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Quiz to prep for microbio exam 1.

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Microbiology EXAM 1

Microbiology EXAM 1

Questão 1 de 66

1

Approximately 5% of known microbes cause disease in humans.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 2 de 66

1

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Prokaryotic cells divide via ( binary fission, mitosis and/or meiosis ) and reproduce ( asexually, sexually or asexually ).

Explicação

Questão 3 de 66

1

Which of the following are TRUE of prokaryotic cells?

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • single circular chromosome of DNA

  • plasma membrane is a fluid-mosaic structure and contains sterols

  • genes are located in a nuclear region

  • extrachromosomal DNA is located in plasmids and mitochondria

  • they have many intracellular organelles

  • ribosomes are 70S

Explicação

Questão 4 de 66

1

When flagella are present on eukaryotic cells, they are fibrils of flagellin. When flagella are present on prokaryotic cells, they are membrane-enclosed structures comprised of microtubules.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 5 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE about the pili on eukaryotic cells?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Eukaryotic cells do not have pili

  • The pili function as attachment or conjugation pili; this contributes to the virulence of many pathogens

  • The pili are embedded in the external slime layer and assist researchers in identification of pathogens

  • They are complex, membrane-enclosed structures, comprised of microtubules

Explicação

Questão 6 de 66

1

Preencha o espaço em branco para completar o texto.

Metabolism is the sum of all the processes carried out by living organisms.

Explicação

Questão 7 de 66

1

Which of the following is FALSE concerning metabolism?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Anabolism requires energy, whereas catabolism produces or 'frees up' energy

  • The energy required for catabolism is obtained from either organic or inorganic compounds

Explicação

Questão 8 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning oxidation and reduction?

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Oxidation involves the loss of electrons and hydrogen, whereas reduction involves the gain of electrons and hydrogen

  • Oxidation is exothermic and endergonic; reduction is endothermic and exergonic

  • Reduction allows for the storage of energy; oxidation allows for the liberation of energy

  • During oxidation, oxygen is gained; during reduction, oxygen is neither lost nor gained

  • "Redox" reactions refer to the simultaneous occurrence of oxidation and reduction

Explicação

Questão 9 de 66

1

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Fermentation is a(n) ( anaerobic, aerobic ) process that ( does not, does ) create ATP.

Explicação

Questão 10 de 66

1

Which of the following are aerobic?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Fermentation

  • Glycolysis

  • Respiration

Explicação

Questão 11 de 66

1

Which of the following creates the most ATP?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Fermentation

  • Glycolysis

  • Aerobic respiration

  • Anaerobic respiration

Explicação

Questão 12 de 66

1

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( Caspids, Envelopes, Spores ) are a key structural component of viruses. They protect ( nucleic acids, ribosomes, pili ) and determine the ( shape, method of replication, host range ) of the virus, which can help in identification.

Explicação

Questão 13 de 66

1

Viruses can have RNA or DNA, both of which can either be single stranded or double stranded.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 14 de 66

1

Which of the following are TRUE concerning viral envelopes?

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Few viruses have a typical bilayer membrane

  • Some viruses do not have a membrane, they only have a nucleocaspid

  • Certain viruses have glycoprotein spikes that help attach to host cells

Explicação

Questão 15 de 66

1

Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in viral replication?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

  • Assembly; Attachment; Penetration; Synthesis; Release

  • Introduction; Transcription; Penetration; Release

  • Penetration; Transcription; Synthesis; Assembly; Release

Explicação

Questão 16 de 66

1

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Different viruses release their particles differently. Certain viruses ( lyse, engulf ) the cell upon release, thereby causing cell death. Other viruses that cause persistent illness exit the host cell via ( exocytosis, endocytosis ). In latent infections, there is no viral release from host cells.

Explicação

Questão 17 de 66

1

Preencha o espaço em branco para completar o texto.

HPV and Epstein-Barr and both types of viruses, which inhibit tumour suppression.

Explicação

Questão 18 de 66

1

Oncogenic viruses may be used as a treatment, whereby they enter all cells but only lyse tumour cells, which initiates a systemic anti-tumour immune response.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 19 de 66

1

Bacteria do not have nuclei.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 20 de 66

1

Bacteria may be identified by:

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • size

  • shape

  • staining

  • growth

  • biochemical tests

Explicação

Questão 21 de 66

1

Gram positive bacteria retain ink and they turn pink. Gram negative bacteria do not retain the ink and they turn purple.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 22 de 66

1

Select allh the CORRECT statements regarding the growth and replication of bacteria.

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Bacteria exhibit a growth curve (lag, log, stationary, and decline/death)

  • Bacteria replicate via meiosis or mitosis

  • Bacteria undergo asexual reproduction

  • Bacteria may be obligate intracellular, facultative intracellular, or extracellular in their growth

  • Bacteria require an intercellular location in which to grow

Explicação

Questão 23 de 66

1

Bacterial endospores are resistant to heat, pH changes, and bleach, but may be killed by radiation.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 24 de 66

1

Preencha o espaço em branco para completar o texto.

Quorum sensing is a key part of the formation of a .

Explicação

Questão 25 de 66

1

Biofilms may form in diabetic ulcers or on urinary catheters and pose major problems for culturing. Antibiotics are usually ineffective but bacteriophage treatment may work.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 26 de 66

1

The development of peptic ulcers, secondary to an infection with h. pylori, is an example of...

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • non-communicable disease

  • communicable disease

  • the effects of bacterial biofilms

  • a side effect of bacteriophage treatment

Explicação

Questão 27 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE concerning parasites?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Protozoa are eukaryotic and most are multicellular

  • Helminths are usually multicellular and only roundworms and flatworms contain parasitic species

  • Arthropods include insects (e.g. lice) and arachnids (e.g. ticks) but not crustaceans (e.g. crayfish)

  • Protozoa are prokaryotic and most are unicellular

Explicação

Questão 28 de 66

1

Tapeworms and pinworms are examples of...

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • helminiths

  • protozoa

  • arthropods

  • flukes

Explicação

Questão 29 de 66

1

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding parasitic hosts?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Definitive hosts are where parasites reproduce sexually, whereas intermediate hosts are where parasites spend other life stages (e.g. larval)

  • Reservoir hosts cannot spread parasites to humans but they can to other animals

  • Accidental host is another term for reservoir host

  • A dead-end host is where parasites spend the larval stage

Explicação

Questão 30 de 66

1

A biological vector can be an intermediate or definitive host, whereas a mechanical vector is not a host.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 31 de 66

1

Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Fungi are eukaryotic and most are multicellular (e.g. molds, mushrooms) but some are unicellular (e.g. yeasts)

  • Most fungi cell walls contain chitin, which is the same polysaccharide in exoskeletons of arthropods

  • Fungi are classified via the nature of the sexual stage of their lifecycle but classification can be very difficult

  • Yeast have hyphae, whereas molds replicate asexually via buds

Explicação

Questão 32 de 66

1

Preencha o espaço em branco para completar o texto.

The concept of refers to the ability of certain fungi to change their structure in response to a change in environment. This can be seen with the organism p. brasiliensis, which is yeast-like when on the human body and mold-like when in the environment.

Explicação

Questão 33 de 66

1

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Fungi use ( ergosterol instead of cholesterol, cholesterol instead of ergosterol ), which is why drugs such as fluconazole target the enzymes used in synthesis.

Explicação

Questão 34 de 66

1

Fungal infections are caused by the use of drugs, such as steroids, antibiotics, and chemo. Fungal infections are not caused by pathogens.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 35 de 66

1

Fungi are very important because they produce antimicrobials, such as penicillin.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 36 de 66

1

Preencha os espaços em branco para completar o texto.

The clinical microbiology lab consists of six main areas: bacteriology (bacteria); (fungi); virology (viruses); (detect antibodies in the blood); parasitology (protozoa, helminthes); and (acid-fast bacteria, e.g. TB).

Explicação

Questão 37 de 66

1

Which of the following statements comparing direct detection, culturing, and nucleic acid/signal amplification testing is FALSE?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • SAT and direct detection both have short turnaround times, whereas culturing has a long TAT

  • SAT is both the most expensive and the most sensitive test, compared to culturing and direct detection

  • Culturing involves growing cells on agar plates, whereas direct detection looks at an actual cell

  • Direct detection can only be used for bacteria, not viruses, unlike culturing and SAT

Explicação

Questão 38 de 66

1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the process of gram staining?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Crystal violet; Iodine; Alcohol; Safranin

  • Crystal violet; Alcohol; Iodine; Safranin

  • Safranin; Iodine; Crystal Violet; Alcohol

  • Alcohol; Safranin; Iodine; Crystal violet

Explicação

Questão 39 de 66

1

During a gram staining test, the gram negative bacteria go from purple to invisible to pink.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 40 de 66

1

Select which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding direct detection.

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Gram staining is a very common method of direct detection for viruses

  • Calcofluor is a test used to detect fungi; the substance binds to cellulose and chitin

  • Electron microscopy and direct fluorescent antibody staining are two methods to detect viruses

  • Electron microscopy is a common method of direct detection for bacteria

Explicação

Questão 41 de 66

1

The main purpose of streaking on an agar plate is to isolate only a single specie.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 42 de 66

1

After a bacterium has been cultured, it may be identified via growth in a medium. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding "selective" mediums?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Increases the growth of some bacteria and decreases the growth of others (e.g. adding abx to agar plate)

  • Has additive that causes observable change (e.g. colour, pH)

  • Increases the growth of some bacteria but does not suppress the growth of others

  • Agar plate is embedded with antibiotics

Explicação

Questão 43 de 66

1

What is the name of the test that involves pouring a test specimen into a plate imbedded with specific antigens?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Enzyme immunoassay

  • Electron microscopy

  • Calcofluor

  • Gram staining

Explicação

Questão 44 de 66

1

A bacterial susceptibility test cannot be performed on a direct detection sample; the bacteria must be cultured first.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 45 de 66

1

In the context of bacterial susceptibility tests, was does "MIC" stand for?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Minimum inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum inhibitory complex

  • Maximum inhibitory concentration

  • Minimum immunoabsorbent complex

Explicação

Questão 46 de 66

1

Which of the following are CORRECT regarding the procedure for drawing blood cultures?

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Use a peripheral poke whenever possible

  • Use a peripheral IV, if present

  • Take samples 30 minutes apart

  • Use two sets (4 bottles total), never just one (sometimes three)

  • Use a central line, if present

Explicação

Questão 47 de 66

1

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( Amplicon, Shotgun, Whole genome ) sequencing involves taking one part from a pure or mixed sample and comparing it to a reference.

Explicação

Questão 48 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Amplicon sequencing involves taking one part from a pure sample only and comparing it to a reference.

  • Shotgun (aka meta genomic) sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed/complex template and investigating that sample in detail.

  • Whole genome sequencing involves taking a sample from a mixed template and fully understanding that one piece.

  • Shotgun and whole genome sequencing are similar, in that they both sample from a pure template.

Explicação

Questão 49 de 66

1

16s ribosomal RNA assists in sequencing microbiomes because they serve as a kind of bacterial barcode.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 50 de 66

1

All bacteria have 16s ribosomal RNA but there are small differences between them.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 51 de 66

1

Select all of TRUE statements from the following, regarding how diversity is assessed in the human microbiome:

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • number of taxa (species)

  • relative abundance of each species present

  • degree of phylogenetic dissimilarity of the species present

  • whether someone is colonized or infected with an ARO

Explicação

Questão 52 de 66

1

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding dysbiosis?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Pathobionts is the overgrowth of organisms usually present, versus pathogens, which cause harm in certain numbers

  • Pathogens are usually present in healthy human bodies, versus pathobionts cause significant harm when at all present

Explicação

Questão 53 de 66

1

The term "dysbiosis" refers to changes in the microbiome that are associated with disease.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 54 de 66

1

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the relationship between diversity and relative abundance of any single microbe?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • An increase in abundance of one specie drives down diversity, and less diversity contributes to disease

  • A decrease in the abundance of one specie relates to an increase in diversity, and greater diversity contributes to disease

Explicação

Questão 55 de 66

1

B. thetaiotaomicron stimulates the host to produce anti-microbial peptides that target gram positive bacteria. This is an example of...

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Indirect colonization resistance

  • Direct colonization resistance

  • Dysbiosis

  • Colonization

Explicação

Questão 56 de 66

1

The rationale for using fecal transplants to treat a c. diff infection is that the transplant can increase diversity.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 57 de 66

1

Which of the following diseases are associated with a decrease in diversity?

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • C Diff

  • Recurrent UTIs

  • Atopic dermatosis

  • IBD

  • Bacterial vaginosis

Explicação

Questão 58 de 66

1

Which of the following statements is the best description of "commensalism"?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Both benefit

  • One benefits and there is no effect on the other

  • One benefits, the other is harmed

  • E.coli, because it aids in vitamin K absorption in the large intestine

Explicação

Questão 59 de 66

1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the factors that contribute to virulence?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Strains of bacteria, such as n. gonorrhoeae, are rarely able to cause disease if they have fimbriae (aka "attachment pili")

  • Pathogens that have fimbriae may cause hemeagglutination

  • Capsules contribute to virulence because they act as a barrier to host defenses

  • Pathogens that have haemolysin may cause host tissue damage

Explicação

Questão 60 de 66

1

Exotoxins are associated mostly with gram negative bacteria and are released when cells divide or when cells die. Endotoxins are produced and released mostly by gram positive bacteria and the ingestion of the toxin can cause disease (e.g. botulinum).

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 61 de 66

1

Which of the following is the correct order of stages of disease?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Incubation, prodromal, invasive, decline, convalescence

  • Invasive, prodromal, incubation, decline, convalescence

  • Prodromal, incubation, invasive, decline, convalenscene

  • Incubation, prodromal, convalescence, invasive, decline

Explicação

Questão 62 de 66

1

The most severe signs and symptoms of a disease are during the invasive period.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 63 de 66

1

The surface proteins on the flu virus that contribute to its virulence are hemeagglutinin and neuraminidase.

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 64 de 66

1

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the flu virus?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • The flu virus has a "segmented genome", which means that it has 8 segments of RNA. This contributes to virulence.

  • Shedding starts after exposure and continues until day 6 of the illness. The peak of shedding is at day 2.

  • Shedding occurs between days 4 and 6, when the person feels most ill.

  • Hemeagglutinin is the only surface protein on the flu virus.

Explicação

Questão 65 de 66

1

An antigenic shift causes seasonal influenza every year and is a result of the segmented genome of the flu virus (liable to make small mistakes each time they copy).

Selecione uma das opções:

  • VERDADEIRO
  • FALSO

Explicação

Questão 66 de 66

1

Which of the following statements are TRUE concerning limiting the spread of the flu virus?

Selecione uma ou mais das seguintes:

  • Vaccinations are very important and are only contraindicated in children under 6 months, people who have had a previous anaphylactic reaction, and people who have had Guillain-Barre syndrome as a result of the flu vaccine in the past.

  • Practicing good hand hygiene is a good way to limit the spread of the flu virus

  • "Social distancing" is a very effective way of preventing the spread of the flu virus

  • Masks are most effective when worn by ill persons, not healthy persons

Explicação

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