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Bvms small animals (rabies) Quiz sobre Past MCQ questions, criado por buzzybea1 em 18-02-2014.

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Past MCQ questions

Questão 1 de 57

1

You get a positive result on an in house FeLV test, what do you do next?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Put the cat to sleep

  • There's a 50% chance that its a false positive, so send the blood for confirmation

  • There's a 5% chance that its a false positive, so send the blood for confirmation

  • Give the cat antibiotics

  • Do nothing the prognosis is good

Explicação

Questão 2 de 57

1

Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 1- feline infectous peritonitis

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a- Upper respiratory signs

  • B- anaemia

  • C- Ascites

  • D- conjunctivitis

  • E- sudden death

Explicação

Questão 3 de 57

1

Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 2- candidatus mycoplasma haemominutum

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A- Upper respiratory signs

  • B- anaemia

  • C- ascites

  • D- conjunctivitis

  • E- sudden death

Explicação

Questão 4 de 57

1

Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 3- feline panleucopenia virus

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A- upper respiratory signs

  • B- anaemia

  • C-ascites

  • D- conjunctivitis

  • E- Sudden death

Explicação

Questão 5 de 57

1

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding propofol?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • It can cause Heinz body anaemia in cats

  • It exhibits low hepatic clearance

  • It is irritant if administered perivascularly

  • If presented in rubber topped vials it can be kept for 72 hrs after first use

  • It causes an increase in arterial blood pressure

Explicação

Questão 6 de 57

1

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Is zoonotic

  • Demodex canis mites are commensal

  • Is a common disease

  • Mostly occurs in dogs under one year of age

  • Can be easily diagnosed

Explicação

Questão 7 de 57

1

Which ONE of the following is NOT a valid treatment for sarcoids in the horse?

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Intralesional injection with cisplatin

  • Iridium wires

  • Autogenous vaccine

  • Cryosurgery

  • AW4-LUDES (Liverpool Cream)

Explicação

Questão 8 de 57

1

The anatomical staging system used to assess tumour extent is known as
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • MNT

  • MTN

  • NMT

  • NTM

  • TNM

Explicação

Questão 9 de 57

1

Which is the most malignant oropharyngeal tumour Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Acanthomatous equlid

  • Fibrosarcoma

  • Gingival squamous cell carcinoma

  • Ossifying epulid

  • Tonsillar carcinoma

Explicação

Questão 10 de 57

1

In the dog scrotal ablation is definitely indicated for
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • castration for inguinal hernia

  • castration for testicular neoplasia

  • elective closed castration

  • elective open castration

  • when castration is a co-treatment for perineal hernia

Explicação

Questão 11 de 57

1

For a solitary skin mass on the distal limb, which would NOT form part of your normal work up
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • FNA

  • Incisional biopsy

  • palpation of the local lymph node

  • thoracic radiography

  • urinalysis

Explicação

Questão 12 de 57

1

Which imaging modality is most sensitive to detecting changes in the middle ear
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a. Computed Tomography

  • b. Otoscopy

  • c. Plain radiography

  • d. Ultrasound

  • e. Video otoscopy

Explicação

Questão 13 de 57

1

The best ancillary aid for the diagnosis of sublingual sialocoele is
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a. “drip test”

  • b. fine needle aspirate smear

  • c. plain radiographs

  • d. sialography

  • e. ultrasonography

Explicação

Questão 14 de 57

1

Which dermatological diseases does NOT typically present with pruritus in the dog
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Atopic dermatitis

  • Cheyletiellosis

  • Food allergy

  • Sarcoptic acariasis

  • Seasonal flank alopecia

Explicação

Questão 15 de 57

1

A client asks about managing oestrus in her female Ferret. She plans to use the Jill for breeding in 2 years time. What is the most appropriate advice

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a. Administer oral Megoestrol acetate until breeding is required

  • b. An Ovariohysterectomy should be performed on the Jill

  • c. House the Jill individually until breeding is required

  • d. Keep the Jill with a Castrated Hob

  • e. Use a Deslorelin implant until breeding is required

Explicação

Questão 16 de 57

1

Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a. Caecum

  • b. Left dorsal colon

  • c. Pelvic flexure

  • d. Small colon

  • e. Small intestine

Explicação

Questão 17 de 57

1

Cases of Spirocerca lupi are most likely to be seen in
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a. Canada

  • b. Denmark

  • c. Morocco

  • d. Scotland

  • e. Tanzania

Explicação

Questão 18 de 57

1

The gravel sign in the dog is indicative of
Choose one answer

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • a. complete intestinal obstruction

  • b. intestinal lymphoma

  • c. intestinal volvulus

  • d. partial intestinal obstruction

  • e. typhlitis

Explicação

Questão 19 de 57

1

Which is NOT usually associated with small intestinal diarrhoea in the dog
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Borborygmi

  • Increased frequency of defecation

  • Increased volume of faeces

  • Steathorrea

  • Weight loss

Explicação

Questão 20 de 57

1

Which ONE of the following is NOT a cause of haematuria in the dog
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Cystitis

  • prostatitis

  • pyelonephritis

  • renal amyloidosis

  • uroltiasis

Explicação

Questão 21 de 57

1

Which is FALSE regarding the Lack coaxial breathing system

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Its a non rebreathing system

  • Its classified as a mapelson A

  • Its unsuitable for long term IPPV

  • The fresh gas flows down the outer tube

  • The reservoir bag is on the expiratory limb

Explicação

Questão 22 de 57

1

Which condition is NOT associated with ascites in the dog
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Cirrhosis with portal hypertension and hypoalbuminaemia

  • Glomerulonephritis with hypoalbuminaemia

  • Mitral dysplasia and left sided heart failure

  • Pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade

  • Pulmonic stenosis and right sided heart failure

Explicação

Questão 23 de 57

1

Which clinical sign is NOT seen in cats with chronic renal failure
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Anaemia

  • hypertension (high blood pressure)

  • polyphagia

  • polyuria/polydipsia

  • weight loss

Explicação

Questão 24 de 57

1

In nuclear scintigraphy the key data is gathered from
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Alpha particles

  • Beta particles

  • Gamma rays

  • positrons

  • x-rays

Explicação

Questão 25 de 57

1

Which cytological feature listed below is NOT consistent with malignancy

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • High mitotic rate

  • large number of nucleoli

  • multinucleate cells

  • small nuclear sizes

  • variation in the cells size and shape

Explicação

Questão 26 de 57

1

Which poison is LEAST likely to be fatal once clinical signs have developed
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Acorns

  • carbon monoxide

  • Ethylene glycol

  • metaldehyde

  • paraquat

Explicação

Questão 27 de 57

1

A dog is presented with a large tissue defect of the inner thigh and stifle. 
Which axial pattern flap would you use to close the defect

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • caudal auricular

  • caudal superfical epigastric

  • omocervical

  • reverse saphenous

  • thoracodorsalis

Explicação

Questão 28 de 57

1

Using the Triadan system of dental nomenclature what is the correct identification of the left maxillary wolf tooth in the horse

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • 104

  • 105

  • 204

  • 205

  • 304

Explicação

Questão 29 de 57

1

Which treatment is NOT used for laryngeal hemiplagia in the horse

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • larygoplasty

  • Neuromuscular pedicle graft

  • staphelectomy

  • tie back

  • ventriculocordectomy

Explicação

Questão 30 de 57

1

Which statement describes why rectal examination is so important in dogs with PUPD

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • To check for anal adenoma

  • To check for apocrine gland adenocarcinoma of anal sac

  • To check for bladder patency

  • To check for constipation

  • To check for pelvic lymphadenopathy, a good indicator of T-cell lymphoma

Explicação

Questão 31 de 57

1

Which statement about gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) is FALSE
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A large/Giant breed of dog is has a higher risk of getting a GDV than a smaller dog

  • Dogs characterised by their owners as happy or easy going dogs are at lower risk of GDV than nervous dogs

  • Eating rapidly decreases susceptibility to GDV

  • Having a first degree relative that has had GDV is a risk factor for GDV

  • Middle aged to older dogs have a higher risk of getting GDV than young dogs

Explicação

Questão 32 de 57

1

The ideal pressure, in pounds per square inch (psi), for lavaging a wound in a dog is
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • <5 PSI

  • 5-15 PSI

  • 15-25 PSI

  • 25-30 PSI

  • >30 PSI

Explicação

Questão 33 de 57

1

You have the option of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) to assess a pituitary mass in a dog. Which statement is TRUE

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Cerebrospinal fluid in the lateral ventricles is always black on MRI but can be white or black on CT

  • CT does not require the use of contrast (unlike MRI)

  • CT generally does not require an anaesthetic whereas MRI does

  • MRI produces higher detail than CT

  • The levels of ionising radiation produced by MRI are much higher then produced by CT

Explicação

Questão 34 de 57

1

Which group of clinicopathological findings is consistent with liver failure
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Elevated albumin, low globulin, normal urea

  • Low albumin, low globulin, elevated urea

  • Low albumin, normal globulin, elevated urea

  • Low albumin, normal globulin, low urea

  • Normal albumin, normal globulin, elevated urea

Explicação

Questão 35 de 57

1

During surgical repair of a perineal hernia which nerve is adjacent to the sacrotuberous ligament and potentially liable to damage

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Femoral

  • obturator

  • perineal (pudendal)

  • sacral

  • sciatic

Explicação

Questão 36 de 57

1

Which imaging modality is most sensitive to detecting changes in the middle ear
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • CT

  • Ottoscope

  • Plain radiograph

  • ultrasound

  • video ottoscope

Explicação

Questão 37 de 57

1

The best ancillary aid for the diagnosis of sublingual sialocoele is
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • ''drip test''

  • FNA smear

  • plain radiographs

  • sialography

  • U/S

Explicação

Questão 38 de 57

1

Which dermatological diseases does NOT typically present with pruritus in the dog
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Atopic dermatitis

  • Cheyletiellosis

  • Food allergy

  • Sarcoptic acariasis

  • Seasonal flank alopecia

Explicação

Questão 39 de 57

1

A 3 year old female neutered cat presents in July with bilaterally symmetrical alopecia. The owner reported a similar problem the previous summer which resolved in the winter. Which disease would you want to rule out first (i.e. what is your main differential diagnosis)

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Feline cushings

  • feline hypothyroidism

  • Flea allergy dermatitis

  • Food allergy dermatitis

  • psychogenic allopecia

Explicação

Questão 40 de 57

1

Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Caecum

  • Left dorsal colon

  • pelvic flexure

  • small colon

  • small intestine

Explicação

Questão 41 de 57

1

Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Caecum

  • Left dorsal colon

  • pelvic flexure

  • small colon

  • small intestine

Explicação

Questão 42 de 57

1

Following intravenous administration of ketamine what commonly occurs
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Bradycardia

  • Hypertension

  • Increased reap rate

  • pupillary constriction

  • vomiting

Explicação

Questão 43 de 57

1

Which statement does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Can be easily diagnosed

  • Demodex canis mites are commensal

  • Is a common disease

  • Is zoonotic

  • mostly occurs in dogs <1 year old

Explicação

Questão 44 de 57

1

Which statement does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Can be easily diagnosed

  • Demodex canis mites are commensal

  • Is a common disease

  • Is zoonotic

  • mostly occurs in dogs <1 year old

Explicação

Questão 45 de 57

1

Which drug is contra-indicated in the treatment of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Atenolol

  • Benazipril

  • Digoxin

  • Diltiazem

  • frusemide

Explicação

Questão 46 de 57

1

The pain resulting from large colon volvulus in the horse is best characterized as

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Mild pain, responsive to analgesia

  • Mild pain, unresponsive to analgesia

  • Moderate pain, responsive to analgesia

  • Severe pain, responsive to analgesia

  • Severe pain, unresponsive to analgesia

Explicação

Questão 47 de 57

1

The commonest bone tumour in giant breed dogs is
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Chondrosarcoma

  • Haemangiosarcoma

  • multiple myeloma

  • osteoma

  • osteosarcoma

Explicação

Questão 48 de 57

1

Which is most likely to lead to post-anaesthetic myopathy in a horse having colic surgery under isoflourane / oxygen anaesthesia

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • administration of hypertonic saline prior to anaesthesia

  • elevated carbon dioxide concentration in arterial blood

  • mean arterial blood pressure of 78mmHg

  • repeated movement during the procedure due to ‘light’ anaesthesia, necessitating intermittent ‘top-ups’ with ketamine

  • surgical duration of 4 hours

Explicação

Questão 49 de 57

1

For a solitary skin mass on the distal limb, which would NOT form part of your normal work up
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • FNA

  • Incisional biopsy

  • palpation of the lymph nodes

  • thraocic radiography

  • urinalysis

Explicação

Questão 50 de 57

1

Immediate surgery is indicated for diaphragmatic rupture when
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • A coexisting ventrolateral rupture is present

  • The animal is cyanotic

  • The stomach is in the thorax

  • There is a gastric dilation

  • There is significant pleural effusion

Explicação

Questão 51 de 57

1

Which would be the likely underlying cause of the ascites
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Adenocarcinoma

  • Bacterial peritonitis

  • FIP

  • Ruptured bladder

  • Visceral mast cell neoplasia

Explicação

Questão 52 de 57

1

Which is most likely to require a TECA/LBO
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Glue ear

  • Irreversible otitis externa

  • Pinnal squamous cell carcinoma

  • Reversible otitis externa

  • Vertical canal polyp

Explicação

Questão 53 de 57

1

Which is most likely to require a TECA/LBO
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Glue ear

  • Irreversible otitis externa

  • Pinnal squamous cell carcinoma

  • Reversible otitis externa

  • Vertical canal polyp

Explicação

Questão 54 de 57

1

Which agent is appropriate for therapy of Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO) in the horse
Choose one answer.

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Beclomethasone

  • Bethanecol

  • Carprofen

  • Chloramphenicol

  • Oxytetracycline

Explicação

Questão 55 de 57

1

Which is true of alfaxalone

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • can be used in cats but not dogs

  • can be used in dogs but not cats

  • causes pain on injection

  • is formulated in cyclodextrin

  • tends to cause histamine release

Explicação

Questão 56 de 57

1

Which opioid should be avoided for premedication in a dog presented for endoscopic removal of a bone lodged in the oesophagus

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • buprenorphine

  • butorphanol

  • methadone

  • morphine

  • Pithidine

Explicação

Questão 57 de 57

1

The aetiology of equine laminitis is multifactorial, all of the below predisposing risk factors have been associated with the onset of laminitis EXCEPT

Selecione uma das seguintes:

  • Endometritis

  • Equine rhabdomyolysis syndrome

  • Hyperadrenocoriticism

  • Obesity

  • strangulating intestinal lesions

Explicação