According to the Orem model of nursing, needs that vary as a result of the patients age/life stage are:
Developmental self-care requisites
Universal self-care requisites
Health deviation requisites
Self-care deficits
Which of the following best describes a politico-economic factor affecting the activities of living?
Injury or disease
The patient being insured
Patient separation anxiety
Owner views on preventative health care
Which of the following is not a universal care requisite according to Orem?
Air
Water
Dying
Activity and rest
Pain which has gone beyond the normal response of tissues to that which involves the central nervous system is known as:
Acute
Adaptive
Chronic
Maladaptive
Which of the following best describes diastolic blood pressure?
Pressure when the heart is contracting
Pressure when the heart is relaxed
Maximum pressure in the arteries
Maximum pressure in the veins
Which of the following may benefit from the placement of a wound drain as part of the postoperative management?
Removal of a large subcutaneous mass
Aural haemotoma repair
Removal of a closed pyometra
Repair of an incised wound
Which of the following would represent an ideal body condition score characteristic?
Ribs, spine and pelvic bone visible
No palpable fat on chest
Obvious waist
No abdominal fat
Spine not palpable
Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of hydrotherapy?
Obesity
Pulmonary disease
Neurological dysfunction
Improvement of physical well-being
Which of the following feeding tubes would be indicated for use in a patient with a megaoesophagus?
Naso-oesophageal
Oesophagostomy
Gastrostomy
Jejunostomy
Which of the following is an enteral route of drug administration?
Intraperitoneal
Intraosseous
Intravenous
Intraoral
Which of the following should be avoided when administering an intramuscular injection?
Lumbar
Bicep femoris
Quadriceps
Triceps
Cervical dorsal
Which type of bandage can be stretched, released, and will revert back to its original condition?
Cohesive
Adhesive
Non-conforming
Conforming
Which type of bandage is:
Vet wrap = ❌ WOW bandage = ❌ Bandesive = ❌ Orthoband = ❌ Knit-fix = ❌
Which of the following dressings would be the best for a malodorous wound?
Charcoal
Hydrocolloid
Paraffin gauze
Calcium-alginate
What would be an ideal temperature for an adult dog hospitalised in isolation?
9-15 °C
21-26 °C
18-21 °C
10-15 °C
15-18 °C
What is the definition of reverse barrier nursing?
The isolation of immunocompromised patients for their own protection
The protocol followed when a patient can be re-introduced to the normal hospital environment following isolation
The discharge of a patient following hospitalisation in isolation
Routine nursing of a non-infectious patient
Which of the following species may exhibit crib biting when hospitalised?
Cat
Dog
Horse
Ferret
Which of the following represents the correct order of the stages within the nursing process?
APIE
PIEA
IPAE
EAPI
APEI
How many air volume changes per hour should there be in an isolation facility?
4
6
10
12
21
What is the recommended minimum ratio of isolation kennels to dog kennels?
1:10
1:30
1:50
1:70
What is the recommended minimum ratio of isolation kennels to cat kennels?
What colour would the mucous membranes be in a patient with hypoxaemia?
Red
Yellow
Blue
White
Which of the following would be a common early clinical sign of dehydration?
Prolonged CRT
Sunken eyes
Skin changes
Dry mucous membranes
Which of the following is a method of respiratory physiotherapy?
Tapotement
Coupage
Effleurage
Petrissage
Which of these types of bandage would be used to reduce oedema in an equine patient?
Pressage
Ehmer
Velpeau
Which of the following would be at the highest risk of myopathy?
Great dane
Shih tzu
Bearded dragon
Which of the following categories of debridement would the use of a wet to dry dressing come under?
Autolytic
Chemical
Mechanical
Surgical
Which of the following would benefit from a sand bath whilst hospitalised?
Chinchilla
Rabbit
Mouse
Which of the following patients would you place in a kennel measuring 91cm high x 152cm wide x 72cm deep?
Labrador
Miniature schnauzer
Basset hound
Spinone
Which of the following would be secured using a Chinese finger trap suture?
Oesophagostomy tube
Foley catheter
Over the needle cannula
Stomach tube
Which of the following is the minimum recommended clearance above a horse's ears in a stable?
30cm
60cm
100cm
120cm
What would be the minimum expected urinary output for a patient over a 6 hour period?
1ml
6ml
12ml
30ml
Which of the following is a direct method of monitoring blood pressure?
Doppler
Oscillometric
Sphygmomanometry
Central venous pressure
A fluctuating temperature with two differing levels is known as:
Pyrexia
Diphasic
Hyperthermia
Temperature deficit
Which of the following pulse points would NOT be appropriate for use in a conscious patient?
Digital
Femoral
Coccygeal
Sub-lingual
Orthopnea describes breathing which:
Is with an open mouth
Is deep for a short time, then slight
Is eased by the patient standing or upright
Causes the chest to move in an opposite motion
Flail chest is breathing which:
Pulse which naturally alters by increasing on inspiration and decreasing on expiration is known as:
Sinus arrhythmia
Water hammer
Pulse deficit
Hypokinetic
A delay from heart rate to pulse is known as:
A patient suffering from congestion would have which of the following mucous membrane colours?
Brick red
The expected minimum urinary output for a 20kg patient over an 8 hour period would be:
50ml
160ml
320ml
420ml
Paralysis occurring on only one side of the body is known as:
Quadriplegia
Tetraplegia
Paraplegia
Hemiplegia
The term for decreased respiratory rate is:
Orthopnea
Tachypnoea
Bradypnoea
Dyspnoea
Which of the following patients would be a cause for concern when monitoring their vital signs?
A cat with a pulse rate of 140bpm
A rabbit with a temperature of 40°C
A dog with a respiratory rate of 25bpm
A guinea pig with a CRT of 2 seconds
Who must veterinary practices be registered with before they can supply veterinary medicines?
RCVS
VMD
DEFRA
AMTRA
What common group of drugs are known for causing reactions such as anaphylaxis?
NSAIDS
Antibiotics
Opioids
Steroids
Which drugs cannot be ordered electronically?
Schedule 2
Schedule 2 + 3
Schedule 5
POM-V
Pharmacy records should be retained for how long?
3 years
5 years
2 years
Indefinitely
Which items should be unpacked first from an order?
Fridge items + controlled drugs
Fridge items + liquids
Controlled drugs + special order items
Liquids + vials
How long should a controlled drugs register be retained for following the last dated entry (minimum)?
6 years
The misuse of drugs act 1971 controls all dangerous drugs
The misuse of drugs regulations 1985 is NOT concerned with controlled drugs.
Which legislation classifies the controlled drugs into 5 schedules?
The misuse of drugs regulations 1985
The misuse of drugs act 1971
The veterinary medicine regulations 2002
The cascade prescribing system
Which drugs must have their destruction witnessed by a police officer?
Schedule 1
Schedule 3
What is the minimum/maximum temperature range for the pharmacy?
5-8°C
8-25°C
11-30°C
5-28°C
❌ is single use, snap to open ❌ can be single or multi use
Which type of bin would a denaturing kit go into after it has been used?
General waste
Pharmaceutical waste
Hazardous waste
Infectious waste
If not otherwise specified by the manufacturer, how long should open vials be kept for before disposal?
14 days
7 days
28 days
3 months
How long are written prescriptions for controlled drugs valid for?
6 months
How long are written prescriptions for POM-V drugs valid for?
Up to 3 months
Up to 6 months
POM-V medications can be prescribed by all veterinary staff
POM-VPS drugs can be prescribed by SQPs
Which organisation is responsible for training and CPD for SQPs?
VMR
Within what time scale should controlled drugs be entered into the register?
Before leaving the practice that day
Within 24 hours
Within 48 hours
Within a week
What is the acceptable temperature range for a fridge?
2-8°C
0-5°C
2-10°C
4-10°C
What is the minimum time that invoices for controlled drugs should be retained?
1 year
Which regulations require practices to assess risk to health and safety from veterinary medicines?
COSHH
RIDDOR
HSAWA
What is the SARSS scheme for?
Adverse reactions
Training SQPs
Controlled drugs
Categorising medications
Which of the following is an act of veterinary surgery and should only be carried out by a veterinary surgeon?
First aid on wildlife
Euthanasia of a rabbit
Extraction of teeth from a cat
Urinary catheterisation of a dog
The safe use and control of x-ray chemicals within practice is primarily governed by which of the following regulations?
The health and safety at work act
The control of pollutants act
The ionising radiation regulations
Control of substances hazardous to health
Which piece of equipment involves the process of cavitation?
Ultrasound scanner
Ultrasonic bath
Ethylene oxide
Autoclave
Which of the following is the recommended screen break time?
5-10 mins break after 50-60 mins continuous screen time
15 mins break after 2 hours continuous screen time
15-20 mins break after 50-60 mins continuous screen time
30 mins break after 2 hours continuous screen time
How much mandatory CPD does a RVN have to do?
35 hours per year
15 hours over 3 years
45 hours over 3 years
45 hours per year
Monitoring general anaesthesia during a procedure is ultimately the responsibility of:
The anaesthetic nurse present during the procedure
The veterinary surgeon performing the procedure
The senior RVN present at the time
The senior partner of the practice
Who should an adverse suspected drug reaction be reported to via the SARSS scheme?
Animal medicines training regulatory authority
Royal college of veterinary surgeons
Veterinary medicines directorate
Royal pharmaceutical society
Which of the following cannot be performed by lay staff?
Giving an intramuscular injection
Monitoring anaesthesia
Clipping a dog's nails in a nurse clinic
Dispensing an AVM-GSL medication
Which of the following would permit a nurse to induce anaesthesia?
The anaesthesia is given to effect by an RVN
The anaesthesia is given incrementally by an RVN
The anaesthesia is given as a specific quantity by a SVN under direction
The anaesthesia is given as a specific quantity by a SVN under supervision
Which of the following cannot be performed by an RVN?
Minor surgery
Medical treatment
Nursing diagnosis
Medical diagnosis
Which of the following is the second stage of a risk assessment?
Identify the hazards
Record the findings
Decide who might be harmed and how
Evaluate the risks and decide on the precautions to be taken
Accidents and near misses at work should be reported under the RIDDOR scheme if it results in the person having more than:
3 days off work
7 days off work including a weekend
7 days off work excluding a weekend
10 days off work
The daily consecutive rest period for each adult worker in each 24 hour period should be:
8 hours
9 hours
10 hours
11 hours
A 17 year old SVN employed at the practice should have a break of 30 minutes after they have worked for:
4.5 hours
6 hours
6.5 hours
What thickness of lead equivalent should be contained in gloves used as small animal radiographic protective equipment?
0.25mm
0.35mm
0.5mm
1mm
Adult workers have a maximum permissible dose of 100 msV over a 5 year period. What is the maximum dose in any single year within the 5 year period, which they can receive?
20 msV
25 msV
50 msV
100 msV
The Ionising Radiation Regulations 1999 (Medical Use) govern the use of radiography in practice. Who issues these regulations?
HSE
VDS
NRPB
The most suitable way to move a 42kg anaesthetised Italian Spinone from the prep room to the operating theatre would be with a:
Slide
Stretcher
Hoist
2 people manually supporting the patient
Controlled drugs should be disposed of by:
Direct disposal into a blue bin
Direct disposal into a yellow bin
Denaturing and disposal into a blue container
Denaturing and disposal into an orange container
Which piece of equipment needs pressurised leak testing?
Endoscope
Suction equipment
Anaesthetic vaporiser
Place the following in the correct sequence representing the order in which they should be carried out, when using clippers. 1=site the blades 2=snap down the blades 3=switch on the clippers 4=switch on at plug
4 3 2 1
1 2 3 4
4 1 3 2
1 4 2 3
What piece of equipment would you be dealing with, if the routine maintenance involved cleaning the specula, checking the bulb, and ensuring the batteries are fully charged?
Otoscope
Laparoscope
Ophthalmoscope
Prior to use, a refractometer should be calibrated using:
Tap water
Saline
Chlorhexidine
Distilled water
Which of the following is not true regarding PAT testing?
Testing is not required by law
It should be done on a yearly basis
A qualified electrician is not required to perform the test
Frequency of testing is based on the type of equipment and place of use
On a prescription for controlled drugs, which of the following must be written in both text and numerical form?
Client's address
The strength of the medication
The total quantity to be dispensed
The length of time the prescription is valid for
Practices who have less than 5 employees do not require a
Radiation protection supervisor
Written health and safety policy
Radiation protection advisor
Appointed first aider
Which of the following pieces of legislation is RIDDOR part of?
The health and safety first aid regulations
Workplace (health, safety and welfare) regulations 2002
A licence from the Veterinary Medicines Directorate would be required under the cascade system for which of the following circumstances? A drug was used which
treats the same condition in a different species
treats the same species but for a different condition
needs to be imported from overseas
is primarily intended for human use
The active ingredient which poses a health and safety risk in x-ray developer is
Phenidone Hydroquinone
Barium fluorohalide
Ammonium Thiosulphate
Lithium fluoride
Which of the following would be the correct disposal of a needle contaminated with medication?
Re-sheath, remove by hand and place into a yellow sharps container
Re-sheath, remove by hand and place into an orange sharps container
Remove needle using the facility in the top of a yellow sharps container without re-sheathing
Remove needle using the facility in the top of an orange sharps container without re-sheathing
Accident book records must be retained r=for
7 years
Which of the following defines a micro-organism which can synthesise its own food?
Heterotroph
Autotroph
Paratenic
Obligate
Most bacteria are defined as:
Heterotrophs
Autotrophs
Eukaryotic
Commensal microorganisms normally live on the body without causing harm or disease.
Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for the majority of dermatophyte cases in cats?
Trichophyton Equinum
Linognathus setosus
Microsporum canis
Escherichia coli
Which of the following is the common process of asexual bacterial replication?
Mitosis
Budding
Conjugation
Binary fission
Donor cells will result from
Meiosis
Which bacteria is composed of a single circle?
Which bacteria is composed of two circles?
Which bacteria is rod-shaped?
Which bacteria is shaped like a chain of cocci?
Which bacteria is shaped like a bunch of grapes?
Which bacteria is spiral shaped?
What type of bacteria causes strangles?
What type of bacteria causes leptospirosis and lyme disease?
Which of the following terms is associated with an Endotoxin?
The toxin is secreted from a live bacterial cell
Responsible for causing laminitis in horses
Produced by gram positive bacteria
Favour dry conditions
Which of the following is not a bacterial disease in horses?
Rhodococcus equi
Streptococcus equi equi
Taylorella equigenitalis
Trichophyton mentagrophyte
Which of the following neuro-toxic bacterial infections is a potential health risk for veterinary staff, for which vaccination is offered?
Toxoplasma gondii
Clostridium tetani
Rabies
Within how many days must a report be received by the HSE following a dangerous occurrence?
7
8
14
How many stages does a risk assessment contain?
3
5
What is the maximum time frame advised between PAT testing equipment in a veterinary practice?
Sharps which have been contaminated with medications need to be disposed of in which of the following containers?
Yellow with an orange lid
Plain yellow
Yellow with a purple lid
Yellow with a blue lid
Mask and gloves used as PPE during a dental procedure should be disposed of in:
A yellow bag with a black vertical stripe
A yellow bag with a purple stripe
A plain yellow bag
An orange bag
What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation which a 17 year old SVN in practice can receive per annum?
1 msV
6msV
The active ingredient which poses an H+S risk in x-ray fixer is
Phenidone hydroquinone
Ammonium thiosulphate
During a diastolic blood pressure reading, pressure would be:
Higher in the veins
Higher in the arteries
Lower in the veins
Equal in both arteries and veins
The radiographic controlled area should be a minimum of what distance away from the tube head?
1m
2m
5m
7m
What is the expected rest period for an adult worker in a 7 day period according to the Working Time Regulations?
24 hours
Which of the following types of fire extinguisher would be used on an electrical fire?
Carbon dioxide
Dry powder
Foam
Which of the following would not under any circumstances be reportable under RIDDOR?
Autoclave explosion
Exposure to soda lime
Outbreak of parvovirus
Excessive radiation from the x-ray machine
Which of the following statements is true regarding anaesthesia equipment safety?
Refill the vapouriser at the start of the day, service it 6 monthly, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen
Refill the vapouriser at the end of the day, service it 6 monthly, and disconnect the oxygen first, then the nitrous
Refill the vapouriser at the start of the day, service it bi-annually, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen
Refill the vapouriser at the end of the day, service it annually, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen
Which of the following is true regarding the controlled drugs register?
A computerised back up must be kept of the written records
Entries must be made within 48 hours
All entries must be made in red indelible ink
It must be a bound book
How much CPD must a vet complete over a 3 year period?
105 hrs
100 hrs
50 hrs
45 hrs
Which of the following types of surgical equipment would you store unsterilised?
Orthopaedic implants
Artery forceps
Retractors
Scissors
Which of the following disinfectants would emit a dangerous gas if in contact with urine?
Phenols
Alcohol
Biguanides
Hypochlorites
Which of the following disinfectant categories is toxic to cats?
Aldehydes
Iodophors
If an autoclave is required to sterilise an item in under 5 minutes and the pressure is set at 30psi what temperature setting should be selected?
121°C
126°C
134°C
137°C
Which of the following describes ethylene oxide indicator tape?
Green background, yellow to red colour change of stripes
Cream background, self-colour to brown change of stripes
Yellow background, green to purple change of stripes
White background, yellow to blue colour change of stripes
Which of the following diseases is caused by bacilli bacteria?
Leptospirosis
Strangles
MRSA
Which of the following would be a vector for the spread of bartonella henselae?
Ticks
Urine
Cat faeces
Cat scratch
Which of the following describes a disease that can be passed from humans to animals?
Anthroponosis
Notifiable
Zoonosis
Virulent
Differential diagnosis of disease forms part of which process within the SOAP patient assessment method
Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Planning
Which of the following describes the RLT model of nursing vs the Orem model?
Animal's abilities vs activities of living
Activities of living vs self care
Disease focus vs animal's abilities
Universal care requisites vs self-care
Clinical signs associated with dehydration emerge when the patient is experiencing what level of dehydration?
Less than 5%
5-6%
6-8%
12-15%
Which of the following ventilation methods would be best for use in isolation facilities?
Passive
Air conditioning
Positive pressure
Negative pressure
Which of the following should be placed in a hospital stable which measures 4.25m x 4.25m?
Ponies up to 14.2hh
Horses up to 16.2 hh
Horses over 16.2 hh
A foaling mare
Which of the following categories does chlorhexidine fall under?
Phenolics
Halogenated tertiary amines
