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Anaesthesiology Final MCQs- 5th Year PMU

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Anaesthesiology MCQs 1- 5th Year PMU

Questão 1 de 99

1

All but ONE of the following are predictors of a difficult intubation. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Mouth opening of only 3 fingerbreadths

  • Short, thick neck with limited mobility

  • Mallampati Class IV

  • Thyromental distance of 2 fingerbreadths

Explicação

Questão 2 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following factors represent an indication for intubation in a patient who is about to undergo surgery. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Surgery is a lumbar laminectomy

  • Surgery is removal of a lymph node of the neck

  • Surgery is appendectomy

  • Surgery is tonsillectomy

Explicação

Questão 3 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following structures is not encountered during direct laryngoscopy?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Vallecula

  • Cricoid cartilage

  • Epiglottis

  • Arytenoid cartilage

Explicação

Questão 4 de 99

1

The COMPLETE absence of a capnographic waveform immediately following endotracheal intubation may indicate ALL BUT ONE of the following. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Circuit disconnection

  • Cardiac arrest

  • Endobronchial intubation

  • Complete airway obstruction

  • Esophageal intubation

Explicação

Questão 5 de 99

1

After induction of anesthesia, the anesthesiologist is unable to intubate the patient.
Which ONE of the following is the most important management priority?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Ensuring that intubation is achieved as soon as possible

  • Inserting a laryngeal mask

  • Ensuring that bag-mask ventilation is achievable

  • Ensuring that the patient does not awaken until intubation is successfully achieved

Explicação

Questão 6 de 99

1

Advantages of a Laryngeal mask airway include ALL BUT ONE of the following. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • It frees up the anesthesiologist’s hands

  • It protects against aspiration

  • It can allow mechanical ventilation

  • It can be readily inserted without the use of muscle relaxants

Explicação

Questão 7 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following are ways to confirm endotracheal intubation. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Auscultation of both lung fields and over the stomach

  • Visualization of the endotracheal tube through the vocal cords

  • Easy advancement of the endotracheal tube without resistance

  • Presence of a stable CO2 trace on the end-tidal capnography

Explicação

Questão 8 de 99

1

The “transfusion trigger” (the lowest allowable hemoglobin level) intra-operatively is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 100 g/L

  • 80g/L

  • 60g/L

  • Individualized to every patient

Explicação

Questão 9 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following are early indicators of hypovolemia. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Tachycardia

  • Decreased pulse pressure

  • Decreased urine output

  • Lactic acidosis

Explicação

Questão 10 de 99

1

The maintenance fluid requirement for an 80 kg man using the 4-2-1 rule is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 100 cc/hr

  • 120 cc/hr

  • 150 cc/hr

  • 170 cc/hr

Explicação

Questão 11 de 99

1

Milllilitre for millilitre, which of the following provides the most intravascular volume expansion?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Packed red blood cells

  • Albumin (5%)

  • Pentaspan

  • Ringers Lactate

Explicação

Questão 12 de 99

1

A patient has lost 500ml of blood during a low anterior bowel resection. His hemoglobin is 115 g/L.
What is the most appropriate volume replacement?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Pentaspan 1500 mL

  • DSW 500 mL

  • Ringers Lactate 500 mL

  • Normal Saline 1500 mL

Explicação

Questão 13 de 99

1

Regarding vascular access and fluid resuscitation, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • An intravenous is required for procedures under local anesthesia such as carpal tunnel release or cystoscopy

  • Cannulation of a lower limb vein is inappropriate for use in the operating room

  • Cannulation of the jugular vein for central venous pressure monitoring is recommended in lengthy cases with the potential for significant fluid shifts.

  • A 14 gauge central line will allow more rapid fluid resuscitation than a 14 gauge peripheral canula

Explicação

Questão 14 de 99

1

A patient receives 10 units of packed red blood cells. Which ONE of the following chemistry profiles is most likely?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia

  • Hypokalemia, hypocalcemia

  • Hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia

  • Hypokalemia, hypercalcemia

Explicação

Questão 15 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following procedures would be associated with the most “third space" loss of fluid?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Open reduction, internal fixation of the pelvis

  • Whipple resection of the pancreas

  • Resection of large frontal brain tumour

  • Caesarian section

Explicação

Questão 16 de 99

1

Routine preoperative hemoglobin is NOT required for

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A healthy female over 50 years of age

  • A patient who has been crossmatched for surgery

  • A patient on anticoagulant medication

  • A young female patient with menorrhagia

Explicação

Questão 17 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following is the most important determinant of peri-operative risk?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Patient’s underlying health

  • Length of surgery

  • Duration of surgery

  • Emergency surgery

Explicação

Questão 18 de 99

1

Which of these patients is NOT at increased risk of aspiration?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A pregnant patient (32 weeks gestation) who has been NPO (nil per os) for 10 hours

  • A patient with fractured femur who has been NPO since the accident 12 hours ago

  • A healthy patient with appendicitis

  • A healthy patient who had 8 ounces of clear tea 4 hours pre-operatively

Explicação

Questão 19 de 99

1

The following medication should be discontinued prior to surgery and anesthesia

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Anticonvulsants

  • Thyroid replacement

  • Monoamine-oxidase inhibitors

  • Antihypertensives

Explicação

Questão 20 de 99

1

A patient with which ONE of the following conditions requires antibiotic prophylaxis prior to tonsillectomy?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Uncorrected Tetralogy of Fallot

  • Aortic stenosis

  • Uncomplicated heart transplant

  • Prophylaxis is not required for tonsillectomy

Explicação

Questão 21 de 99

1

A patient is on prednisone 30 mg daily for rheumatoid arthritis and presents for coronary bypass surgery. Which of the following best describes their peri-operative steroid requirements?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 30mg prednisone orally on day of surgery

  • 25 mg hydrocortisone IV on day of surgery

  • 25 hydrocortisone IV for 72 hours

  • 100 mg hydrocortisone IV for 72 hours

Explicação

Questão 22 de 99

1

A 60-year old man for minor surgery has a BP of 170/100 mmHg in the pre-operative clinic. In retrospect, he admits that his blood pressure has been consistently high when he checks it at the drugstore. Assign an ASA class.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ASA 1

  • ASA 2

  • ASA 3

  • ASA 4

Explicação

Questão 23 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following describes the CO2 absorber.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Changes colour as the soda lime becomes exhausted

  • Is required if a circle circuit is being used

  • Allows for economical use of anaesthetic gases

  • Provides a waveform of exhaled carbon dioxide

Explicação

Questão 24 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the peripheral nerve stimulator is true?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Delivers four successive impulses at a rate of 2 per second

  • Is a sensitive indicator of neuromuscular blockade

  • Must be used on the awake patient to achieve a baseline

  • Is commonly applied to the radial nerve

Explicação

Questão 25 de 99

1

A patient is receiving a balanced anesthetic with volatile anesthetic gases, opioids and muscle relaxants. Which ONE of the following monitors is required to be in continuous use during the care of this patient?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Temperature probe

  • Agent-specific gas monitor

  • Peripheral nerve stimulator

  • Spirometer

Explicação

Questão 26 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following interfere with accurate pulse oximetry measurements.
Indicate the exception:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Nail polish

  • Peripheral vasoconstriction due to hypothermia

  • Severe anemia (Hg 60 g/L)

  • Methemoglobinemia

  • Carbon monoxide

Explicação

Questão 27 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following conditions will cause the capnograph to give a reading that is much lower than the arterial CO2.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Pulmonary embolus

  • Exhausted CO2 absorber soda lime

  • Cardiac arrest

  • Severe bronchospasm

Explicação

Questão 28 de 99

1

The abbreviation “MAC” stands for

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Minimal arterial concentration

  • Minimal alveolar concentration

  • Maximal arterial concentration

  • Maximal alveolar concentration

Explicação

Questão 29 de 99

1

Regarding awareness, ALL BUT ONE of the following statements are correct.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • There is no "gold" standard for measuring level of consciousness

  • Volatile agents are effective amnestic agents

  • Changes in heart rate and blood pressure can be used as surrogate indicators of level of consciousness

  • Opioids (in high doses) provide effective hypnosis

Explicação

Questão 30 de 99

1

The immediate goals of emergence include ALL BUT ONE of the following.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The ability of the patient to protect their airway

  • Stable cardiovascular status

  • Normal mental status examination

  • Effective analgesia

Explicação

Questão 31 de 99

1

The advantages of regional anesthesia include ALL BUT ONE of the following.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Improved outcomes for certain procedures (e.g. thoracic surgery, Caesarean section

  • Ability to continue technique postoperatively to provide pain relief

  • A reliable option for patients not well enough to undergo general anesthesia

  • Avoidance of systemic administration of drugs and consequent side effects

Explicação

Questão 32 de 99

1

Hypothermia is associated with ALL BUT ONE of the following.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Post operative hypoxemia

  • Decreased platelet function

  • Myocardial ischemia

  • Increased analgesic requirements

Explicação

Questão 33 de 99

1

Adequacy of reversal of muscle relaxation can be assessed by ALL BUT ONE of the following.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Strong hand grip

  • The return of the eyelash reflex

  • Train of four shows 4 twitches with no fade

  • 5 second head lift

Explicação

Questão 34 de 99

1

Tracheal intubation would be required in ALL BUT ONE of the following procedures. Indicate the exception:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Open cholecystectomy

  • Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

  • Excision of lymph node from the neck

  • Tonsillectomy

Explicação

Questão 35 de 99

1

Known complications related to positioning include ALL BUT ONE of the following. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Brachial plexus injury with arm abduction of 60°

  • Hypoxemia in the Trendelenburg position

  • Common peroneal nerve injury in the lithotomy position

  • Retinal ischemia in the prone position

  • Venous air embolus with the sitting position

Explicação

Questão 36 de 99

1

Regarding the comparative considerations of epidural and spinal anesthesia, which ONE of the following is CORRECT?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The lumbar puncture for a spinal anesthetic should be performed above L1 to avoid trauma to the cauda equina

  • The epidural space is identified by puncture of the dura and free flow of cerebral spinal fluid

  • A postdural puncture headache is a potential complication that occurs with both spinal and epidural techniques

  • Epidural anesthesia is usually faster in onset than spinal anesthesia

Explicação

Questão 37 de 99

1

Early signs and symptoms of local anesthetic toxicity include ALL BUT ONE of the following. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Tinnitus

  • Perioral numbness

  • Dizziness

  • Hypertension

Explicação

Questão 38 de 99

1

Shivering can lead to ALL BUT ONE of the following. Indicate the exception:

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Myocardial ischemia

  • Increased oxygen consumption

  • Decreased carbon dioxide production

  • Interference with monitor signal interpretation

Explicação

Questão 39 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following statements about shivering is correct?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Shivering is a response controlled by the brainstem

  • Shivering can occur in the absence of hypothermia

  • Shivering is effectively treated with small doses of naloxone

  • Shivering is an uncomfortable, though harmless, effect of anesthesia

Explicação

Questão 40 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following are used as intravenous antiemetics. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Prochlorperazine

  • Ranitidine

  • Dimenhydrinate

  • Dexamethasone

Explicação

Questão 41 de 99

1

Which of the following is a risk factor for PONV?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • History of gastroesophageal reflux

  • Smoking

  • Diabetes mellitus

  • Female gender

Explicação

Questão 42 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following is part of a rational approach to post-operative nausea and vomiting?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • All patients should receive pharmacologic prophylaxis

  • Avoidance of anti-emetic anesthetic agents is an effective management strategy

  • Prophylaxis must be given prior to induction of anesthesia for maximal effectiveness

  • Dimenhydrinate remains the mainstay of PONV prevention and treatment

Explicação

Questão 43 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following is least likely to be the cause of hypertension in the PACU?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Pain

  • Airway obstruction

  • Prolonged spinal blockade

  • Full bladder

Explicação

Questão 44 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following is a criteria that the patient must meet prior to transfer from the post-anesthetic care unit (PACU) to the ward?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Normal cognitive function

  • Adequate pain control

  • Ability to hold down food

  • Ability to weight-bear

Explicação

Questão 45 de 99

1

You see a patient in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to her laparotomy for colon cancer. If the patient has an epidural inserted for post-operative pain, she is likely to experience ALL BUT ONE of the following.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Reduced adrenal activation

  • Hypertension

  • Improved respiratory function

  • Excellent post-operative pain control

Explicação

Questão 46 de 99

1

Your patient's most recent surgery was thirty years ago after which she received "conventional" nurse-administered opioid analgesia. For her upcoming lumbar spinal decompression and instrumentation, she will be receiving PCA (patient-
controlled analgesia). The comparative advantages of PCA morphine include ALL BUT ONE of the following.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Less labor intensive for nurses

  • More opioid delivered to the patient

  • Improved patient satisfaction

  • Small doses at frequent intervals minimizing the pharmacokinetic "peaks" and “valleys”

Explicação

Questão 47 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following is a relative contraindication to post-operative epidural analgesia.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Multiple sclerosis

  • Lumbar disc disease

  • Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

  • Myasthenia gravis

Explicação

Questão 48 de 99

1

All BUT ONE of the following are true regarding malignant hyperthermia (MH). Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Newer volatile anesthetics such as desflurane are not believed to trigger MH

  • Nitrous oxide is safe

  • Dantrolene is the only therapeutic drug treatment

  • Mortality is as high as 10% even with prompt treatment

Explicação

Questão 49 de 99

1

Which of the following is the first sign of a malignant hyperthemic reaction?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Hyperthermia

  • Hypercarbia

  • Tachycardia

  • Ventricular arrhythmias

Explicação

Questão 50 de 99

1

Treatment of a malignant hyperthermia crisis includes ALL BUT ONE of the following.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Turning off the volatile anesthetic

  • Active cooling measures

  • Dantrolene

  • Beta blockers

Explicação

Questão 51 de 99

1

Maternal hypotension in the supine position during pregnancy is most often due to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Decreased blood volume

  • Decreased peripheral vascular resistance

  • Decreased hematocrit

  • Compression of the vena cava

Explicação

Questão 52 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following represent relevant physiologic changes of pregnancy in the 40 week gestation parturient.
Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Decreased cardiac output

  • Delayed gastric emptying

  • Increased blood volume

  • Decreased anesthetic requirements

Explicação

Questão 53 de 99

1

In the obstetrical patient in her third trimester, the supine position

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Should be avoided by placing a pillow under her knees

  • Is detrimental due to the risk of causing excessive venous return to the right heart

  • Is harmful to the mother, but is harmless to the fetus

  • Is safe at 20 weeks of pregnancy

Explicação

Questão 54 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following are part of rational fasting guidelines for pediatric patients. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Solids up to 8 hours pre-op

  • Clear fluids up to 3 hours pre-op

  • Breast milk up to 4 hours pre-op

  • Formula up to 2 hours pre-op

Explicação

Questão 55 de 99

1

The narrowest portion of the neonate's airway is at the level of the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Glottis

  • Cricoid

  • Trachea

  • Pharynx

Explicação

Questão 56 de 99

1

The appropriate size endotracheal tube for a 4 year old child is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 4.0

  • 4.5

  • 5.0

  • 6.0

Explicação

Questão 57 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following represents attributes of the pediatric cardiovascular system. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Cardiac output is heart-rate dependent

  • Hypoxemia is an important cause of bradycardia

  • Blood volume is greater, relative to size

  • Vagal responsiveness is under-developed

Explicação

Questão 58 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following is an explanation for rapid desaturation during apnea that is seen in the pediatric patient?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Increased functional residual capacity (FRC)

  • Increased oxygen consumption

  • Increased minute ventilation

  • Obligate nasal breathing

Explicação

Questão 59 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE are features of the pediatric airway compared to the adult. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Larynx situated higher

  • Larynx situated more anteriorly

  • Epiglottis shorter and less mobile

  • Narrowest part of the airway at the cricoid

Explicação

Questão 60 de 99

1

The use of epidural analgesia for labour is likely to result in which ONE of the following

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Prolonged second stage

  • Increased risk of operative delivery

  • Neonatal depression

  • Maternal sedation

Explicação

Questão 61 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following is a disadvantage of general anesthesia for Caesarian section. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Increased risk of aspiration in the pregnant patient

  • Increased anesthetic requirements

  • Exacerbation of uterine atony

  • Increased risk of awareness under anesthesia

Explicação

Questão 62 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following is an accurate statement regarding the use of spinal anesthesia for Caesarian section?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Quick and easy in the setting of emergency Caesarian section

  • Associated with decreased maternal morbidity

  • Associated with increased neonatal depression

  • Presents less of a risk of maternal hypotension compared with general anesthesia

Explicação

Questão 63 de 99

1

Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in ALL BUT ONE of the following settings. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Total hip arthroplasty in the lateral position

  • Laparotomy for bowel obstruction

  • Multiple trauma with pneumothorax

  • Patient with history of severe post operative nausea and vomiting

Explicação

Questão 64 de 99

1

Which class of drugs is most commonly responsible for intraoperative anaphylactic (or anaphylactoid) reactions?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Opioid analgesic agents

  • Induction agents

  • Muscle relaxants

  • Volatile anesthetic agents

Explicação

Questão 65 de 99

1

Other than analgesia, what is the most important clinical effect of the opioid analgesics?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Cardiac depression

  • Sedation

  • Nausea and vomiting

  • Respiratory depression

Explicação

Questão 66 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following describes an advantage of sevoflurane over desflurane?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Lower lipid solubility therefore quicker onset and offset of effect

  • Less pungent therefore more practical for mask induction

  • Can be used with lower flows therefore more economical

  • Mild sympathomimetic effect minimizes hypotension

Explicação

Questão 67 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following best describes the reason for the rapid OFFSET of effect of the induction agents

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Ester hydrolysis

  • Liver metabolism

  • Redistribution

  • Renal excretion

Explicação

Questão 68 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following conditions predisposes the patient to prolonged effect of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Hyperkalemia

  • Hypothermia

  • Gentamycin administration

  • Myasthenia gravis

Explicação

Questão 69 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following are contraindications to succinylcholine. Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Cervical spinal cord injury (1 week ago)

  • Monoamine oxidase administration

  • Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility

  • Burn injury (24 hours ago)

Explicação

Questão 70 de 99

1

Which of the following is the correct MAXIMUM safe dose of bupivacaine (plain)

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1 mg/kg

  • 2 mg/kg

  • 5 mg/kg

  • 7 mg/kg

Explicação

Questão 71 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following describes a feature of phenylephrine. INDICATE THE EXCEPTION

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Phenylephrine causes (reflex) bradycardia

  • Phenylephrine can be safely used in patients with cocaine intoxication

  • Phenylephrine acts directly at the alpha adrenergic receptor

  • Phenylephrine improves cardiac performance in cardiogenic shock

Explicação

Questão 72 de 99

1

ALL BUT ONE of the following are effects of the synthetic opioids (fentanyl, sufentanil and remifentanil). Indicate the exception

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Muscle rigidity

  • Biliary spasm

  • Myocardial depression

  • Bradycardia

Explicação

Questão 73 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following most closely describes the MAC of three commonly-used volatile anesthetic agents?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Desflurane 6%; Sevoflurane 1%; Isoflurane 2%

  • Desflurane 2%; Sevoflurane 6%; Isoflurane 1%

  • Desflurane 1%; Sevoflurane 2%; Isoflurane 6%

  • Desflurane 6%; Sevoflurane 2%; Isoflurane 1%

  • Desflurane 2%; Sevoflurane 1%; Isoflurane 6%

  • Desflurane 1%; Sevoflurane 6%; Isoflurane 2%

Explicação

Questão 74 de 99

1

Which of the following opioids are most commonly administered into the intrathecal (spinal) space?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Morphine and sufentanil

  • Fentanyl and sufentanil

  • Morphine and fentanyl

  • Fentanyl and remifentanil

Explicação

Questão 75 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following receptors is NOT targeted in the treatment or prevention of post-operative nausea and vomiting?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • GABA

  • Histamine

  • Serotonin

  • Dopamine

Explicação

Questão 76 de 99

1

Which ONE of the following sets correctly describes the cholinergic effects of neostigmine?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Bradycardia and bronchospasm

  • Mydriasis and confusion

  • Urinary retention and constipation

  • Dry mouth and dry eyes

Explicação

Questão 77 de 99

1

Which of the following correctly describes an important principle in the use of ketorolac as an adjunct for post-operative pain?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • IV therapy should be minimized to less than 5 days

  • Ketorolac must not be given to patients with renal insuffciency

  • Potentiation of opioid effect is a risk

  • Gastrointestinal bleeding is not a concern with the Cox 1 inhibitors such as ketorolac

Explicação

Questão 78 de 99

1

What is the main advantage of the use of glycopyrrolate compared to atropine to counteract the cholinergic effects of anticholinesterase administration?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Faster onset of action

  • Does not cross the blood brain barrier

  • More effective anticholinergic activity

  • Safe in patients with narrow angle glaucoma

Explicação

Questão 79 de 99

1

Which statement about the distribution of water in the body Is true?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Most of the body water content is located within the extracellular compartment

  • Water content in a newborn child is 30-60% of its body weight

  • Plasma water content is only 5% of the body weight

  • Total body water content in adult females is 60% of their body weight

Explicação

Questão 80 de 99

1

Which of the following is not associated with high anion-gap metabolic acidosis

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Tissue hypoxia with hyperlactatemia

  • Kidney failure

  • Methanol intoxication

  • Diarrhea

Explicação

Questão 81 de 99

1

Which of the following statements about ARDS in adults is NOT correct

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Bilateral opacities consistent with pulmonary edema on chest radiography or computed tomography (CT) scan that are not fully explained by pleural effusions, lobar/lung collapse, pulmonary nodules or heart failure are required for the diagnosis

  • Several conditions’can lead to the development of ARDS, including aspiration of gastric contents, pneumonia, sepsis (most common cause), trauma, transfusion of blood products (particularly plasma-rich products), pancreatitis, fat emboli, and drowning

  • Most patients with ARDS require intubation and mechanical ventilation with low tidal volumes (6 mL/kg predicted weight) and targeted plateau pressures of equal to or less than 30 cm H2O

  • Moderate to severe impairment of oxygenation ts defined by the ratio of arterial oxygen tension to fraction of inspired oxygen (PaO2/FiO2). In Severe ARDS (PaO2/FiO2) ts between 200 and 300 mmHg on PEEP >5 cm H2O

Explicação

Questão 82 de 99

1

Which of the following drugs is of first therapeutic choice in managing anaphylactic shock?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Methylprednisolone i.v.

  • Adrenaline i.m.

  • Diphenhydramine i.m.

  • Atropine i.v.

Explicação

Questão 83 de 99

1

Which of the following suggested clinical and laboratory parameters are Not part of the SOFA score for sepsis?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Bilirubin, creatinine and urine output

  • Blood pressure and PaO2/FiO2 ratio

  • Platelets and GCS

  • Body temperature and WBCs

Explicação

Questão 84 de 99

1

Which of the statements about FAST is NOT correct?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • It is a rapid and noninvasive No to evaluate the abdomen for presence of pathological fluid collection in peritoneal and pericardial cavity

  • It is comparable to diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL) as a method for detecting peritoneal fluid

  • Abdominal areas to examine are three: right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant and subxyphoid

  • Extended FAST (E-FAST) examination includes views of the bilateral hemithoraces and the upper anterior chest wall

Explicação

Questão 85 de 99

1

20 year old male cyclist is hit by a car. On the primary evaluation the GCS was 9 points and quickly deteriorated to a maximum of 6, but the breathing and hemodynamic status were initially stable. The patient was intubated, mechanically ventilated and mannitol infusion was started during the transport. On emergent CT scan of the head only diffuse brain oedema is found with no focal lesions of the brain parenchyma or intracranial hematomas. CT scan of the neck, chest and abdomen shows clear spine, fractures of fourth and fifth ribs on the right, no pleural fluid or air collections, intact heart and great vessels, no injuries to the abdominal organs or free fluid in the abdominal cavity. The patient is admitted in the ICU. Which of the suggested monitoring is not part of the initial management of that patient?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • EEG

  • ETCO2 measurement

  • CVP measurement

  • Invasive arterial blood pressure measurement

Explicação

Questão 86 de 99

1

Generally accepted definition of coma includes a GCS score of

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • < 6

  • < 8

  • < 10

  • < 12

Explicação

Questão 87 de 99

1

Augmenting O2, delivery to the tissues is undoubtedly one of the first and foremost priorities in the management of circulatory shock. Which of the following suggested measures cannot help for for that purpose?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Administration of vasopressor drugs if no response to fluid therapy is achieved

  • HCO3 administration for correction of acidosis

  • Blood transfusion in case of hemorrhagic shock

  • Supplementary O2 administration

Explicação

Questão 88 de 99

1

Preencha os espaços em branco para completar o texto.

Which drugs can be administered endotracheally during CPR if I.V. or I.0. access cannot be established?



Explicação

Questão 89 de 99

1

A characteristic feature of cerebral salt wasting syndrome (CSWS) that distinguishes it from the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Pathological process affecting the brain

  • Decreased extracellular fluid volume (hypovolemia)

  • Increased Na+ loss with urine

  • Hyponatremia (serum (Na‘] <135 mmol/l)

Explicação

Questão 90 de 99

1

Which of the following statements about the acid-base disorders is false?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Metabolic alkalosis is the most common acid-base disturbance in hospitalised patients

  • Successful treatment of all acid-base disorders depends on the identification and elimination of the cause

  • Most cases of respiratory acidosis are due to increased production of CO2

  • As a rule acid-base disorders of metabolic origin involve a respiratory compensatory response and vice versa

Explicação

Questão 91 de 99

1

Preencha os espaços em branco para completar o texto.

List Pulmonary causes of ARDS

Severe
Inhalation

Explicação

Questão 92 de 99

1

Which of the following pairs of different types of hypoxia and possible causes does not match?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Heart failure → Stagnant hypoxia

  • Acute hemolysis → Anemic hypoxia

  • Anaphylaxis → Cytopathic hypoxia

  • High altitude → Hypoxic hypoxia

Explicação

Questão 93 de 99

1

Microblologic analysis of blood cultures is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Required for diagnosis of sepsis

  • Required before starting antimicrobial therapy for sepsis

  • Required for narrowing of the empiric antimicrobial therapy

  • Required for selection of the optimal route for antimicrobials administration

Explicação

Questão 94 de 99

1

Which of the following suggested compensatory responses to shock state does not increase the Frank-Starling mechanism in the heart (increased preload=increased cardiac output)

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Fluid redistribution to the vascular space

  • Decreased venous capacitance

  • Increased heart rate

  • Decreased renal losses of fluid

Explicação

Questão 95 de 99

1

Possible disastrous complication from overly rapid correction of hyponatremia is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Cerebral edema and brain herniation

  • Insipid diabetes

  • Ischaemic Stroke

  • Central pontine myelinolysis

Explicação

Questão 96 de 99

1

A 12-year old boy with unremarkable previous medical history regularly vaccinated, was hospitalised two days ago with flu-like symptoms, abdominal pain and vomiting. His condition was gradually worsening with changes in, mentation (GCS initialty was 15 now is 12), rapid and noisy breathing arterial hypotension (BP 95/50 MmHg), oliguria (after initial polyuria), hyperthermia, with 38.8°C despite the antiviral (Oseltamivir) and the symptomatic therapy that were started initially. You run a blood and urine analysis and receive the following results: arterial blood pH 7.0, PaCO2 20 mmHg. BE (-16), [HCO3-] 10 mmol/L, blood glucose 2 mmol/L, [K+] 3.4 mmol/l, [Na+] 132 mmol/L, [Cl-] 90 mmol/L, and serum creatinine 60 μmol/l, urea 3 μmol/l, 4(+) glucose and 3(+) ketones in urine
What are the first therapeutic intervention you would start with in this case?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Immediate administration of sodium bicarbonate to correct the acidosis

  • Aggressive restoration of extracellular fluid volume with balanced cystalloid solutions

  • Subcutaneous administration of insulin

  • Endotracheal intubation and Mechanical Ventilation

Explicação

Questão 97 de 99

1

All of the following are part of the therapeutic strategy for ARDS in adults, except

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Ventilation with low tidal volumes (6 ml/kg) and PEEP

  • Periodically switching to ventilation in prone position

  • Avoiding positive fluid balance

  • Administration of Surfactant and inhaled Nitric Oxide

Explicação

Questão 98 de 99

1

Which of the following statements about cyanosis is correct?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • It is a late sign of respiratory failure

  • It is characteristic for type 1 (hypoxemic) respiratory failure

  • It is caused by increased amount of reduced Hb (>50-60 g/l)

  • Patients with anaemia manifest cyanosis at higher SaO2 values (earlier) than patients with normal Hb values

Explicação

Questão 99 de 99

1

Preencha os espaços em branco para completar o texto.

Name four major categories of circulatory shock and give examples for every type
Shock-
Shock- failure
shock- of the aorta
shock-

Explicação