Breck Waggoner
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Volume 2 URE

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Breck Waggoner
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Questão 1 de 90

1

What structural areas allow maintenance to inspect or service aircraft components?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Nacelles

  • Windows

  • Doors

  • Plates and Skins

Explicação

Questão 2 de 90

1

Which major structural area provides support for the engines?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Nacelles

  • Wings

  • Stabilizers

  • Fuselage

Explicação

Questão 3 de 90

1

Which is not a major aircraft structural area?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Windows

  • Stabilizers

  • Wing Carry-Through

  • Fuselage

Explicação

Questão 4 de 90

1

Which component guards against accidental firing of ejection seats?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Safety Pins

  • Stabilizers

  • Red Streamers

  • initiators

Explicação

Questão 5 de 90

1

How do independent positioning determine subsystem function?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • By recording radar data

  • By calculating aircraft velocity

  • Independent of inertial navigation

  • Independent of ground epuipment

Explicação

Questão 6 de 90

1

which is not an avionics system?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • built in test system

  • control and displays

  • central computing complex

  • navigation and weapon delivery

Explicação

Questão 7 de 90

1

which is not part of an engine indicating system

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • oil quanity

  • water temperature

  • engine vibration

  • fuel flow

Explicação

Questão 8 de 90

1

what is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 25 feet to the front and sides

  • 50 feet to the front and sides

  • 50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides

  • 25 feet to the front and 10 feet to the sides

Explicação

Questão 9 de 90

1

When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • from the side of the wheel

  • only after the blowout screen is installed

  • from the front of or behind the wheel

  • at a 45 degree angle to the wheel

Explicação

Questão 10 de 90

1

initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • heat is produced

  • nothing

  • your internal organs start to deteriorate

  • your heart beats irregulary

Explicação

Questão 11 de 90

1

what is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1 foot

  • 3 feet

  • 5 feet

  • 10 feet

Explicação

Questão 12 de 90

1

the minimum safe distance from an HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1 foot

  • 3 feet

  • 5 feet

  • 10 feet

Explicação

Questão 13 de 90

1

which condition is usually not caused by an over exposure to noise?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • hearing problems

  • fatigue

  • excessive energy

  • speech problems

Explicação

Questão 14 de 90

1

the greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to rear of the engine through an angle of

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 45 degrees on either side

  • 90 degrees on either side

  • 60 degrees on either side

  • 45 degrees on either side

Explicação

Questão 15 de 90

1

which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from over exposure to noise?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • unconsciousness

  • dizziness

  • vomiting

  • nausea

Explicação

Questão 16 de 90

1

which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • frequent nausea

  • permanent hearing loss

  • temporary weight gain

  • small overdoses have little to no effect

Explicação

Questão 17 de 90

1

which is not an Air Force inspection concept

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • preflight

  • phased

  • isochronical

  • periodic

Explicação

Questão 18 de 90

1

which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • All units regardless of majcom

  • ACC unit

  • AMC units

  • AFSOC units

Explicação

Questão 19 de 90

1

which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operations of the aircraft

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • preflight

  • phase

  • end of runway

  • basic post flight

Explicação

Questão 20 de 90

1

when is the thruflight inspection perfromed

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • after the last flight of each day

  • before the aircraft goes on alert

  • prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops

  • after a specific number of flying hours has elapsed

Explicação

Questão 21 de 90

1

which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspections

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • minor

  • major

  • phase

  • periodic

Explicação

Questão 22 de 90

1

when the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • to which the aircraft belongs

  • where the first intermediate stop is made

  • from which the mission is being performed

  • nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due

Explicação

Questão 23 de 90

1

which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • special inspection

  • acceptance inspection

  • operator inspection

  • periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication

Explicação

Questão 24 de 90

1

malfunctions documented on an AFTO form 244 are the responsibility of

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • aerospace ground equipment mechanics

  • avionics backshop personnel

  • flight line technicions

  • propulsion mechanics

Explicação

Questão 25 de 90

1

Part V of the AFTO form 244 is used to document

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • maintenance/delayed discrepancies

  • non-scheduled inspections

  • item identifications

  • scheduled inspections

Explicação

Questão 26 de 90

1

the AFTO form 781 series would not be used to document aircraft

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • flight records

  • configurations

  • component repair

  • inspections

Explicação

Questão 27 de 90

1

except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO form 781

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • B

  • K

  • L

  • A

Explicação

Questão 28 de 90

1

at what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO form 781A

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • when you enter them in error

  • when you find them to be incorrect

  • when you must correct a discrepancy

  • never, even if you entered them in error

Explicação

Questão 29 de 90

1

who ensures the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO form 781 A

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • technicion

  • supervisor

  • crewchief

  • aircraft crew member

Explicação

Questão 30 de 90

1

which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO form 781 A

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • description of the corrective action

  • TO reference

  • technicians signiture

  • supervisors signiture

Explicação

Questão 31 de 90

1

who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all comsec required entries

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • crewchief

  • pro super

  • Comm/nav technician

  • aircrew

Explicação

Questão 32 de 90

1

which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 781A

  • 781B

  • 781H

  • 781J

Explicação

Questão 33 de 90

1

which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 781A

  • 781J

  • 781K

  • 781L

Explicação

Questão 34 de 90

1

Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 781A

  • 781B

  • 781K

  • 781L

Explicação

Questão 35 de 90

1

Block C of the AFTO form 781K is used to document

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period

  • all immediate and urgent action TCTOs upon compliance

  • the status of depot maintenance

  • higher authority inspection

Explicação

Questão 36 de 90

1

to "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury of ignored, use

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • AFTO form 244

  • AFTO form 781K

  • AF form 1492

  • AF form 979

Explicação

Questão 37 de 90

1

What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • the bottom portion

  • the top portion

  • neither

  • both

Explicação

Questão 38 de 90

1

what helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electronic discharge

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Humid air

  • use of non conductive packaging material

  • use of proper insulating materials

  • dehumidified air

Explicação

Questão 39 de 90

1

an example of an ESDS devise is a

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • diode

  • PROM

  • Transistor

  • MOSROM

Explicação

Questão 40 de 90

1

what type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • intermittent

  • erroneous signal

  • latent or delayed

  • total component

Explicação

Questão 41 de 90

1

which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation

  • touching the LRU case with your hand proir to removal from the aircraft

  • covering LRU connector plugs

  • using protective tote boxes

Explicação

Questão 42 de 90

1

when working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ungrounded floor mats

  • a grounded work bench

  • nonconductive antistatic mats

  • a grounded LRU

Explicação

Questão 43 de 90

1

what type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • hard

  • shielded

  • floating

  • common

Explicação

Questão 44 de 90

1

which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • improper use of conductive bags

  • wearing of personal clothing

  • use of ionozers

  • improper use of conductive tote boxes

Explicação

Questão 45 de 90

1

which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate of loss

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • emp

  • coaxial

  • shielded

  • insulated

Explicação

Questão 46 de 90

1

which is not a type of connector coupling

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • friction

  • bayonet

  • insertion

  • threaded

Explicação

Questão 47 de 90

1

all of the following are rf connectors precautions except

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • never step on the cable

  • ensure a good grip when using pliers

  • ensure you solder double shielded cables together

  • ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable

Explicação

Questão 48 de 90

1

twisting of the fiber optic cable during installation or maintenance results in

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • stretching of the glass fibers

  • greater elasticity of the glass fibers

  • reduced optical power transmission

  • good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing

Explicação

Questão 49 de 90

1

what is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over wire cables?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • cost

  • light weight

  • low attenuation

  • immunity to electromagnetic interference

Explicação

Questão 50 de 90

1

optoelectric transducer detectors perform what functions in a fiber optic transmission

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • amplifies output circuit signals

  • converts electrical signal to light signals

  • converts optical energy to electrical energy

  • emit light when current is passed through them

Explicação

Questão 51 de 90

1

utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • connectors will mate properly

  • solder will adhere properly

  • RF will not be impeded

  • proper connections

Explicação

Questão 52 de 90

1

flux is designed to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • keep connections clean

  • bond electrical connection

  • ensure electrical conductivity

  • proper connections

Explicação

Questão 53 de 90

1

proper care of an electric soldiering iron involves

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • cooling the iron by dipping it in water

  • jerking the iron to remove excess solder

  • tapping an iron on a table to remove excess solder

  • keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using it

Explicação

Questão 54 de 90

1

which is not a type of solderless connector

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • splice

  • terminal lugs

  • connector splice

  • connector plug pins

Explicação

Questão 55 de 90

1

what type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • splice

  • terminal lugs

  • connector splice

  • connector plug pins

Explicação

Questão 56 de 90

1

one purpose of crimper positioner is to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • align crimper handles to pin contact

  • put pin contacts in the proper position

  • put the turret head in line with pin contact

  • adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins

Explicação

Questão 57 de 90

1

the colored end of an insertion and extraction is used for contact

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • insertion into a rear release connector plug

  • extraction from a rear release connector plug

  • insertion into a front release connector plug

  • extraction from a front release connector plug

Explicação

Questão 58 de 90

1

one way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • silicone tape

  • silicone caulking

  • heat shrinkable tape

  • electrical wrapping tape

Explicação

Questão 59 de 90

1

the MIL-STD that governs heat tool operation in a potentially explosive environment is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 810

  • 811

  • 812

  • 813

Explicação

Questão 60 de 90

1

the heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • tool operater

  • air/nitrogen regualtor

  • temperature controller

  • tubular heating elements

Explicação

Questão 61 de 90

1

as a flight line technician, you can repair up to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 20% of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 20% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 25% of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

  • 25% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

Explicação

Questão 62 de 90

1

Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 1-1A-14

  • 1-1A-15

  • 1-1A-16

  • 1-1A-18

Explicação

Questão 63 de 90

1

what precaution must you adhere to prior to heat shrink to a wire repair job

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ensure proper lighting

  • inventory required tools

  • read all procedures in TO 1-!A -14

  • warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft

Explicação

Questão 64 de 90

1

what is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • prevents sliping

  • lessens tendencies to cut wire insulation

  • promotes moisture and fungus resistance

  • fulfills temperature requirements for tying materials

Explicação

Questão 65 de 90

1

which of the following is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping

  • tie all wire groups or bundles 12in or less apart

  • do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundles that is located inside a conduit

  • when tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to avoid playing (spreading) of contacts

Explicação

Questão 66 de 90

1

the circuit used in an AM trasmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designated frequency required for carrier wave operation is

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a buffer amplifier

  • an audio amplifier

  • a power amplifier

  • a frequency multiplier

Explicação

Questão 67 de 90

1

to achieve AM, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signals

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • linear amplifier

  • power amplifier

  • balanced amplifier

  • non-liner amplifier

Explicação

Questão 68 de 90

1

the frequencies created by the heterodyning process in an AM transmitter modulator are the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • different and original

  • sum and difference

  • sum and original

  • two originals

Explicação

Questão 69 de 90

1

which is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • frequency

  • amplitude

  • phase

  • rate

Explicação

Questão 70 de 90

1

in an FM signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • frequency

  • amplitude

  • phase

  • rate

Explicação

Questão 71 de 90

1

in an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • reactance modulator

  • power amplifier circuit

  • frequency multiplier circuit

  • frequency discriminator

Explicação

Questão 72 de 90

1

in an FM transmitter, which circuit detects the output frequency changes and produce an automatic frequency control correction voltage?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • filter

  • converter

  • modulator

  • discriminator

Explicação

Questão 73 de 90

1

the low pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a FM transmitter prevents

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • the lower sideband from being transmitted

  • correction voltage changes caused by the modulation signals

  • carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator

  • the audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the reactance modulator

Explicação

Questão 74 de 90

1

which is not an advantage of single sideband over double sideband

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • power frequency

  • frequency stability

  • signal to noise ratio

  • spectrum conservation

Explicação

Questão 75 de 90

1

in a single sideband transmitter, frequency stability is controlled by

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • the original carrier frequency

  • reinserted carrier frequencies

  • precision frequency standards

  • carefully controlled oscillators

Explicação

Questão 76 de 90

1

in a single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator's output consists of

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband

  • the upper and lower sidebands

  • the lower sideband only

  • upper sideband only

Explicação

Questão 77 de 90

1

the single sideband transmitter circuit that increases the power output without introducing distortion is the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • balanced amplifier

  • power synthesizer

  • balanced modulator

  • liner power amplifier

Explicação

Questão 78 de 90

1

the ability of a radio receiver to select a particular station frequency from all other station frequencies that appear at the receiver antenna is called

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • sensitivity

  • reception

  • detection

  • selection

Explicação

Questão 79 de 90

1

In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is called

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • slug tuning

  • ganged parallel

  • parallel tuning

  • staggered tuning

Explicação

Questão 80 de 90

1

in a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the heterodyning process produces four frequencies; they are the two basic input frequencies, there sum, and their difference frequency is known as the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • sum frequency

  • original frequency

  • sideband frequency

  • intermediate frequency

Explicação

Questão 81 de 90

1

the purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • add amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal

  • remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal

  • remove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal

  • rectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section

Explicação

Questão 82 de 90

1

FM modulation signals provide much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals because

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • FM uses a lower frequency range

  • amplitude modulation of the carrier increases

  • of an increase in the number of sidebands

  • of a decrease in the number of sidebands

Explicação

Questão 83 de 90

1

the two advantages of using a single-sideband receiver over an AM receiver are the ability to place

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver band pass

  • more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver band pass

  • fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver bandpass

  • fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver bandpass

Explicação

Questão 84 de 90

1

the basic difference between the single sideband receiver and a conventional superheterodyne receiver is that the single-sideband receiver uses a

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • carrier reinsertion oscillator and special mixer circuits

  • special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator

  • discriminator and local oscillator circuit

  • limiter and special mixer circuit

Explicação

Questão 85 de 90

1

a major drawback in using a single sideband recierver over an amplitude modulated receiver is the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • need for critical frequency stability

  • single-sideband receiver has a narrow bandpass

  • amplitude modulated receiver requires only one oscillator circuit

  • weak signals are easy to detect in the amplitude modulated receiver

Explicação

Questão 86 de 90

1

a receiver radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • accepting and amplifying the minute current

  • removing the radion frequency carrier wave

  • converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

  • electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow

Explicação

Questão 87 de 90

1

the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a non directional radio antenna using the same power input is known as antenna

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • gain

  • arrays

  • efficiency

  • reciprocity

Explicação

Questão 88 de 90

1

the radio frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • shielded pair

  • air coaxail line

  • parallel two wire

  • flexible coaxial line

Explicação

Questão 89 de 90

1

when the impedance of a radio frequency transmission line and load do not match, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time are creating a

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • traveling wave

  • standing wave

  • reflected wave

  • resultant wave

Explicação

Questão 90 de 90

1

what type of radio frequency transmission line losses result from the skin effect?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • copper losses

  • dielectric losses

  • radiation losses

  • induction losses

Explicação