102 An object placed on the ground at rest exerts a force vertically downwards on the ground run by virtue of its own weight and remains stationary because a reaction equal to down force acts:
O vertically upward through the object.
O vertically downwards.
O radially outwards ,from the centre of the object in the horizontal plane.
103 Aircraft engines are fitted with cowlings:
O to allow air to be ducted around the cylinder heads for cooling purposes and to reduce drag,
O to protect persons, in the vicinity of a live engine.
O to contain damage in the event of an engine failure.
104 The static pressure in a carburetor venture compared to the ambient pressure in the float chamber will be :
O lower.
O the same.
O higher
105 As altitude is increased, an adjustment has to made to the fuel/ air mixture because atmospheric:
O density decreases and the fuel/ air mixture is enriched.
O density increases and the fuel/ air mixture is enriched.
O density decreases and the fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
106 The function of an accelerator pump fitted to a carburetor is to deliver sufficient fuel to the engine when the throttle is rapidly advanced. An accelerator pump is usually :
O a plunger immersed in the float chamber and connected to the throttle via a mechanical linkage.
O ancillary to the main fuel pump which opens via a valve connected to the throttle linkage and delivers 'neat fuel directly to the inlet manifold.
O manually operated by the pilot to prevent a lean cut when rapidly advancing the throtlle.
107 How is the chord line of an aerofoil defined?
O A straight line through the centre of curvature at the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil section.
O A straight line which touches the curvature of the top surfaces of the leading and trailing edges tangentially.
O A line joining the leading and trailing edges of the aerofoil section, each point of which is equidistant from the upper and lower surfaces of the section.
108 The ignition switch controls/connects the:
O primary circuit in the magneto.
O . battery to the starter.
O secondary coils to the distributor.
109 Which of the following best describes VNE?
O The maximum indicated airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown in any circumstance
O The maximum indicated airspeed at which flight manoeuvres may be conducted.
O The maximum indicated airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown in level flight and may be exceeded for certain flight manoeuvers.
110 Induced drag is caused by:
O the pressure differential between the airflows over the upper and lower aerofoil surfaces.
O the friction between the airflow and the aircraft surfaces.
O the twisting of the airflow acting on the fuselage.
111 What method could you use to ascertain the voltage of a lead-acid battery?
O By checking the voltage with the 'rated' load switched on.
O By checking the voltage 'off-load'.
O By checking the voltage in the generator circuit.
112 At what point in the aircraft oil system does the oil temperature gauge measure from?
O The oil being delivered to the engine.
O The oil cooler.
O The oil reservoir.
113 If the temperature and pressure remain constant, an increase in humidity will cause density to:
O decrease.
O remain unchanged.
O increase.
114 The lift that is produced by an aerofoil is a product of:
O an increase in the velocity of airflow over the upper surface, resulting in a decrease in pressure, and a decrease in the velocity of airflow past the under surface, resulting in an increase in pressure.
O an increase in the velocity of airflow over the upper surface, resulting in a decrease in pressure, and a decrease in the velocity of airflow past the unde surface, resulting in a decrease in pressure.
O an increase in the velocity of airflow over the upper surface, resulting in an increase in pressure, and a decrease in the velocity of airflow past the under surface, resulting in a decrease in pressure.
115 If the specific gravity of a fuel is 0.72, what would the weight of 150 IMP gallons be?
O 1080 lbs.
O l08 lbs.
O 10,800 lbs.
116 What problem would occur by leaving a piston engine running at idle RPM for excessive periods?
O Fouling of the plugs.
O The engine burning too much oil.
O Extreme cooling of the cylinders.
117 What would be the outcome if the fuel tank vent of a light aircraft became blocked in level flight?
O A reduced pressure in the tank, disrupting fuel flow and possibly tank implosion.
O An increased pressure in the tank, increasing fuel flow, with possible tank explosion.
O There would be no fuel flow disruption or increased fuel tank stress.
118 How is battery serviceability tested?
O A hydrometer.
O An Ohm-meter.
O An ammeter.
119 What course of action should you adopt if a fuse 'blows' in flight?
O Replace the fuse with one of the same rating. If it 'blows' again, do not replace it, as there is an electrical problem.
O Replace the fuse with one of a higher rating immediately.
O . Replace the fuse with one of an identical rating. If it 'blows' again, replace it with one of a higher rating.
120 Which of the following statements most accurately defines the Centre of Pressure?
O The point on the aerofoil camber line on which the resultant total reaction of lifting forces acts through.
O The point on the aerofoil chord line on which the lift acts through.
O The point on the aerofoil chord at which the sum of all lifting forces acts through.
121 Assume ISA conditions. At higher altitudes, what is the relationship between IAS and TAS?
O TAS>IAS.
O TAS=IAS.
O . IAS<IAS.
122 An aircraft Flight Manual includes a CAA supplement. The Flight Manual details one particular method for spin recovery and the supplement another. What do you do?
O Abide by the CAA Supplement.
O Abide by the aircraft Flight Manual.
O Use a mixture of both methods.
123 An aircraft is in a left-hand turn. The ball from the balance indicator that forms part of the Turn Coordinator is out to the right. What does this indicate and how may it be rectified?
O The aircraft is skidding as too much left rudder has been applied. Apply less left rudder.
O The aircraft is skidding as too much right rudder has been applied. Apply more left rudder.
O The aircraft is slipping as too little left rudder has been applied. Apply more left rudder.
124 If a Private Pilot makes adjustments to either the flying controls and/or the engine controls, the Duplicate Inspection must be completed by:
O Either an Engineer or an Inspector.
O Another Private Pilot.
O Another pilot who is licensed for the type of aircraft concerned
125 The color of AVGAS 100 LL fuel is :
O blue.
O clear.
O red.
126 What would happen to the longitudinal stability of the aircraft if the Centre of gravity is moved rearward?
O It will be impaired.
O It will be improved.
O It will have no effect.
127 Define washout:
O A decrease in rigging incidence from wing root to wing tip.
O An increase in rigging incidence from wing root to wing tip.
O A decrease of chord from wing root to wing tip.
128 A pitch change that is caused by the lowering of flaps, occurs because there is a movement of the:
O centre of pressure.
O centre of incidence.
O centre of gravity.
129 What would be the most efficient propeller pitch position for operating at high RPM and low forward speeds?
O Fine.
O Medium.
O Coarse.
130 Prolonged idling of the engine should not occur, as this may lead to :
O fouling of the spark plugs.
O extreme cooling of the cylinders.
O loss of oil pressure.
131 What is the principal purpose of the flaps?
O To cause the wing to produce increased lift for a given Angle of Attack and airspeed.
O To deliberately adjust the position of the Centre of Pressure relative to the Centre of Gravity.
O To increase the lateral stability of the aircraft.
132 What must the resultant tail plane load be if, in level flight the Centre of Pressure is aft of the Centre of Gravity and there is no Thrust/Drag couple?
O Downward.
O Upward.
O Zero.
133 The individual braking action of a main gear wheel is called :
O differential braking.
O separate braking.
O directional braking.
134 With regard to the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI), what will the instrument read if there is a blockage of the static line?
O A rate of climb.
O A rate of descent
135 When the aircraft is on the ground, the correct action to reduce the likelihood of water in the fuel system due to condensation in the fuel tanks is to:
O keep the fuel tanks as full as possible.
O leave the filler caps off.
O leave the minimum possible quantity of fuel in the tanks.
136 How is the take-off distance defined?
O The start of the take-off run to 50 feet above the runway.
O The start of the take-off run to 100 feet above the runway.
O The start of the take-off run to the lift off point.
137 With the altimeter set to QNH, it will read altitude: .
O Above Mean Sea Level (AMSL).
O Above Aerodrome Level (AAL).
O Above the 1013.25 mb level
138 The difference between Compass North and Magnetic North is called:
O deviation
O variation.
O acceleration.
139 A balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface, operated:
O independently by the pilot to remove excessive control loads.
O automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
O automatically to provide feel to the controls.
140 Which type of flap increases wing area?
O Fowler flap.
O Kruger flap.
O Split flap.
141 With an increase in altitude, the power output of a normally aspirated engine at a constant throttle setting
O decrease because the density decreases.
O increase because the pressure increases.
O decrease because the temperature decreases.
142 The take-off performance of a light aircraft will be improved by:
O using a fine pitch propeller.
O using a coarse pitch propeller.
O having a forward Centre of Gravity (C of G).
143 If an aircraft does not hold a valid Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), it:
O may be flown only for the Certificate of Airworthiness flight test.
O may not be flown at all, until the Certificate of Airworthiness has been issued.
O may be flown by the owner/operator.
144 During a climbing turn to the left:
O the starboard wing has a greater A of A due to its increased velocity and because it has a greater horizontal distance to travel.
O the angle of attack (A of A) is the same for both wings.
O the port wing has a greater A of A due to its reduced velocity and lesser horizontal distance to travel.
145 It is important that you check the suction gauge for the following instruments to operate correctly:
O artificial horizon (AH) and the directional gyro indicator (DGI).
O altimeter, directional gyro indicator (DGI) and the turn coordinator.
O directional gyro indicator (DGI), turn coordinator and the artificial horizon (AH).
146 How would you identify carbon monoxide (CO) gas as having entered aircraft cabin?
O You could not identify CO, as it is colorless and odourless.
O By its smell.
O By its grey-blue color.
147 If the maximum crosswind component of an aircraft is 15 knots, up to what angle could a 25 knot wind be across the runway without preventing take-off?
O 35°
O 45°
O 60°
148 When hot air is selected to the carburettor air intake, why is the engine power reduced?
O Because the density of the mixture is decreased.
O Because the density of the mixture is increased.
O Because the air pressure in the induction manifold is increased
149 What is the primary source of electrical power on a single-engined aircraft?
O The generator or alternator.
O The magnetos.
O The battery.
150 The leakage of oil from an oleo pneumatic strut:
O is not acceptable, due to the limited amount of oil in the strut.
O is acceptable, providing the strut remains at its correct extension.
O is acceptable, since this is a means of lubricating the seals.
151 You experience an in-flight engine fire. What is the correct sequence of actions?
O Turn the fuel cock off, open the throttle, close the cabin vents and wait for the engine to stop.
O Turn the fuel cock off, open the throttle and wait for the engine to stop.
O Turn the fuel cock off, close the throttle and switch off the magnetos.
