:

62.5.2.0 (4809)
The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way
that the pilot can:

62.5.4.0 (4819)
Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area
Navigation (RNAV) fixes?

62.6.1.0 (4835)
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the
transmitter velocity will occur when:

62.6.5.0 (4843)
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained
by:

62.6.5.0 (4844)
In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS)
provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?

62.6.5.0 (4847)
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional
operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any
faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The
number of satellites is:

62.6.5.0 (4848)
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation
without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The
number of satellites is:

62.6.5.0 (4849)
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of
the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?

62.6.5.0 (4853)
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?

62.6.5.0 (4854)
Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the
most accurate position fixes in air navigation?

62.6.5.0 (4855)
The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:

62.6.5.0 (4857)
How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC)
of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?

62.6.5.0 (4864)
The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:

62.6.5.0 (4876)
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken
to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?

62.6.5.0 (4885)
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an
accurate independent 3-D position fix?

62.6.5.0 (4901)
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?

71.1.1.0 (4903)
Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently
long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft,
dry runway) within:

71.1.1.0 (4907)
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be
operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers
during at least :

71.1.1.0 (4908)
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from
the shore by more than :

71.1.1.0 (4911)
The term decision height (DH) is used for :

71.1.1.0 (4913)
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance
that : (Annex 6, Part I)

71.1.1.0 (4915)
When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking
the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

71.1.1.0 (4920)
The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a
coverage angle of :

71.1.1.0 (4921)
Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least
the last :

71.1.1.0 (4922)
For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the
conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :

71.1.1.0 (4923)
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed
with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is
greater than :

71.1.1.0 (4924)
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with
oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the
pressure altitude is between :

71.1.1.0 (4926)
For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board
any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :

71.1.1.0 (4928)
The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight
and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :

71.1.1.0 (4930)
The JAR-OPS is based on :

71.1.1.0 (4931)
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from the front right right, will first see the :

71.1.1.0 (4932)
The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight
and located at the tip of the left wing is :


71.1.1.0 (4933)
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the
scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of :

71.1.2.0 (4936)
The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:


71.1.2.4 (4953)
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

71.1.2.4 (4958)
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories
according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal
to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing
weight multiplied by a factor of:

71.1.2.4 (4963)
In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision
instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but
no less than :

71.1.2.4 (4967)
For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be
used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

71.1.2.4 (4971)
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is
established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account
of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of
Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is
equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by
1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :

71.1.3.1 (4983)
On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily
have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :

71.1.3.1 (4984)
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must
mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying
during :

71.1.3.1 (4985)
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on
take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent
distance not exceeding :

71.1.3.1 (4988)
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can
be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the
regulations are effective for at least :

71.1.3.2 (5009)
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in
degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :

71.1.3.2 (5010)
Astronomic precession is :

71.1.3.3 (5017)
MNPS is the abbreviation for:

71.1.3.3 (5018)
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:

71.1.3.3 (5020)
In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should
first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial
navigation system:

71.1.3.3 (5022)
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight
normally is :

71.1.3.3 (5023)
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight
normally is :

71.1.3.3 (5026)
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without
restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least :

71.1.3.3 (5027)
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the
same Mach number is :

71.1.3.3 (5028)
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS
airspace is :

71.1.3.3 (5029)
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at
higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least :

71.1.3.3 (5031)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from
:

71.1.3.3 (5043)
Which errors in ""estimates"" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the
North Atlantic?

71.1.3.3 (5044)
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

71.1.3.3 (5045)
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM)
is used when operating in MNPS airspace?

71.1.3.3 (5050)
The abbreviation MNPS means :

71.1.3.3 (5051)
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North
Atlantic is comprised within :

71.1.3.3 (5056)
In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be
applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :

71.2.1.0 (5065)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the
holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is:

71.2.1.0 (5066)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

71.2.1.0 (5068)
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

71.2.1.0 (5069)
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative
when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed
accordingly. This list is prepared by:

71.2.2.0 (5072)
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

71.2.2.0 (5073)
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check
that:

71.2.2.0 (5074)
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:


71.2.2.0 (5075)
The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is :

71.2.2.0 (5076)
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will
cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution
of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the
stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all
the correct statements is :

71.2.2.0 (5080)
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of
the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be
shortest ?

71.2.2.0 (5081)
During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time
starts:

71.2.2.0 (5085)
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free
at the latest when :

71.2.2.0 (5086)
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the
protection time of the anti-icing fluid:

71.2.2.0 (5088)
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the
protection time:

71.2.2.0 (5089)
Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:

71.2.2.0 (5091)
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary
considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions.
For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather
conditions of :

71.2.4.0 (5102)
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

71.2.3.0 (5093)
The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground,
ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt,
show that birds fly away :

71.2.5.0 (5113)
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes
are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:

71.2.5.0 (5115)
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :

71.2.5.0 (5116)
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:

71.2.5.0 (5117)
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:

71.2.5.0 (5118)
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :

71.2.5.0 (5119)
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is
generally the :

71.2.5.0 (5126)
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 -
liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

71.2.5.0 (5128)
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:

71.2.5.0 (5130)
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :

71.2.5.0 (5135)
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23
- dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?

71.2.5.0 (5138)
A class A fire is a fire of:

71.2.6.0 (5143)
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :

71.2.6.0 (5146)
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at
which flying efficiency is not impaired is :

71.2.6.0 (5147)
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand
system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen
when the supply selector is at the ""normal"" position. At what approximate
altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?

71.2.6.0 (5148)
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised
aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall
be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a
minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :

71.2.7.0 (5153)
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:1. set the maximum
take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick
shaker3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. keep the airplane's current
configuration5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratioThe combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:

71.2.7.0 (5159)
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind
which forces you to go around. You1- maintain the same aircraft configuration
(gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the
attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude changeThe
combination of correct statements is :

71.2.7.0 (5167)
In the ""worst case"" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having
increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be
necessary to :

71.2.8.0 (5170)
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:

71.2.8.0 (5172)
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :

71.2.8.0 (5173)
To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
manoeuver :

71.2.8.0 (5174)
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a
clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct
statement is:

71.2.8.0 (5175)
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :

71.2.8.0 (5176)
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An
aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation
or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing
gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

71.2.8.0 (5177)
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the
following is established :

71.2.8.0 (5178)
Wake turbulence risk is highest :

71.2.8.0 (5182)
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body
aircraft during take-off is about:

71.2.8.0 (5183)
The wake turbulence:

71.2.8.0 (5184)
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :

71.2.8.0 (5185)
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :


71.2.8.0 (5198)
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be
based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the
maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :

71.2.9.0 (5199)
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful
interference (hijacked) is :

71.2.9.0 (5202)
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the
commander should submit a report of the act to :

71.2.9.0 (5204)
What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which
is being subjected to unlawful interference :

71.2.10.0 (5211)
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in
case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,2.
head resting against the back of the front seat,3. forearms on the armrests,4. seat
belt very tightly fastened,5. head resting on the forearms.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:

71.2.11.0 (5218)
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning
sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :

71.2.12.0 (5227)
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document
dealing with :

71.2.12.0 (5228)
In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the
regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the :

71.2.12.0 (5232)
From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid
kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous
Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's
for operating reasons :

71.2.12.0 (5235)
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

71.2.13.0 (5237)
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :

71.2.13.0 (5238)
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for
landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be
increased by:

71.2.13.0 (5240)
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of
water and:

71.2.13.0 (5242)
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:

71.2.13.0 (5243)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity
of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of
water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does
not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to
make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears
stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

71.2.13.0 (5245)
The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a :

71.2.13.0 (5252)
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre
pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :

81.1.1.1 (5262)
Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F),
acceleration (a) and mass (m)?

81.1.1.1 (5265)
Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?

81.1.1.1 (5267)
Bernoulli's equation can be written as:(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and
q=dynamic pressure)

81.1.1.1 (5270)
The total pressure is:

81.1.1.1 (5273)
The difference between IAS and TAS will:

81.1.1.1 (5279)
Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are
correct?1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are
equal.2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.

81.1.1.3 (5283)
Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:

81.1.1.3 (5284)
The correct drag formula is:

81.1.1.4 (5289)
The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:

81.1.1.4 (5290)
Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?

81.1.1.4 (5291)
The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:

81.1.1.4 (5292)
""A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and
lower surface of a aerofoil"". This definition is applicable for :

81.1.2.0 (5298)
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which
location will the highest flow velocities occur ?

81.1.2.5 (5304)
The lift force, acting on an aerofoil :

81.1.3.2 (5316)
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between :

81.1.3.2 (5322)
Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly the

81.1.4.1 (5324)
Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?