Security is a state or quality of being secure to be free from--------------.
Vulnerability
Attack
Threat
Danger
Which term among the following is correct?
Cybersecurity
Cyber-security
cyber security
All are correct
What does “cyber” meanin the context of Information Technology?
Software
Hardware
Network
Online World
Cyber security affects individuals, organizations, society and --------------------
Government
Institution
Department
Firms
Choose the odd one
Phishing attack
Denial of Service attack
SQL Injection
Man in the middle attack
Importing data
Restricting unauthorized access and misuse of physical assets helps in achieving physical security of an organization.
Cybersecurity is the collection of tools, policies, security concepts, security safeguards, guidelines, risk management approaches, actions, training, best practices, assurance and technologies that can be used to protect the cyber environment , organization and
users’ cyber assets
user personal information
cyberspace
resource
The general security objectives comprise -------------------,Availability and Integrity
Confidentiality
Accountability
Authorization
Authentication
Network security involves protection of items, objects, or facilities.
What term describes the quality or state of ownership or control of information?
confidentiality
possession
authenticity
integrity
Fill in the blanks The McCumber Cube has -------------------dimensions with -------cells representing areas that must be addressed to secure today’s information systems.
7 and 21
4 and 27
3 and 18
3 and 27
------------------is a weakness or fault in a system or protection mechanism that opens it to attack or damage.
Risk
Which of the following is not a component of an organization’s Information System? (1) Software (2) Vendors (3) People (4) Government (5) ISPs
1&3
1,2 &4
4 & 5
2,4, & 5
True or False: The person responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of information is the data custodian.
Biometric data collected from users is used for-------------------------------------------- process.
Privacy
Select the right options of the C.I.A. triad (1) Assurance that information is shared only among authorized people or organizations (2) Assurance that the information is complete and uncorrupted (3) Assurance that information systems and the necessary data are not available for use when needed
(1) True (2) False (3) True
(1) False (2) False (3) True
(1) True (2) True (3) True
(1) True (2) True (3) False
Match the following:
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-5
A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-2
A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5
Who are responsible for the security and use of a particular set of information?
Data users
Data exporter
Data custodians
Data owner
True or False: If information has a state of being genuine or original and is not a fabrication, it has the characteristic of authenticity.
Which of the following terms best describe the specification of a model to be followed during the design, selection, and initial and ongoing implementation of all subsequent security controls?
Blueprint
NIST handbook
An information security framework
Security plan
True or False: SP 800-18, Guide for Developing Security Plans, is considered the foundation for a comprehensive security blueprint and framework.
One of the foundations of security architectures is the requirement to implement security in layers. This layered approach is referred to as:
managerial controls
security domain
redundancy
defense in depth
Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies is a framework created by ------ for information technology (IT) management and -------------
HIPPA, & Information officer
SO, & Security officer
ISACA, & IT governance
CISO, & Chief officer
Three approaches to cyber security management are 1. Governance-Risk-Compliance (GRC) approach 2. --------------------------------------------------- 3. Organizational planning approach
Information-driven approach
Security-driven approach
Standards-driven approach
Procedure-driven approach
SO/IEC 27032:2012 involves guidelines for -----------------
Network security
Cyber security
Risk Management
Governance of information security
The five goals of information security governance are 1. -----------------of information security with business strategy to support organizational objectives 2. ---------------- by executing appropriate measures to manage and mitigate threats to information resources 3. -----------------by utilizing information security knowledge and infrastructure efficiently and effectively 4. -----------------by measuring, monitoring, and reporting information security governance metrics to ensure that organizational objectives are achieved 5. -----------------by optimizing information security investments in support of organizational objectives. A. Strategic alignment B. Risk management C. Resource management D. Performance measurement E. Value delivery Match the following
1-B,2-C,3-D,4-C,5-A,
1-C,2-B,3-A,4-B,5-E
1-E,2-C,3-A,4-B,5-D
1-A,2-B,3-C,4-D,5-E,
Match ISO Series with the corresponding topic (A) 27000 (1)Series Overview and Terminology (B) 27003 (2)Information Security Management Systems Implementation Guidelines (C) 27004 (3) Information Security Measurements and Metrics (D) 27005 (4) ISMS Risk Management (E) 27006 (5) Requirements for Bodies Providing Audit and Certification of ISMS
A-1, B-2,C-3, D-4, E-5
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-5
A-2,B-1,C-3,D-5,E-4
A-3,B-2,C-1,D-5,E-4
(1)------------------ is authorized by policy from senior management and is usually carried out by senior IT and information security executives, such as the(2)---------and-(3)-------
1- ISG 2- CIO, 3- CISO
1-CO,2, 2-CIO,3- CISO
1-CISO, 2-CIO, 3-CO
1-CISO, 2-ISG, 3-CO
Which term is used to describe detailed statements of what must be done to comply with policy?
Policies
Standards
Ethics
Governance
Management must use -------------------as the basis for all information security planning, design, and deployment.
Procedures
Best business practices
Which type of planning ensures that critical business functions continue if a catastrophic incident or disaster occurs?
Business continuity planning (BCP)
Contingency planning (CP)
Business resumption planning (BRP)
Disaster recovery planning (DRP)
-------------- policy can be separated into two general groups (a) managerial guidance and (b) technical specifications. Select the correct options
Systems-Specific Security
Issue-Specific Security
Enterprise Information Security
None of these
The actions taken during and after a disaster falls under ----------------
Impact assessment
Risk management
Crisis management
Both (a) & (b)
Special Publication 800-14 of the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) defines three types of security policy and chooses the
Violations of Policy, Business continuity planning, Response planning
A disaster recovery, Incident response planning, and Business continuity planning
Issue-specific security, Systems-specific security, Enterprise information security
Enterprise information security, Violations of Policy, Response planning
What are the elements of a business impact analysis? 1. Threat attack identification 2. Business unit analysis 3. Attack success scenario development 4. Potential damage assessment 5. Subordinate plan classification 6. Risk management 7. Disaster management
The elements of a business impact analysis are:
1,2,3,4,5 correct
1,2,3,5,6 correct
2,3,5,6,7 correct
Access control lists (ACLs) that govern the rights and privileges of users consist of the 1. User access lists, 2. Matrices, 3. Capability, and 4. Dedicated hardware
Choose the correct answer
1,2,3,4 are true
1,2,3 are true
Only 4 is true
All are true
The instructions a system administrator codes into a server, networking device, or a device to specify how it operates is called
Administration rule
Configuration rules
Networking rules
Security rule
Information security safeguards focus on administrative planning, organizing, leading, and controlling and that are designed by strategic planners and implemented by the organization’s security administration. These safeguards include governance and risk management together known as
Managerial controls
Operational controls
Technical controls
A lattice-based access control with rows of attributes associated with a particular subject such as a user is called
Access control matrix
Capabilities table
Configuration table
All of above
What type of policy addresses specific areas of technology, requires frequent updates, and contains a statement on the organization’s position on a specific issue?
Enterprise information security policy (EISP)
Systems-specific security policy (SysSP)
Automated policy (AP)
Issue-specific security policy (ISSP)
What are the defence strategies’ three common methods? 1. Application of policy 2. Education and training 3. Business impact analysis 4. Risk management 5. Application of technology Choose the correct answer.
1,2,3
1,2,4
2,4,5
1,2,5
Policy administrator is responsible for ----------- 1. creation, 2. revision, 3. implementation 4. distribution, and 5. storage of policy in an organization. Choose the correct option
1,2
3
3,4
5
Which type of policy is frequently codified as standards and procedures to be used when configuring or maintaining systems?
Which of the following is used to direct how issues should be addressed and technologies must be used in an organization?
policies
standards
ethics
governance
The boundary in the network within which an organization attempts to maintain security controls for securing information from threats from untrusted network areas is called ----
Security peripheral
Security perimeter
Security measure
Security principle
Consider the following statements 1. Statement of Purpose -What the policy is for 2. Information Technology Security Elements – Defines information security 3. Need for Information Technology Security – Justifies the irrelevance of information security in the organization 4. Information Technology Security Responsibilities and Roles - Defines organizational overall business planning and security investment plan.
Identify the components of the EISP
3, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 2
all are true
Access Control Lists specify 1. who can --------the system 2. what ---------users can access 3. when authorised users can --------the system 4. where authorised users can access the system from
Chose the correct words or expressions to fill in the blanks, in sequence:
use, authorised, access
authorised, access, create
authorised, access, use
administer, access, accountable
The goals of (A)------------------------------ are: 1.------------------ of information security with business strategy to support organizational objectives 2 ------------------ by executing appropriate measures to manage and mitigate threats to information resources 3. ------------------ by using information security knowledge and infrastructure efficiently and effectively
Choose the correct answer:
A-Financial security gov, 1- Tactical alignment, 2- Performance mgmt., 3- Resource mgmt.,
A-Information security governance,1-Strategic alignment, 2- Risk mgmt., 3- Resource mgmt.
A-Data security gov, 1-Operational management, 2- Resource mgmt., 3- Risk mgmt.,
A-Bord of governance,1-Operational alignment, 2- Risk mgmt., 3- Resource mgmt
Match 1 & 2 with A& B following 1. Residual risk 2. Risk appetite
A: The risk to information assets that remains even after current controls have been applied. B: The quantity and nature of risk that organizations are willing to accept as they evaluate the trade-offs between perfect security and unlimited accessibility. Choose the correct answer:
1-A, 2-B
1-B, 2-A
True or False: The information technology community of interest must assist in risk management by configuring and operating information systems in a secure fashion.
The process of examining how each threat will affect an organization is called:
Risk assessment
Data classification
Threat assessment
Vulnerability classification
The probability that a specific vulnerability within an organization will be the target of an attack is known as:
Loss Magnitude
Manageability
Likelihood
Practicability
The calculation of the value associated with the most likely loss from an attack is called:
Annualised Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Annualised Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
----------------------is the formal assessment and presentation of the economic expenditures needed for particular security control, contrasted with its projected value to the organization.
Feasibility analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk-benefit analysis
Economic impact analysis
A document that compares the relative importance of prioritised assets to prioritised threats and highlights any weaknesses in the asset/threat pairs.
Threats-Vulnerabilities document
Threats-Vulnerabilities-Assets (TVA) worksheet
Threats-Vulnerabilities-Assets log file
Attack Vulnerability Asset document
Match the following: (A) Internal Used for the most sensitive corporate information that must be tightly controlled, even within the company. Access to information with this classification is strictly on a need-to-know basis or as required by the terms of a contract. Information with this classification may also be referred to as “sensitive” or “proprietary.” (B) Confidential Used for all internal information that does not meet the criteria for the confidential category. Internal information is to be
viewed only by corporate employees, authorized contractors,
and other third parties.
(C) External All information that has been approved by management for public release.
A-2, B-1, C-3
A-1, B-2, C-3
A-3, B-2, C-1
A-1, B-3, C-2
------------------- varies among organisations because they maintain different balances between the expense of controlling vulnerabilities and the possible losses if the vulnerabilities are exploited. The key for each organisation is to find the proper balance in its decision-making and feasibility analyses, to use experience and facts instead of ignorance or wishful thinking.
Risk appetite
Risk control
Residual Risk
Risk Assessment
Malware dictation Software has its own (Asset) internal personnel database behind a firewall. Industry reports indicate a 5 % chance of an attack. The information security and IT departments report that if the organization is attacked, the attack has a 15 % chance of success based on current asset vulnerabilities and protection mechanisms. The asset is valued at a score of 35 on a scale of 0 to 100, and information security and IT staff expect that 60 % of the asset would be lost or compromised by a successful attack, because not all of the asset is stored in a single location. You estimate that the assumptions and data are 90 % accurate. Calculating Risk.
0.1575
0.1733
0.2887
0.5575
xyzbuy.com has an estimated value of Rs 50,00,000, as determined by an asset valuation and a cracker defacement scenario indicates that a deliberate act of sabotage or vandalism could damage 25 per cent of xyzbuy.com, then the single loss expectancy for the xyzbuy.com would be?
16,50,000
15,20,000
11,11,000
12,50,000
Which VPN technology uses leased circuits from a service provider and conducts packet switching over these leased circuits?
Secure VPN
Hybrid VPN
Trusted VPN
Transport VPN
The biometric technology criteria that describe the number of legitimate users who are denied access because of a failure in the biometric device in known as
False reject rate
False accept rate
Crossover error rate
Accountability rate
True or False: All traffic exiting from the trusted network should be filtered.
What term is used to describe decoy systems designed to lure potential attackers away from critical systems?
Trap
Honeypot
Trace
Sniffer
True or False: Signature-based IDPS technology is widely used because many attacks have clear and distinct signatures.
The method by which systems determine whether and how to admit a user into a trusted area of the organization is known as
Attribute
Access control
Audibility
------------------denotes the rate at which fraudulent users or nonusers are allowed access to systems or areas as a result of a failure in the biometric device. This failure is also known as --------------
False reject rate, Type I error
False accept rate, Type 2 error
False accept rate, Type I error
False reject rate, Type 2 error
Fill in the blank ------------------denotes the rate at which authorised users are denied access to systems or areas as a result of a failure in the biometric device. This failure is also known as ------------. Choose the correct option
Match the following A. Thresholds 1 Signature-based detection B. Blacklists and whitelists: 2 Anomaly-based detection C. Alert settings: 3 Detection-related related programs D. Code viewing and editing: 4 Specifying which prevention capabilities
Choose the correct option
A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Choose the right option to fill in the blanks (1) --------------- initiates network traffic to find and evaluate service ports whereas (2) ---------------- uses traffic from the target network segment to evaluate the service ports available from hosts on that segment.
1-active vulnerability scanners, 2-passive vulnerability scanners
1-passive vulnerability scanners, 2-active vulnerability scanners
Which of the following terms describes the process of making and using codes to secure the transmission of information?
Algorithm
Cryptography
Steganography
Cryptanalysis
What is term is used to describe a cryptographic method that incorporates mathematical operations involving both a public key and a private key to encipher or decipher a message?
Private-key encryption
Symmetric encryption
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Asymmetric encryption
A substitution cipher that incorporates two or more alphabets in the encryption process is called-------------------
Monoalphabetic substitution
Block cipher substitution
Stream cipher substitution
Polyalphabetic substitution
The current standard for the encryption of data, as specified by NIST --------- is based on the Rijndael algorithm, which was developed by Vincent Rijmen and Joan Daemen.
DES
RSA
AES
Message Digest
True or False: Nonrepudiation means that customers or partners can be held accountable for transactions, such as online purchases, which they cannot later deny.
Limited-use symmetric keys for temporary communications during an online session is called
Session keys
One-time padding
Match the folowing
A-3, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-2
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5, E-3
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-1
A-5, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-4
Suppose that everyone in a group of N people wants to communicate secretly with the N-1 others using a symmetric key cryptographic system. Communication between any two persons should not be decodable by others in the group. The number of keys required in the system as a whole to satisfy the confidentiality requirement is
2N
N(N-1)
N(N-1)/2
(N-1)2
Decrypt the following message if it was encrypted using a shift cipher with a shift of 3. Message: NPTELINFORMATION
Q S W H O L Q I R U P W L R Q
Q S W H O L Q I T U P W L R Q
Q S W F O L Q I R V P W L R Q
Q S W H O L Q I R V P W L R Q
------------security protocols are used to protect e-mail
SMTP
HTTPS
S/MIME, PEM, and PGP
Telnet
What is the most popular encryption system used over the Web?
Diffie Hellman key exchange
Block cipher
What is the maximum fine for GDPR non-compliance?
EUR 10mn or 2% global turnover
EUR 15mn or 3% global turnover
EUR 20mn or 4% global turnover
EUR 25mn or 5% global turnover
Richards and Solove (2007) suggest that while the American derivation of general privacy is grounded in one's --------------------
inviolate personality
violate personality
serious personality
funny personality
Cohenretism treats privacy as a
Permission
Order
Freedom
Distinct right
True/ or False? Confidentiality is concerned with the externalization of restricted but accurate information to a specific entity.
Being observed, while the subject doesn’t know is
Panopticon
Transparency
Prevention
Anonymity
Concerns for Information Privacy (CFIP) has four constructs. Which is a construct that is not part of the CFIP?
Collection
Unauthorized access
Autonomy
Errors
According to --------------------- privacy is not a distinct value concept because it could be conceptually reduced to other values, like liberty
Coherentism
Reductionism
Security
……………… determines the purposes and means of processing personal data
Data fiduciary
Data processor
Data principle
A IPL team management contracts a market research specialist team to carry out players satisfaction survey. The IPL team specifies the budget and the deadline, but the market research team determines sample sizes and interview methods. The market research team decides which player to select for the interview, what information will be collected, how the information will be collected, and how the information will be presented to the IPL team management. Who is the data controller in this situation?
An IPL team management
Market research firm
Both a & b are controllers
None of them are controllers
Fair Information Practice (FIP) principles were developed the United States in response to increasing privacy concerns resulting from massive computerization. What is an issue FIP does not address?
secret record-keeping systems
access by data subject to information stored in record keeping systems
ability by data subject to correct errors in one’s own data
data localization
GDPR makes provisions for the individual member states to add their own exemptions
The GDPR introduces a new data protection principle that requires organizations to
demonstrate compliance with the principles
optional compliance with the privacy regulation
flexibility to report data protection breaches
accept data breaches
In which of these circumstances could a data subject exercise their right to be forgotten?
Where they have withdrawn consent for data processing
Where the data is no longer necessary for the purposes for which it was collected
Where erasure is necessary to comply with a legal obligation
All are false
According to GDPR a group of companies or public authorities may appoint a single data protection officer to represent them all
--------------------- is a system for publicly sharing information about a dataset by describing the patterns of groups within the dataset while withholding information about individuals in the dataset.
Differential privacy (DP)
Privacy calculus
Privacy paradox
Privacy theory
A release of data is said to have the k-anonymity property if the information for each person contained in the release cannot be distinguished from at ---------individuals whose information also appears in the release
least k−1
least k+1
least k +/- 1
least k*1
consider the diagram:
In the First wave of the economic theory of privacy, work did not consist of formal economic models, but rather general ------------around the value or the damage that individuals, and society, may incur when personal information is protected, thereby making potentially useful information unavailable to the marketplace Choose the correct answer:
information privacy
economic arguments
economic value
economic benefit
The economics of privacy concerns the tradeoffs associated with the balancing of --------------------spheres between individuals, organizations, and governments.
public and private
internal and external
low and high
individual vs group
The goal of privacy-preserving data mining is to develop data mining methods without increasing the risk of misuse of the ---------
privacy
data
anonymity
Privacy-related content
database
___________ is a dichotomy between a person’s intention to protect their online privacy versus how they actually behave online and as a result compromise their privacy
Differential calculus
The personal data that has been de-identified, ----------------but can be used to re-identify a person remains personal data and falls within the scope of the GDPR.
pseudonymized
decrypted
Anonymize
Secrete
The area of philosophy that examines the basis for moral judgment, as well as its nature, standards, sources, and logic, is called ------------------
Moral principle
Moral value
Law
Choose the correct option that represents HIPAA’s fundamental principle
Producer control of medical information
No restrictions on how medical data may be used
Accountability to maintain the privacy of specified types of information
Balance of public responsibility for the use of medical information for the greater good measured against no impact on the individual
Security of health information
True or False: The cornerstone of many current computer-related criminal laws in the US is the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986.
Which one of these activities falls outside the scope of the GDPR?
processing for marketing purposes
processing for domestic and household purposes
processing for the purposes of crime and investigations
processing for the purposes of journalism literature and art
What types of information are covered by the GDPR? 1. Personal data 2. Data related to the public domain 3. All data of a person that can be identified by their identifier, directly or indirectly 4. Garbage data Choose the correct option.
2,4
1,3
4,3
Which of the following are not GDPR fundamental rights?
The right to be informed, the right of access
The ability to learn from mistakes, the freedom to transfer data
The right to object, rights related to automated decision-making
Match topics of interest to IT Professionals with US Laws
(A) Cryptography (1) Electronic Communications Privacy Act (B) IP (2) Federal Privacy Act (C) Encryption and digital signatures (3) No Electronic Theft Act amends (D) Privacy (4) Security and Freedom through Encryption Act Choose the correct option
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.
A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2.
INDIAN COPYRIGHT ACT was drafted in --------------------by Shalu Gothi and Daisy Jain
2000
1857
1957
1967
What is the software that comes hidden in free downloadable software and tracks your online movements, mine the information stored on your computer or use your computer’s CPU and storage for some task you know nothing about?
Weblog
Clickstream
Anonymous web browsing service
None of above
What are the primary examples of public law?
Criminal, administrative, and constitutional law
Civil, Legislative and public service
IPC, administrative, service, constitutional law
All are the primary examples of public law.
The Aadhaar project is the world’s largest national identity project, launched by the government of India, which seeks to collect the following data about residents and store these in a centralized database.
Biometric data
Demographic data of residents
Life style data of citizens
All of these
Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 had the following provision. (1) Provide for the protection of the privacy of individuals relating to their personal data, (2) Specify demerits of the flow and usage of personal data, (3) Create a mysterious relationship of trust between persons and entities processing personal data, (4) Protect the fundamental rights of individuals whose personal data are processed
Choose which of the options listed above are false?
2,3
1,4
The Aadhaar Act attempts to create a method for--------------- of individuals so as to provide services, subsidies and other benefits to the residents of the country.
Identification
------------------- gathers personally identifying information from Aadhaar holders, prepares the data for transmission, and receives the authentication.
System Terminal
Barcode reader
Authentication device
RFID
According to standard notions of digital authentication, a security principal (a user or a computer), while requesting access to a service, must provide two independent pieces of information, which are:
Identity and Authentication.
Verification and Authentication
Validation and Authorization
Validation and Authentication
Identity provides an answer to the question ------------------ Anonymity is when nobody knows who you are but potentially, they know ---------------------------
how are you? & how you do
who are you? & what you do
how are you feeling? & what you do
who are you? & what you know about others
Which of the following is odd about Aadhaar authentication?
It enables authentication using a One-Time-Password (OTP) issued to the resident's listed email address or cellphone number in the CIDR.
It enables authentication combining OTP, fingerprint, and iris authentication for residents.
It offers a 2-factor authentication with OTP as one factor and multimodal biometric as the second factor for authenticating residents.
It enables Aadhaar authentication by matching Aadhaar numbers and demographic attributes of residents.
Personal Data Protection Bill sought to ensure privacy rights of the individual. Select the odd option
Obtain confirmation from the fiduciary on whether their personal data has been processed
Seek correction of inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date personal data
Have personal data transferred to any other data fiduciary in certain circumstances
Restrict continuing disclosure of their personal data by a fiduciary, if it is no longer necessary Or consent is withdrawn
Provide advice on security safeguards like data encryption
Which of the following act enforces individual privacy in online space, after scrapping a similar bill:
PDP Bill 2018
Digital Personal Data Protection Bill 2023
GDPR
IT Act, 2000
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