Shawn Tredinnick
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study resource for ADV PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS 20S-NURS-G820-W03 2nd test

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Shawn Tredinnick
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advanced Pharm study guide for test 2

Questão 1 de 81

1

What is the significance of bradykinin in the RAAS system

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • it is a peptide needed for the release of aldosterone by the adrenal gland

  • It is a peptide that causes blood vessels to constrict, raising blood pressure

  • it causes contraction of non-vascular smooth muscle

  • it is broken down by angiotensin converting enzyme causing vasodilation and mild dieresis

Explicação

Questão 2 de 81

1

the patient complains of a dry cough, what medication would be the most likely to have this finding?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Captopril

  • Losartan

  • Amilodipine

  • Naproxen

Explicação

Questão 3 de 81

1

angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) work on what part of the RAAS system?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • blocks Renin from stimulating the release of Angiotensinogen

  • blocks Angiotensinogen conversion to Angiotensin I

  • Blocks Angiotensin I conversion to Angiotensin II

  • blocks Angiotensin II conversion to aldosterone

Explicação

Questão 4 de 81

1

what class of medications will reduce the adverse affects of Diabetes on the kidneys as well as decrease inappropriate remodeling of the heart

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • thiazide diuretics

  • angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)

  • Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)

  • angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors)

Explicação

Questão 5 de 81

1

What statement is true regarding ACE inhibitors?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • they are potassium wasting and must be monitored for hypokalema

  • they have little negative effect on lipids or sexual function

  • African-Americans & low-renin hypertensives are extremely sensitive to monotherapy

  • they increase the effectiveness of NSAIDs

Explicação

Questão 6 de 81

1

What is considered the most serious ADR with ACE inhibitors?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Angioedema <1%

  • <1% neutropenia & agranulocytosis

  • Hyperkalemia

  • Proteinuria & glomerulonephritis

Explicação

Questão 7 de 81

1

Ace inhibitors and ARBs would be the drug of choice for which patient?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 37yo Caucasian male with Hx of MI, and kidney failure

  • 57yo Asian Female currently taking spironolactone

  • 49yo caucasian female with Hx of DM, HF and MIx3

  • 46yo African American male with Hx of DM, HTN and kidney stones

Explicação

Questão 8 de 81

1

which of the following statements is True about ACE inhibitors and ARBs used for the treatment of hypertension .

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ACEIs affect the myocardial oxygen demand but not the myocardial oxygen supply

  • ACEIs affect the myocardial oxygen supply but not the myocardial oxygen demand

  • ACEIs affect both the myocardial oxygen supply and the myocardial oxygen demand

  • ACEIs and ARBs are contraindicated in treating heart failure related to CAD

Explicação

Questão 9 de 81

1

where are the primary sites of metabolism and excretion for ACEI's?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • all ACEIs are prodrugs and do not need to be metabolized, excretion is from the kidneys.

  • ACEI's are metabolized in the avieoli of the lungs, excretion is primarily by GI tract with the capsule being whole but hollow

  • all ACEI's are prodrugs and converted to active metabolites in the liver, The kidney is the primary organ of excretion

  • ACI's are prodrugs and converted to active metabolites in the liver, excretion is primarily by GI tract with the capsule being whole but hollow

Explicação

Questão 10 de 81

1

What are the contraindications for the use of ACEI's?

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Hypertensive Proteinuric Diabetes

  • Bilateral renal artery stenosis

  • Postmyocardial Infarction

  • Pregnancy

Explicação

Questão 11 de 81

1

what is the first goal of Hypertension management?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Controlling isolated systolic hypertension (ISH)

  • Prevent the rise of BP with age

  • reduction in Cardio vascular risk

  • Improve control of HTN to below 140/90 mm Hg in adults and below 150/90 in those greater than age 60

Explicação

Questão 12 de 81

1

what statement is true with reguard to Dihydropyridines

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • greater affinity for vascular ca+ channels than cardiac Ca+2 channels

  • greater affinity for cardiac Ca+2 channels than vascular ca+ channels

  • Blocks L-type calcium channels producing vasoconstriction

  • Has an intrinsic natriuretic effect requiring the use of a diuretic

Explicação

Questão 13 de 81

1

select all of the adverse drug reactions for Nondihydropyridines

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Reflex tachycardia

  • Anorexia

  • Constipation

  • Bradycardia

Explicação

Questão 14 de 81

1

Most CCBs have short-acting forms with half-lives between 2 and 8 hours and sustained-release forms with half-lives of 12 to 24 hours what is the exception to this?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Digoxin, with a half life of 36-48 hours

  • Cardizem, with a half life of 3-4 hours

  • Amlodipine, with a half-life of 30 to 50 hours

  • isradipine with a half life of 1.5-2 hours

Explicação

Questão 15 de 81

1

what is the main effect of digoxin

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • opens the ATPase pump allowing free flow of Na+ and Ca+

  • inhibits the ATPase pump preventing Na+ from leaving the cell

  • Blocks L-type calcium channels producing vasodilation

  • inhibits the ATPase pump preventing Ca+ from leaving the cell

Explicação

Questão 16 de 81

1

how is dosing for digoxin determined?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The principal tissue reservoir is skeletal muscle, Dosing should be based on lean muscle mass

  • The principal tissue reservoir is adipose tissue, Dosing should be based on BMI%

  • The principal tissue reservoir is the CNS and dosing should be based on CSF results

  • there is not a principal tissue reservoir, dosage is determined by weight in Kg.

Explicação

Questão 17 de 81

1

select the contraindications for the use of digoxen.

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Renal Impairment

  • AV blocks or uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmias

  • Atrial Fibrillation

  • idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS)

  • Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia

Explicação

Questão 18 de 81

1

what finding would make you suspect CG Toxicity?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • serum levels of 4.5 ng/mL.

  • the patient presents with severe anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

  • ST-T wave changes on the a 12-lead ECG

  • pt presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and serum levels of 2.3 ng/mL.

Explicação

Questão 19 de 81

1

Arrhythmias are caused either by abnormal pacemaker activity or by abnormal impulse conduction, which is NOT an example of The major mechanisms by which antiarrhythmics act?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • blockade of Central Nervous System (CNS) effects on the heart

  • prolongation of the effective refractory period

  • sodium channel blockade

  • blockade of the calcium channel

Explicação

Questão 20 de 81

1

sodium channel blockers are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explicação

Questão 21 de 81

1

Beta Blockers are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explicação

Questão 22 de 81

1

Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB) are what class of antiarrhythmic drugs?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Class I

  • Class II

  • Class III

  • Class IV

Explicação

Questão 23 de 81

1

How are Antiarrhythmics metabolized.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • antiarrhythmics are already in their metabolized form after absorption and are deactivated by the liver.

  • All antiarrhythmics are metabolized and excreated from the GI tract

  • all antiarrhythmics are prodrugs and do not need to be metabolized

  • All antiarrhythmics are metabolized By the liver

Explicação

Questão 24 de 81

1

this drug class was introduced for the treatment of angina in the 19th century

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ACEs

  • CCBs

  • nitrates

  • ARBs

Explicação

Questão 25 de 81

1

what statement is true with reguard to Nitrates?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • by providing more nitric oxide (NO) to vascular endothelium and arterial smooth muscle, resulting in vasodilation.

  • cause targeted relaxation of large veins resulting in decreased pre-load

  • Arterial dilation is more common with lower doses and can result in a decrease in systemic arterial pressure

  • Arterial dilation is more common with higher doses and can result in an increase in systemic arterial pressure

Explicação

Questão 26 de 81

1

in which of the following cases would you NOT give nitrates.

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • 33yo female c/o migraine with HR111 bp 200/120

  • 75yo male c/o chest pain that has not improved, HR 63 bp 110/65

  • 45yo male car vs tree, c/o dizziness, chest pain and nausea. had MI 2 years ago. HR110 BP185/96

  • 35yo female with weakness to one side of her body, difficulty speaking and pain in the jaw that radiates to her back

Explicação

Questão 27 de 81

1

which statement about Peripheral Vasodilators is FALSE?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Significant clinical improvement of PVD can rarely be seen with monotherapy

  • Peripheral alpha1 antagonists and central alpha2 agonists can be used to treat resistant HTN and PVD.

  • monotherapy is recommended to show Significant clinical improvement of PVD without associated ADRs

  • act by direct relaxation and dilation of arteriolar smooth muscle, thereby decreasing PVR

Explicação

Questão 28 de 81

1

when prescribing reductase inhibitors, what lab tests should also be performed?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • CBC

  • AST/ALT

  • BUN/creatinine

  • Lipid Panel

Explicação

Questão 29 de 81

1

what is the clinical indication for the use of Antilipidemics?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • increased LDL, decreased HDL, high VLDL

  • High VLDL, increased HDL, Decreased LDL

  • increased HDL, increased LDL, low VLDL

  • decreased LDL, increased HDL, low VLDL

Explicação

Questão 30 de 81

1

The liver is the primary site of metabolism for most diuretics, which diuretic has nonhepatic and hepatic metabolism

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Furosemide (Lasix)

  • spironolactone (Aldactone)

  • Amiloride

  • hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

Explicação

Questão 31 de 81

1

if a patient is taking an aminoglycoside medication what Adverse drug reaction would you actively assess for?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a white crystalline precipitate to form in the superficial portion of the cornea.

  • localized ocular toxicity

  • itching/swelling of the face/tongue/throat

  • Increased Ocular Pressure in narrow-angle glaucoma

Explicação

Questão 32 de 81

1

if planning on using a combination of steroids and anti-infectives for ophthalmic Anti-Infective treatment in primary care what must be used to perform the assessment?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Keratometry

  • retinoscope

  • opthalmoscope

  • Tonometry device

Explicação

Questão 33 de 81

1

which of the following Ophthalmic Anti-Infectives has a high hypersensitivity rate?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • azithromycin

  • erythromycin

  • polymyxin B

  • gentamicin

Explicação

Questão 34 de 81

1

what is important to remember when using Sulfacetamide

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • it is incompatible with silver-containing preparations

  • must have tonometry available

  • it has a high hypersensitivity rate

  • may cause localized ocular toxicity

Explicação

Questão 35 de 81

1

Children 3 months through 8 years are most likely to have what type of Bacterial conjunctivitis
select all that apply

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • staphylococcal

  • strepto­coccal

  • Haemophilus

  • Staphylococcus aureus

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Explicação

Questão 36 de 81

1

what is the treatment for Conjunctivitis-otitis syndrome

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • high-dose amoxicillin

  • parenteral antibiotics (ceftriaxone)

  • ophthalmic/otitc antibiotics

  • erythromycin ointment

Explicação

Questão 37 de 81

1

What symptoms would make you suspect herpes keratitis? if herpes keratitis is suspected what should be done next?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • intense redness of the eye, Watery/mucus discharge from the eye, fever blister on or near the eye; examination with woodslamp

  • Swelling of the lymph nodes in front of the ears, fever, slight Pinkness of the eye; referral to ophthalmologist

  • burning, gritty sensation to the eye, lesion close to or on the eye, fever; referral to ophthalmologist

  • Crustiness around the eyelids upon waking in the morning, cough, fever; ocular assessment with ophthalmoscope

Explicação

Questão 38 de 81

1

while removing a cerumen impaction you notice that while irrigating, your patient suddenly develops nystagmus and states that they are suddenly dizzy. what is the likely cause of this?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • irrigation was being performed too forcefully

  • the irrigation solution was not warmed

  • irrigation solution has bypassed the ear drum and is interfering with the middle ear

  • the patient is having a seizure

Explicação

Questão 39 de 81

1

which statement is FALSE with reguard to Corticosteroids

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • have metabolic, anti-inflammatory, and growth-suppressing effects

  • high levels of cortisol can cause decreased memory recall, anxiety and disturbed sleep patterns

  • Glucocorticoids decrease blood glucose concentration by stimulating glycogenesis in the liver

  • Corticosteroids can raise your risk of infections due to the wide range of effects on the immune system

Explicação

Questão 40 de 81

1

What determines systolic Blood pressure?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • mean arterial pressure

  • Total peripheral resistance

  • end-diastolic volume (EDV) - end-systolic volume (ESV)

  • HR times stroke volume

Explicação

Questão 41 de 81

1

What determines diastolic blood pressure?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Total peripheral resistance

  • Cardiac output

  • mean arterial pressure divided by ejection fraction

  • end-diastolic volume (EDV) - end-systolic volume (ESV)

Explicação

Questão 42 de 81

1

select what factors will have a direct effect on systemic arterial pressure. select all that apply.

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • total peripheral resistance

  • heart rate

  • Stroke volume

  • mean arterial pressure

Explicação

Questão 43 de 81

1

an increase in BP will send inhibitory impulses to the sympathetic vasomotor center in the brainstem resulting in what?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • excitation of efferent nerves in the SNS results in decreased heart rate,

  • Inhibition of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle results in increased heart rate

  • Inhibition of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle results in vasodilation of peripheral arterioles

  • excitation of efferent nerves in the SNS that innervate cardiac and vascular smooth muscle

Explicação

Questão 44 de 81

1

changes in BP is sensed by ____ located in _____

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • baroreceptors; aorta

  • Mechanoreceptors; carotid arteries

  • Nociceptors; arch of the aorta

  • Mechanoreceptors; kidneys

Explicação

Questão 45 de 81

1

what are the ultimate goals of Angina therapy

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • to treat anginal chest pain and return to normal activities

  • reduce the risks of stroke

  • reduce the risks of MI

  • smooth muscle and cardiac relaxation

Explicação

Questão 46 de 81

1

what statements are true about organic nitrates. select all that apply

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Reduces preload

  • Increases afterload

  • Inhibit platelet aggregation

  • leads to the mediation of smooth muscle relaxation

Explicação

Questão 47 de 81

1

what makes Ranolazine unique for the treatment of angina?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Have a negative chronotropic and inotropic effect and ↓ afterload, Decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, Increases myocardial perfusion

  • decreases peripheral vascular resistance and thereby MOD, as the heart has decreased afterload

  • cause arterial smooth muscle relaxation, which results in peripheral vasodilation, decreased afterload,

  • Has antianginal and anti-ischemic effects that do not depend on reduction in heart rate or blood pressure

Explicação

Questão 48 de 81

1

what medication reduces platelet aggregation by inhibiting the synthesis of thromboxane A2

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Aspirin

  • Nitroglycerin

  • Nifedipide (Procardia)

  • Diltiazem (Cardizem)

Explicação

Questão 49 de 81

1

select what would be classified as class I according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

Explicação

Questão 50 de 81

1

select what would be classified as class II according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

Explicação

Questão 51 de 81

1

select what would be classified as class III according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

Explicação

Questão 52 de 81

1

select what would be classified as class IV according to the New York Heart Association and Canadian Cardiovascular Society

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Chest pain is present for the first few hours in the morning, in cold weather or after meals

  • Chest pain that occurs at rest

  • Angina that occurs with strenuous, rapid exertion. Ordinary physical activity like walking upstairs does not cause angina

  • Angina that occurs when walking 1-2 blocks on level ground, or by climbing 1 flight of stairs

Explicação

Questão 53 de 81

1

What is considered to be the foundation of initial drug therapy for patients with angina ?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ACEI and beta-adrenergic blockers

  • ACEI and CCB

  • BB and CCB

  • Nitrates and BB

Explicação

Questão 54 de 81

1

when diagnosing heart failure why might a chest x-ray be ordered?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • it can be used to identify and distinguish between systolic dysfunction and preserved systolic function.

  • can show Cephalization of the vascular supply

  • can show left-ventricular hypertrophy and axis deviation

  • used to rule out pulmonary embolism

Explicação

Questão 55 de 81

1

select the types of heart failure. select all that apply

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • low-output failure

  • high-output failure

  • Systolic dysfunction

  • Diastolic dysfunction

Explicação

Questão 56 de 81

1

What is the most common BB used in heart failure?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Atenolol

  • Losartan

  • carvedilol

  • clonidine

Explicação

Questão 57 de 81

1

how does Digoxin work?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Digoxin decreases contractility by decreasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin increases heart rate by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin increases contractility by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

  • Digoxin decreases heart rate by increasing intracellular calcium and inhibiting the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump

Explicação

Questão 58 de 81

1

Patients with left-ventricular dysfunction with current or prior symptoms of HF are classified as what stage according to ACC and AHA guidelines.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Stage A

  • Stage B

  • Stage C

  • stage D

Explicação

Questão 59 de 81

1

Which of the following is NOT one of the diagnostic criteria for DM?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A1C ≥6.5%

  • FPG ≥126 mg/dL

  • plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL

  • classic symptoms of hyperglycemia and a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL

Explicação

Questão 60 de 81

1

What is true about DM type 1?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Typically diagnosed early in life

  • the bodies compensatory insulin production mechanisms reduce the onset of clinical symptoms for many years

  • 90% to 95% of cases are diagnosed before the age of 30.

  • If the disease progresses without treatment hypoglycemia, coma and death can occur.

Explicação

Questão 61 de 81

1

What are the treatment targets for Glycemic control in DM? select all that apply

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • 2 hour postprandial plasma glucose less than 180 mg/dL

  • Hemoglobin A1c less than 5%

  • Random urine albumin/Cr less than 30mcg/mg
    creatinine

  • Preprandial plasma glucose 70 to 130 mg/dL

Explicação

Questão 62 de 81

1

What is the treatment target for blood pressure when treating DM?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • less than 130/80, 140/80 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 120/60, 130/80 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 140/80, 145/85 for patients with DM, hypertension

  • less than 130/80, 150/90 for patients with DM, hypertension

Explicação

Questão 63 de 81

1

what are the treatment targets for lipid control when treating DM?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • HDL >100mg/dl, LDL <50mg/dl, triglicerides less than 150mg/dl

  • HDL >150mg/dl, LDL <100mg/dl, triglicerides less than 50mg/dl

  • HDL >50mg/dl, LDL <100mg/dl, triglicerides less than 150mg/dl

  • HDL >100mg/dl, LDL <150mg/dl, triglicerides less than 50mg/dl

Explicação

Questão 64 de 81

1

what factors effect the treatment plan and drug selection process when treating DM? Select all that apply

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • individual patient variables (race, weight, pregnant etc.)

  • current AHA guidelines

  • Desiered gylcemic target

  • type of diabetes

  • severity of the hyper/hypo glycemia

Explicação

Questão 65 de 81

1

For the treatment of type 2 DM what is the first-line therapy for most patients?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Insulin

  • Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

  • Metformin

  • Glipizide

Explicação

Questão 66 de 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 5-30min, peak 0.5-3h and duration of 3-4h describes what type of insulin?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explicação

Questão 67 de 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 30-60min, peak 2-4h and duration of 3-7h describes what type of insulin?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explicação

Questão 68 de 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 1-2h, peak 4-10h and duration of 10-16h describes what type of insulin?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explicação

Questão 69 de 81

1

Insulin with and onset of 1-2h, no peak, and duration of 20-24h describes what type of insulin?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI)

  • Short-acting Insulin

  • Intermediate-Acting (IAI)

  • Long-Acting (LAI)

Explicação

Questão 70 de 81

1

Generally, what percentage of daily insulin is given as an intermediate or long-acting form of insulin?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 0-25%

  • 25-50%

  • 50-75%

  • 75-100%

Explicação

Questão 71 de 81

1

a 1 Unit bolus of insulin will typically lower glucose by approximately

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 10-20mg/dl

  • 60-90mg/dl

  • 20-60mg/dl

  • 10-40mg/dl

Explicação

Questão 72 de 81

1

Each 15 gm Carbohydrate serving raises BG by approximately

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 15mg/dl

  • 25mg/dl

  • 50mg/dl

  • 70mg/dl

Explicação

Questão 73 de 81

1

what percentage of beta cells must be lost before hyperglycemia occurs?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 50-60%

  • 60-70%

  • 70-80%

  • 80-90%

  • 90-100%

Explicação

Questão 74 de 81

1

what statement is true about Insulin

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • alcohol use, increases hyperglycemia

  • Beta blockers mask hypoglycemic symptoms

  • Short-acting Insulin onset of action is 1 to 1.5 hours, and its duration is 12 to 24 hours

  • Rapid-Acting (RAI) duration of action is 4 to 6 hours

Explicação

Questão 75 de 81

1

what is the preferred injection site that absorbs 50% more than other sites

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Inhalation method

  • Abdominal site

  • upper outer area of the arm

  • front and outer sides of the thighs

Explicação

Questão 76 de 81

1

what insulin's are pregnancy category C? select all that apply

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Aspart

  • Humulin R

  • glargine

  • glulisine

Explicação

Questão 77 de 81

1

What is important to consider if your patient has Hyperthyroidism and is taking insulin?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • delays insulin breakdown, and may require less insulin units

  • they have improved insulin sensitivity, will require less insulin

  • increases renal clearance, requiring more insulin than baseline

  • insulin can potentiate effects of antidiuretic hormone

Explicação

Questão 78 de 81

1

what is the indication for the use of Sulfonylureas when treating DM?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Excessive production of glucose by the liver

  • rapid intestinal glucose dumping

  • Insufficient production of endogenous insulin

  • Decreased tissue insensitivity to insulin

Explicação

Questão 79 de 81

1

what patient would you NOT prescribe Metformin (Glucophage) for the treatment of type 2 DM?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 20yo female who had ambulatory surgery 3 days ago

  • 11yo male with HTN

  • 9yo female HTN and HF

  • 18yo male who is currently taking a sulfonylurea

Explicação

Questão 80 de 81

1

your patient who is taking metformin and an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor to treat their DM presents with unsteady gait, generalized confusion and elevated anxiety CBG is 50mg/dl. what would you give to correct this?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a piece of hard candy held between the cheek

  • 15gm CHO

  • sugar packets

  • Lactose

Explicação

Questão 81 de 81

1

what DM medication should not be used with ACEIs due to the increased risk of angioedemia

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Thiazolidinediones

  • Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors

  • Biguanides

  • Dipeptidyl Peptidase-4

Explicação