Kelly Kinsinger
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Veterinary Medicine Quiz sobre Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide, criado por Kelly Kinsinger em 11-10-2018.

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Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide

Questão 1 de 55

1

Anesthetic agents and adjuncts can be classified by which of the following?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Route of administration, time period at which they are given, and tidal volume they require

  • Route of administration, time period at which they are given, according to the principal effect, chemistry, and tidal volume they require

  • Route of administration, according to the principal effect, chemistry, and tidal volume they require

  • Route of administration, time period at which they are given, according to the principal effect, and chemistry

Explicação

Questão 2 de 55

1

Any drug that is utilized to induce loss of sensation with or without unconsciousness is known as a(n):

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • neuromuscular blocker.

  • reversal agent.

  • anesthetic agent.

  • adjunct agent.

Explicação

Questão 3 de 55

1

The common effect of depression and/or stimulation, seen in a patient, after the administration of an anesthetic agent is due to:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • pharmacokinetics.

  • pharmacodynamics.

  • pharmacoagents.

  • pharmacometabolism.

Explicação

Questão 4 de 55

1

When acting upon the central nervous system, those agents that bind to more than one receptor type, and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block at least one, are referred to as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • agonist–antagonists.

  • partial agonists.

  • antagonists.

  • agonists.

Explicação

Questão 5 de 55

1

Yohimbine, tolazoline, and atipamezole are best categorized as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • opioid agonists.

  • opioid antagonists.

  • alpha2-agonists.

  • alpha2-antagonists.

Explicação

Questão 6 de 55

1

Incompatible mixtures of anesthetic agents and adjuncts, when combined in the same syringe, can cause which of the following?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Change in dissociation

  • Change in water solubility

  • Change in chemistry

  • Change in physical dependency

Explicação

Questão 7 de 55

1

In the United States, the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) is enforced by the:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • RCMP.

  • DEA.

  • AAHA.

  • AVMA.

Explicação

Questão 8 de 55

1

Parasympatholytics are:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • noncontrolled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to prevent and treat bradycardia and salivary secretions.

  • controlled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to prevent and treat bradycardia and salivary secretions.

  • controlled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to induce bradycardia.

  • noncontrolled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to induce bradycardia.

Explicação

Questão 9 de 55

1

Drugs such as atropine and glycopyrrolate function in what way?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Act on the CNS and reverse and prevent sympathetic effects

  • Act on the PNS and reverse and prevent sympathetic effects

  • Act on the CNS and reverse and prevent parasympathetic effects

  • Act on the PNS and reverse and prevent parasympathetic effects

Explicação

Questão 10 de 55

1

Effects including arrhythmias and tachycardia, thickening of secretions, bronchodilation, and mydriasis are most likely to be seen with the use of which drug?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Acepromazine

  • Atipamezole

  • Atropine

  • Antisedan

Explicação

Questão 11 de 55

1

The three classes of tranquilizers and sedatives that are often used in veterinary medicine include:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • phenothiazines, benzodiazepines, and alfaxalone agonists.

  • phenothiazines, benzodiazepines, and alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists.

  • phenothiazines, barbiturates, and alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists.

  • phenothiazines, barbiturates, and alfaxalone agonists.

Explicação

Questão 12 de 55

1

Post administration of acepromazine, a patient is noted to have an increased heart rate and decreased core temperature. To which common side effect is this attributed?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Peripheral vasodilation

  • Antiarrhythmic effect

  • Penile prolapse

  • Excitement

Explicação

Questão 13 de 55

1

Which of the following groups of drugs, also referred to as minor tranquilizers, are commonly used for their sedative, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant properties?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Alpha2-agonists

  • Opioids

  • Phenothiazines

  • Benzodiazepines

Explicação

Questão 14 de 55

1

Which benzodiazepine is most likely to cause irritation and pain when administered intramuscularly (IM)?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Telazol®

  • Zolazepam

  • Diazepam

  • Midazolam

Explicação

Questão 15 de 55

1

Benzodiazepines exert their primary effects by increasing the activity of the:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • CNS

  • GABA

  • CSA

  • DEA

Explicação

Questão 16 de 55

1

The appropriate antagonist to use with benzodiazepines is:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • flumazenil.

  • atipamezole.

  • yohimbine.

  • tolazoline.

Explicação

Questão 17 de 55

1

The most appropriate route of administration for alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists is:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • orally (PO) or subcutaneous (SC).

  • subcutaneous (SC) or intramuscular (IM).

  • intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV).

  • subcutaneous (SC) or intravenous (IV).

Explicação

Questão 18 de 55

1

Due to their primary metabolic and excretion pathways, caution should be used when administering alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists to patients with which of the following conditions?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Hepatitis and renal dysfunction

  • Renal dysfunction and pruritis

  • Hepatitis and cardiovascular disease

  • Pruritis and cardiovascular disease

Explicação

Questão 19 de 55

1

The most common cardiac arrhythmia observed in which of the following IV administration of alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • First- and fifth-degree AV block

  • Second- and fifth-degree AV block

  • First- and second-degree AV block

  • Fifth-degree AV block only

Explicação

Questão 20 de 55

1

During administration of dexmedetomidine, bradycardia is noted. When taking treatment options into consideration, the most appropriate is administration of:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • acepromazine.

  • anticholinergics.

  • atipamezole.

  • ketamine.

Explicação

Questão 21 de 55

1

The three major types of opioid receptors are:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • mu, kappa, and delta.

  • mu, kappa, and gamma.

  • delta, gamma, and omega.

  • delta, kappa, and omega.

Explicação

Questão 22 de 55

1

In regard to opioids, pure antagonists are known to:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • partially stimulate the opioid receptors.

  • not stimulate the mu receptors; they only stimulate the kappa receptors.

  • bind to and stimulate the mu or kappa receptors.

  • bind to but not stimulate mu or kappa receptors.

Explicação

Questão 23 de 55

1

Due to their tendency to increase intraocular and intracranial pressure, it is best to avoid the use of opioids in patients with which of the following conditions?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Mandibular fracture

  • CNS disorders

  • Gingival hyperplasia

  • Otitis externa

Explicação

Questão 24 de 55

1

A state of profound sedation and analgesia induced by simultaneous administration of an opioid and tranquilizer is referred to as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • general anesthesia.

  • vagally induced bradycardia.

  • renarcotization.

  • neuroleptanalgesia.

Explicação

Questão 25 de 55

1

In regard to narcotics, naloxone can be used for the reversal of:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • agonists, partial agonists, or agonist–antagonists.

  • agonists and partial agonists only.

  • partial agonists and agonist–antagonists only.

  • agonist–antagonists only.

Explicação

Questão 26 de 55

1

Drugs that have the ability to produce unconsciousness when given alone are characterized as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • disruptive anesthetics.

  • injectable anesthetics.

  • reversible anesthetics.

  • induction anesthetics.

Explicação

Questão 27 de 55

1

The tendency of a drug to dissolve in fats, oils, or lipids is referred to as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • lipid solubility.

  • protein binding.

  • tissue redistribution.

  • lipid agonists.

Explicação

Questão 28 de 55

1

After administration of propofol, blood flow is responsible for distribution throughout the body and results in which organ system receiving the highest concentration?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Fat

  • Muscle

  • Gastrointestinal tract

  • Brain

Explicação

Questão 29 de 55

1

High doses and rapid administration of propofol are known to cause:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • diarrhea.

  • Heinz bodies.

  • apnea.

  • anorexia.

Explicação

Questão 30 de 55

1

Etomidate is best defined as an:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ultrashort-acting nonbarbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects.

  • ultrashort-acting, controlled, nonbarbiturate drug with significant cardiovascular and respiratory effects.

  • ultrashort-acting barbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects.

  • ultrashort-acting, controlled, barbiturate drug with significant cardiovascular and respiratory effects.

Explicação

Questão 31 de 55

1

After administration of etomidate, which organ is it possible to see depressed for several hours?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Cardiovascular

  • Adrenal gland

  • Respiratory

  • CNS

Explicação

Questão 32 de 55

1

Proper handling and use of alfaxalone and propofol include:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • refrigeration.

  • subcutaneous injection as a premedication.

  • intramuscular injection as a CRI.

  • antiseptic technique.

Explicação

Questão 33 de 55

1

Post administration of alfaxalone, it is important to monitor the patient for:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • excitement during recovery.

  • hypertension.

  • muscle rigidity.

  • excitement during induction.

Explicação

Questão 34 de 55

1

Which common class of controlled drugs was developed during the 1930s–1950s and was commonly used as general anesthetics?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Narcotics

  • Barbiturates

  • Alpha2-antagonists

  • Opiates

Explicação

Questão 35 de 55

1

The most common use of pentobarbital is:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • as a sedative in dogs and cats.

  • control of seizures in horses.

  • as a euthanasia agent.

  • control of seizures in dogs and cats.

Explicação

Questão 36 de 55

1

The most commonly utilized dissociative anesthetic in veterinary medicine is:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • morphine.

  • sevoflurane.

  • phencyclidine.

  • ketamine.

Explicação

Questão 37 de 55

1

Dissociative anesthetics should be used with caution in patients with what underlying metabolic condition due to their redistribution and metabolism properties?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Hepatic insufficiency

  • Cardiac insufficiency

  • Neurologic insufficiency

  • Respiratory insufficiency

Explicação

Questão 38 de 55

1

While ketamine is widely used in veterinary medicine, it is currently licensed for use in which species?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Equine

  • Feline

  • Canine

  • Exotics

Explicação

Questão 39 de 55

1

The most common cardiac changes associated with administration of dissociative anesthetics are:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • decreased heart rate and output.

  • decreased heart rate and mean arterial pressure.

  • increased heart rate and output.

  • increased heart rate and decreased mean arterial pressure.

Explicação

Questão 40 de 55

1

Tiletamine is sold only in combination with what other drug?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Diazepam

  • Midazolam

  • Lorazepam

  • Zolazepam

Explicação

Questão 41 de 55

1

Dissociatives exert their effects by acting upon:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • NMDA receptors.

  • β-endorphin receptors.

  • mu receptors.

  • delta receptors.

Explicação

Questão 42 de 55

1

Which noncontrolled dissociative, commonly used for large animal medicine, has no anesthetic or analgesic properties when used alone?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Ketamine

  • Guaifenesin

  • Tiletamine

  • Telazol

Explicação

Questão 43 de 55

1

The first clinically used inhalation anesthetic was:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • chloroform.

  • nitrous oxide.

  • diethyl ether.

  • halothane.

Explicação

Questão 44 de 55

1

The principal organ(s) involved in the elimination of halogenated compounds is(are):

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • brain.

  • liver

  • kidneys

  • lungs

Explicação

Questão 45 de 55

1

Halogenated compounds readily enter the brain due to what factor?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • High lipid solubility

  • Alveoli partial pressure

  • Concentration gradient

  • Diffusion

Explicação

Questão 46 de 55

1

When halogenated agents are exposed to desiccated carbon dioxide absorbent, the results include:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • carbon dioxide production.

  • carbon monoxide production.

  • oxygen production.

  • water production.

Explicação

Questão 47 de 55

1

Decreased renal blood flow can be seen when using inhalation agents, secondary to which side effect?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Depressed ventilation

  • Hypothermia

  • Depressed cardiovascular function

  • Muscle fasciculations

Explicação

Questão 48 de 55

1

Vapor pressure is best defined as:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • the amount of pressure exerted by the gaseous form of a substance when the gas and liquid states are in equilibrium.

  • both agent and temperature dependent.

  • how readily the liquid condenses in the anesthetic machine.

  • the causative agent for use of a precision vaporizer.

Explicação

Questão 49 de 55

1

Which of the following is responsible for the speed of induction and recovery of a patient?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Vapor pressure

  • Blood–gas partition coefficient

  • Sponge effect

  • MAC

Explicação

Questão 50 de 55

1

During a surgical process, anesthetic agent Z (MAC = 1.3%) was delivered at a setting of 1.3%. Utilizing the theory of MAC, how many dogs out of ten would respond to painful stimuli?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Three dogs

  • Five dogs

  • Seven dogs

  • None

Explicação

Questão 51 de 55

1

Isoflurane is labeled for use in:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • exotics.

  • zoo animals.

  • cats.

  • horses.

Explicação

Questão 52 de 55

1

Sevoflurane is labeled for use in:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • exotics

  • zoo animals

  • cats

  • dogs

Explicação

Questão 53 de 55

1

Which of the following inhalant anesthetics are going to produce the fastest induction and recovery based on their blood–gas partition coefficient?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Desflurane/0.42

  • Sevoflurane/0.68

  • Isoflurane/1.46

  • Methoxyflurane/15.0

Explicação

Questão 54 de 55

1

The primary reason for the use of nitrous oxide with other inhalant anesthetics is:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • it is gas at room temperature.

  • it is easily administered with a flowmeter.

  • it reduces MAC by 20% to 30%.

  • it does not require a vaporizer.

Explicação

Questão 55 de 55

1

Doxapram is best categorized as an:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • alpha2-antagonist.

  • analeptic agent.

  • alpha2-agonist.

  • opioid antagonist.

Explicação