SFPC 3

Jackson Perkins is being considered for promotion to a higher risk position in the federal agency for which he currently works. His suitability investigation reflected two speeding tickets in the past five years on the compound where he currently works but no other traffic violations or criminal activity. Which suitability factor is most applicable to the facts in this scenario?

Which system captures position information to include position risk and sensitivity?

Who primarily conducts suitability adjudications?

Which type of investigation is used to reinvestigate employees in non-sensitive, high risk public trust positions?

Which type of adjudication is required to determine if an individual should be allowed to hold a position of public trust?

When does OPM or the agency or component notify the subject of his or her appeal rights?

Larry Lengal is applying for a federal position. Mr Lengal’s investigation revealed that he joined a group called Freedom Youth when he was in college. The group participated in anti-US demonstrations by the White House. Which suitability factor is most applicable to the facts in this scenario?

Who is responsible for issuing government-wide debarments?

What is the course of action if suitability issues are revealed during prescreening?

Why is it important that components and agencies report their adjudicative decisions to OPM?

In which of the following cases would a suitability adjudication NOT be automatically required?

To which of the following groups do fitness requirement apply?

Which of the following is used to assess a position levels of risk and sensitivity?

What is a common problem found in personnel security investigation requests?

Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.

The investigation into Stacy Brewer reveals that although she has never been implicated in a crime herself, her live-in boyfriend has multiple, drug-related convictions, and several of Ms. Brewer’s friends are in and out of jail on theft and drug charges. She did not disclose that she lived with her boyfriend on her SF-86. When asked about it, she said she intentionally did not list him on her SF-86 as she was afraid her clearance would be denied.

Should Ms. Brewer be granted eligibility?

The careful evaluation of favorable and unfavorable information from a subject’s past and present must take the __________ into consideration.

To develop and resolve issues flagged in a standard investigation prior to completion of the personnel security investigation, which of the following is used?

The subject interview is a standard investigative element of which two PSIs?

What is the relationship between vulnerabilities and threats?

Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.

The agency IT department discovered that Jerome Wilson accessed a network folder to which he was not authorized to use. Subsequent investigation showed that his supervisor had asked him to store sensitive files in the folder and had told Mr. Wilson his use was approved. When Mr. Wilson learned that his use was in fact unauthorized, he reported the situation to his supervisor and the security office and stated that he would not access the folder again.

Should Mr. Wilson be granted eligibility?

________ is the program name for the Intelligence Community Security Clearance Repository.

Which of the following lays out standards and procedures for SCI access?

The deliberate falsification of facts on a personnel security questionnaire is a disqualifying condition under which of these adjudicative guidelines?

The highest OPM-defined civilian position sensitivity level is _________.

Which of the following was previously a stand-alone investigation but now is a foundational component of other investigations?

When evaluating an individual’s foreign contacts and interests, what should the adjudicator consider about the associated country?

The deliberate falsification of fact on a personnel security questionnaire is a disqualifying condition under which of these national security adjudicative guidelines?

Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative termination should be made.
Melissa Stewart listed mental health treatment on her SF-86. A qualified and approved mental health care provider advised that her condition is in remission and has a low probability of recurrence.
Should Ms. Stewart be granted eligibility?

A mitigating condition does which of the following?

_____________ establishes a uniform Federal PSP for all employees who hold sensitive positions or who must access classified information.

Which of the following is a function of the DoD CAF?

Which of the following statements is true regarding criminal conduct?

The subject of an investigation may request a copy of their PSI from which of the following?

_________________ is the investigative agency authorized to conduct investigations for the DoD PSP.

Which of the following would be required for all levels of DoD Interim clearances?

Which civilian position sensitivity level has the potential for inestimable damage to the nation security or for inestimable adverse impact to the efficiency of the DoD or the Military Services?

Review the following case details and determine whteher a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.
Stan Nelson revealed on his SF-86 that he pled guilty to statutory rape when he was 18, for having consensual sexual relations with his 16-year-old girlfriend. Mr. Nelson served a 90-day sentence and successfully completed his probation and required community service; his girlfriend subsequently express remorse that he was charged with a crim. In the 12 years since, Mr. Nelson has not had additional arrests or incidents concerning sexual or criminal behavior.
Should Mr. Nelson be granted eligibility?

Discovery of adverse information after issuance of security clearance eligibility _________.

What is the purpose of the National Background Investigations Bureau (NBIB) Case Closing Transmittal cover sheer?

The briefing given to personnel who have recently been approved for access to classified information or assigned to a position of trust is the:

________________ are weaknesses, characteristics or circumstances that can be exploited by an adversary to gain access to or information from an asset.

Rivers, cliffs, and dense growth are examples of which type of barrier?

__________________ are conducted by peers or by senior agency personnel in the chain-of-command.

In a tactical environment, Physical Security Plans should be based on METT-TC, which stands for mission, _______________, terrain and weather, troops, time available, and civilian considerations.

Providing information on the capabilities and intentions of our adversaries is the responsibility of the ____________.

________________ establish duties, roles and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates and guard posts.

_________________, the inspector should review any local security directives, the Physical Security Plan, its Standard Operating Procedures, and any previous inspection reports, exceptions, and waivers.

____________________ use Defense Terrorism Warning Reports to convey _________________.

A ______________ defines emergency delegations of authority and orders of succession to ensure DoD Component Mission Essential Functions (MEFs) continue under all circumstances.

Threat levels assist senior leaders to determine the appropriate ________ level.

Two antiterrorism tools the DoD uses to safeguard DoD assets are __________________ and _______________.

__________________ issue Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs).

Which system detects a change in the environment and transmits an alarm?

___________________ are often overlooked in physical security planning and implementation.

______________________ are formal agreements that provide security assistance between DoD activities and from local law enforcement agencies as well as mutual aid from local fire and medical services.

FPCON _________ applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific target is imminent.

The _____________________ develops and refines terrorism threat assessments and coordinates and disseminates threat warnings, reports, and summaries.

Examples of oversight tools include day-to-day observations, surveys, staff assist visits, ______________, and the operational environment.

_____________________ are based on information about terrorist groups such as their operational capability, intentions, activity, and the operational environment.

Although the DoD issues DoD-wide guidance for physical security planning and implementation, you should always consult ______________ for specific guidance.

_______________ can result from day-to-day observations or more formal oversight.

Antiterrorism physical security measures incorporate detection, deterrence, denial and ____________.

What type of access control system uses verification of an acceptable form of identification such as the Common Access Card, or CAC?

What kind of light should be selected in order to enable the security guards to observe intruders at a considerable distance beyond the perimeter?

Response forces ___________________________________ .

The purpose of an intrusion detection system is to deter, detect, and _____________ intrusion.

A security system with a camera that captures an image, converts it to a video signal, and transmits it to a monitoring station defines _______________________ .

The central point for collecting the alarm status from the Premise Control Units (PCU s) handling the alarms under the control of an IDS is the _______________________________ .

Biometric and non-biometric access control systems are examples of the __________________________ type of access control system.

What Security-in-Depth principle is illustrated by a vault with special controls to limit access to only some of the personnel that work within a secure facility?

What type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring provides local centralized monitoring?

A visitor with a record in the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) reflecting the appropriate level of access eligibility but who does not have a verified need-to-know for information protected within the controlled area would require ___________________________.

When is a security force response required?

Conveyor belt style x-ray machines are classified as what type of screening equipment?

What are the types of screening equipment most frequently used by the Department of Defense (DoD)?

What Intrusion Detection System (IDS) operational phase is activated when the Premise Control Unit (PCU) receives signals from sensors in a protected area and incorporates these signals into a communications scheme?

What is the preferred method of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring?

What type of access control system is a card swipe, with or without a personal identification number, or PIN?

What type of lighting is used when additional lighting is necessary and may be activated by alarm or motion detector?

When are static observation posts used?

The use of _____________________ provides security personnel the ability to visually monitor multiple areas simultaneously.

What does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) detect?

What is the purpose of the warning label on GSA-approved containers manufactured beginning April 2007?

In AA&E storage facilities, why must drainage structures be secured if they cross the fence line and meet certain size requirements?

Which is NOT approved for the open storage of classified information?

Which DoD-mandated practice reduces protection, storage, and inventory costs?

You can find construction standards for vaults and secure rooms in DoD facilities by reviewing _________________.

DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, Information Security Program
Which of the following statements is true about locks and keys for security containers?

The design goal for an AA&E storage facility is that is must meet or exceed 10 minutes of resistance to _________________ entry.

Why should you categorize, store, and protect AA&E by security risk categories?

Storage containers and facilities protect valuable, sensitive, and classified information by ________________.

If you need to know the manufacture date of a GSA-approved container, on which label would you find that information?

Which of these statements is true about storage of Confidential information?

What is considered an additional measure for AA&E storage?

There are certain times when you must change the combination on locks securing classified information. Which of the following is not a time when you must change the combination?

Which group uses the same set of storage requirements based on security risk categories?

What items can a Nuclear Storage Facility store?

Perimeter lighting in AA&E storage facilities is _________________________.

Which of these statements is true about storage of Secret information?

What do the classes of GSA-approved containers represent?

Who uses SCIFs?

If you needed to find information on physical security standards for SCIFs, which reference would you consult?

For storage of classified you may use which GSA-approved containers?

Which of the following is an example of a locking device?

You are considering locking solutions for your facility. When assessing the life safety aspect of the solution, which of the following must be considered?

The use of a master key system is not acceptable in ____________.

Which of the following must you do when opening an electromechanical lock such as the X-07, X-08, X-09, and X-10?

All locks consist of three components, one of which is an operating mechanism. Which of the following is NOT one of the other two components?

Which of the following should you do before changing a combination?

The lock you are using has an LCD rather than a dial with imprinted numbers. You are using _______________________.

Which of the following is not a locking device for a key-operated lock?

Which type of cylinder provides a locking solution that minimizes the rekeying burden?

When assessing the life safety aspect of a locking solution for a facility door, which of the following must be considered?

RIsk Management is defined as the process of selecting and implemeting ________________________ to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.

Select the correct order of steps in the Risk Management Process.

A key and lock custodian should change or rotate locks at least _____________.

Which of the following statements is true?

Susan Johnson knows the combination to a security container and Susan lost her clearance today, but she was not terminated from her job. What must happen?

Which electromechanical lock uses battery power?

Which of the following is the purpose of a lock’s switching device?

You need to decide what type of locking system to use for a storage closet. The closet does not hold classified or sensitive information, but you want to deter entry. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

The two primary types of locks used within DoD are ___________ and key locks.

Which statement best describes the relationship between a locking solution’s level of protection and its cost and labor effort?

Pin tumblers are most commonly employed on _______ locks?

What is not a responsibility of the Key Custodian?

Which of the following is the switching device for a key-operated lock?

Which of the following is a disadvantage to using a master key system?

The S&G 2937 lock is an example of which type of combination lock?

Many building codes require a facility’s exit doors to contain which of the following devices?

You are making a decision about the locking system to be used in a bulk storage area that contains classified information. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?

You need to review the requirements that electromechanical locks meet. Which of the following specifications should you reference?

Which of the following is authorized by the DoD for securing conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives (AA&E)?

You need to secure classified information. Which of these locks could you use?

In the Risk Management Process, a _____________ rating indicates that a compromise to assets would have serious consequences resulting in loss of classified or highly sensitive data that could impair operations affecting nation interest for a limited period of time

Which of the following are examples of threats?

Compute this Risk Assessment formula: Risk = Impact x (Threat x Vulnerability)
Impact = 75
Threat = 0.6
Vulnerability = 0.5

What common vulnerability areas might an adversary exploit?

Wireless computer networks are an example of a vulnerability in which category?

Which property control systems are an example of a vulnerability in which category?

This guidance requires that individuals' actions on a classified contractor information system be auditable.

These policies and guidance establishes the requirement for a continuous and integrated capability to monitor and audit for threats and vulnerabilities from internal and external sources.

This publication provides detailed guidance on the development and implementation of an Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) program and security-focused configuration management.

An Information Systems Owner (ISO) categorizes systems at this RMF level:

The Program Manager/System Manager (PM/SM) enforces RMF authorizations decisions at this level:

ISCM strategy at this level is focused on the controls that address the establishment and management of the organization's information security program, including establishing the minimum frequency with which each security control or metric is to be assessed or monitored.

ISCM strategy at this level is focused on high-level information security governance policy as it relates to risk to the organization as a whole, to its core missions, and to its business functions.