Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
Computer Systems Programing
Cyber Systems Operations
Cyber Transport Systems
Cyber Surety
Which of the following is NOT a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
Minimum rank of SSgt
6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees
Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements
Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses
Which of the following functions is PRIMARILY STAFFED by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
Communications Focal Point
Unit Deployment Monitor
Enterprise Service Desk
Quality Assurance
What document directs the Communication Focal Point KEY PROCESSES?
TO 00-5-15
MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II
Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming CENTRALIZED?
at major command functional managers
at Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
at the Air Force Personnel Center
with career field managers
Which of the following is the OFFICIAL SOURCE OF MANPOWER INFORMATION for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
Program Element Code (PEC)
Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
Authorization Change Request (ACR)
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
Special Experience Identifier (SEI)
Authorization Change Request (CR)
Unit Personnel Management Resource (UPMR)
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
Construct career paths
Manage skill-level training requirements
Establish requirements for entry into the career field
Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)
Who serves as the Major Command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)
MAJCOM Functional Manager
Career Field Manager (CFM)
SAF/CIO (A6)
Which Segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on TRAINING PROFICIENCY LEVELS AND TRAINING RESOURCING?
Segment 1
Segment 2
Segment 3
Segment 4
Which of the following is NOT an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
Draft and sign minutes
Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)
Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description
Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses
Which of the following is an OPTIONAL ATTENDEE for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
Quality Training Package (QTP)
Subject Matter Experts (SME)
Job Quality Standards (JQS)
What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
Remedy
Situational Report (SITREP)
Telephone Management System (TMS)
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
Which of the following is NOT a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly
Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)
Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)
Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions
Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
Flight Commander/Chief
Production Controller
Commander
Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan ONLY IF APPLICABLE TO THE WORK CENTER?
Master Task List
Job Qualification Standard
Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of NEW EQUIPMENT/SYSTEM ACCEPTANCE?
30
60
90
120
Which statement is NOT a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare
Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission
Create an Air Fore in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on and off-duty activities
Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost
How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
2
4
6
8
Supervisors document and maintain COMPLETED SAFETY TRAINING on
AF Form 55
AF Form 971
AF Form 623A
AF Form 623A and AF Form 55
Which of the following is NOT a term for Job Safety Analysis?
Job Safety Training (JST)
Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
Task Hazard Analysis (THA)
Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)
Which of the following is NOT contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1?
Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) Procedures
Resources required to manage and use TOs
Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
Training to manage and use TOs
Recommended technical order (TO) changes are REQUIRED to be submitted on
AFTO Form 673
AFTO Form 22
AF Form 673
AF Form 22
Who determines is local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
Library Custodian
Flight commander/chief
Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)
Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association?
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)
Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
The Authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)
Commander/director responsible for the guidance
The authoring OPR's supervisor
Publications Manager
What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)
Telecommunications industry Association (TIA)
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)
Military Only
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title
10
15
37
50
Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title?
18
32
Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for PUBLIC AND PRIVATE WEBSITES?
Wing Commander
Numbered Air Force Commander
Communications Squadron Commander
Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander
When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
misuse of position
a covered relationships
non-public information
personal conflict of interest
Which type of fund convers the COST OF RELOCATING FACILITIES?
Military Personnel (MILPERS)
Military Construction (MILCON)
Operation and Maintenance (O&M)
Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)
What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
$100,000
$250,000
$750,000
$1,000,000
In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)
10–401
33–360
38–101
64–117
At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?
Approval Official (AO).
Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).
Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).
Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?
Making authorized transactions.
Reconciling transactions.
Logging transactions.
Funds accountability.
Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.
Joint Publication 1–02.
Joint Publication 1–03.
AFI 10–401.
Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?
Air Force Chief of Staff.
Secretary of the Air Force.
Selected major command Command Chiefs.
Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.
Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?
Wing
Group
Squadron
Major Command
Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction
36–2604
36–2803
36–2805
36–2845.
What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?
1 October - 30 September.
1 January - 31 December.
1 April - 31 March.
1 July - 30 June.
The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to
53
63
73
83
What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
Monitor.
Scanner.
Keyboard.
Graphics card.
A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
At least 5.
No more than 10.
No more than 20.
20 or more.
Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?
Simple.
Relative.
Positive.
Absolute.
Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
Norton Utilities.
Acrobat Reader.
Virus Scan.
WinZip.
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
Distance Vector and Link State.
RS–232 and RS–530.
Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
Network.
Physical.
Data Link.
Transport.
Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?
Defense Intelligence Agency.
Defense Information Systems Agency.
Defense Information Systems Network.
Department of Defense Information Networks.
Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?
The customer
Security Manager
National Security Agency
Communications Squadron
What are two classifications for TRANSPORT PROTOCOLS?
Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented
Classful and Connectionless Oriented
Connectionless Oriented and Classless
Classful and Classless
In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what MUST HAPPEN BEFORE DATA IS TRANSMITTED BETWEEN CLIENTS
Authorization
Connection establishment
Establishment of a clear channel
End-to-end connectivity between host applications
What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?
Data receive message
Sliding Window
Buffer
Socket
Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment?
Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data
Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data
Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data
Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data
How many bits are in an INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4) ADDRESS?
16
64
128
What class uses a rang of 1-126 in the first octet of an INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4)?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
What INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?
Class E
Class F
What INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing?
What INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4 (IPv4) RESERVED ADDRESS is used for LOOP BACK?
0.0.0.0
127.0.0.1
207.55.157.255
255.255.255.255
Instead of using binary, how are INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 6 (IPv6) ADDRESS expressed to be MORE USER-FRIENDLY?
Colon Hexadecimal Format
Dotted Decimal Notation
Hexadecimal
Octal
The range of WELL-KNOWN PORT NUMBERS is
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535
0 to 1023
0 to 1024
Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?
Port 80
Port 110
Port 443
Port 8080
The design of communications network is known as
an internet suite
the physical layer
network architecture
network implementation
What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communication line within a small geographic area?
Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Local Area Network (LAN)
Wide Area Network (WAN)
What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?
Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency?
802.11a
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n
Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz?
What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
Physical
Logical
Hybrid
Star
What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
Bus
Ring
Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of
256 Kbps
256 Mbps
144 Mbps
144 Kbps
A modem is a device that
transmits on every link attached to it
modulates and demodulates data signals
uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination
operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model
What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
Hub
Bridge
Switch
Router
Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and
modulation of datagrams through an internetwork.
Layer–1 error determination and correction through an internetwork
Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork
transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork
Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
3
5
What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder?
Line encryption.
Link encryption.
Device encryption.
End-to-end encryption
Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?
Coaxial cable.
Fiber optic cable.
Shielded twisted-pair (STP).
Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).
Which transmission medium is the PRIMARY CARRIER OF VOICE COMMUNICATION?
Twisted pair cable.
Coaxial cable
Twinax cable.
What is the most common wireless networking standard?
802.3
802.9
802.11
802.14
What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?
Policy, Security, Authority
Authority, Security, Law
Law, Authority, Policy
Security, Policy, Law
What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to EXECUTE cyber operations?
Title 10
Title 30
Title 50
Title 52
Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?
Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)
Base Defense Operations Center
624th Operations Center
Air Operations Center
Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?
Information Management
Network-centric warfare
Information Superiority
Information Operations
What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?
Careful planning
Reactive operations
Immediate response
Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?
Electronic Attack
Electronic protection
Network Exploitation
Electronic warfare support
Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)
EW concerns RADIATED energy
CNO concerns RADIATED energy
EW is only used for OFFENSIVE purposes
CNO is only used for DEFENSIVE purposes
Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?
Computer Forensics.
Incident Prevention.
Incident Detection.
Incident Response.
Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?
Defense-in-Depth.
Proactive Defense
Situational Awareness.
Network Standardization
Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?
Supervisory System.
Remote Terminal Unit.
Human Machine Interface
Programmable Logic Controller.
Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?
Human Machine Interface.
Which threat vector is considered MORE OF AN ANNOYANCE THAN AN ATTACK?
Virus.
Spam.
Spyware.
Phishing.
Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
Patches.
Antivirus
Software removal.
Vulnerability scanner.
Which identity management process uses a FINGERPRINT TO AUTHENTICATE A USER?
Token.
Biometrics.
Multifactor.
Knowledge-based.
Which identity management process uses a PASSWORD to authenticate a user?
Token
Biometrics
Multifactor
Knowledge-based
What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?
Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems
End-to-End Performance Monitoring
Vulnerability scanners
Capacity Planning
Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?
Wing commander
Authorizing Official (AO)
Wing information security office (WIAO)
Communications and information systems officer (CSO)
The TECHNICAL SOLUTION for a communications and information system requirement summarizes
only full costs
recommended course of action only
full cost and recommended course of action
full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements
