10. oración y novena 698-817

a.
2,365 feet MSL

b.
2,400 feet MSL

c.
3,000 feet MSL.

a.
Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach , or communications equipment, occurring in flight

b.
Requested to contact a new controlling facility

c.
Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes

a.
One VOR receiver

b.
One VOR receiver and DME

c.
Two VOR receivers and DME

a.
Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.

b.
To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures

c.
Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion

a.
Reaching the FAF

b.
Advised to begin descent

c.
Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.

a.
Denver VORTAC

b.
Dymon outer marker

c.
Cruup I-AQD DME fix

a.
A procedure turn is not authorized.

b.
Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized

c.
Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized

a.
Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes

b.
Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix

c.
Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes

a.
Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach

b.
Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot

c.
Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.

a.
Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used

b.
Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.

c.
Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.

a.
1,420 feet

b.
1,340 feet

c.
1,121 feet.

a.
Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.

b.
Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

c.
Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM

a.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision

b.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision

c.
Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.

a.
Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL

b.
8,000 feet MSL

c.
2,100 feet AGL.

a.
True, they are both the same

b.
False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.

c.
False, but they are correlated

a.
The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream

b.
The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen

c.
All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic

a.
1.0 DME

b.
2.0 DME to either side of the arc

c.
0.0. (No deviations are allowed)

a.
6.0 Nm from the VOR

b.
4.5 Nm from the VOR

c.
3.0 Nm from the VOR

a.
All ICAO special charts

b.
IFR departure design criteria

c.
Non Jeppesen stars

a.
Continue flying the DP as published

b.
Return for a landing

c.
Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included

a.
True, except as published on STARs

b.
False, every airport is different

c.
True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs

a.
Be flown if available for that airport

b.
Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan

c.
Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC

a.
V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight

b.
V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation

c.
V stands or “VictorCollins” who min1935 invented the airways between VOR sand 344 is the airway allocation

a.
Navigation signal

b.
Both navigation and communications

c.
1.500 ground clearance around mountains

a.
Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side

b.
Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway

c.
Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line

a.
MVA, MEA and MOCA

b.
MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA

c.
Neither,astheradioaltimeterisneveractivated(2.500Ftorless)whentheaircraftfliesinmountainousterrain

a.
A Hi or Lo enroute chart

b.
A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used

c.
A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation

a.
Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code

b.
Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code

c.
Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code

a.
Write a maintenance report at your next stop

b.
Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements

c.
Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing

a.
Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point

b.
Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you are

c.
Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any

a.
Report leaving present altitude

b.
Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times

c.
Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic

a.
Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles

b.
If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time

c.
Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt

a.
You will fly two complete racetrack patterns

b.
You will fly three complete racetrack patterns

c.
The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.

a.
Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts

b.
Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category

c.
Maintainthespeedupsoastoholdatthefastestspeedpossibletobethefirsttoleavethefixandexpedite ATC

a.
When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace

b.
In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.

c.
In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

a.
Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace

b.
Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists

c.
Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist

a.
Entering controlled airspace

b.
Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums

c.
Takeoff.

a.
Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments

b.
Entering weather conditions in any airspace

c.
Entering controlled airspace

a.
When operating in the Class E airspace

b.
When operating in the Class A airspace.

c.
When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet

a.
Takeoff.

b.
Entering IFR conditions

c.
Entering Class E airspace.

a.
And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff

b.
Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway

c.
And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

a.
Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

b.
Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

c.
And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

a.
And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

b.
Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

c.
Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

a.
800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.

b.
800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

c.
1,000-footceilingandvisibilitytoallowdescentfromminimumenroutealtitude(MEA),approach,andlanding under basic VFR

a.
400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

b.
600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

c.
800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

a.
Ceiling200feetabovetheapproachminimumsandatleast1statutemilevisibility,butnotlessthantheminimum visibility for the approach

b.
600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility

c.
Ceiling200feetabovefieldelevationandvisibility1statutemile,butnotlessthantheminimumvisibilityfor the approach

a.
The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively

b.
The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.

c.
The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

a.
600-1 if the airport has an ILS

b.
Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum, visibility 2 miles.

c.
The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

a.
Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

b.
Alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.

c.
Minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”

a.
Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).

b.
The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport

c.
The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

a.
Allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions

b.
Be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.

c.
Allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

a.
The established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.

b.
An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors

c.
Direct route only.

a.
The ATIS broadcast.

b.
The FSS.

c.
Notices to Airmen (Class II).

a.
The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach

b.
The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach

c.
The point of first intended landing

a.
Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively

b.
Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively

c.
Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

a.
600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

b.
600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.

c.
800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

a.
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

b.
No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively

c.
Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.

a.
From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles

b.
From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles

c.
From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles

a.
Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.

b.
Advise departure control upon initial contact

c.
Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

a.
MOCA.

b.
MRA.

c.
MCA.

a.
22 NM of a VOR.

b.
25 NM of a VOR

c.
30 NM of a VOR

a.
40 NM apart

b.
70 NM apart

c.
80 NM apart

a.
Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last

b.
When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.

c.
When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

a.
Obstacleclearance,accuratenavigationalsignalsfrommorethanoneVORTAC,andaccurateDMEmileage.

b.
A 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage

c.
Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements

a.
230 knots

b.
265 knots

c.
200 knots

a.
1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility

b.
1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

c.
500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility

a.
Whenthewingsarelevelandthewinddriftcorrectionangleisestablishedaftercompletingtheturntothe outbound heading.

b.
When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first.

c.
When abeam the holding fix

a.
It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.

b.
The localizer has an additional navigation function

c.
GRICEintersectionalsoservesastheFAFfortheILSapproachproceduretoHarryP.WilliamsMemorial

a.
220 knots

b.
265 knots.

c.
200 knots.

a.
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

b.
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage

c.
Analtitudewhichmeetsobstacleclearancerequirements,assuresacceptablenavigationsignalcoverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.

a.
230 knots.

b.
200 knots

c.
210 knots

a.
Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

b.
Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound

c.
Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.

a.
12 NM

b.
22 NM.

c.
25 NM

a.
IFR Planning Chart

b.
IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart

c.
IFR High Altitude En Route Chart

a.
At pilot’s discretion

b.
Only in an emergency

c.
Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

a.
6,400 feet

b.
6,500 feet.

c.
7,000 feet.

a.
MRA

b.
MCA

c.
MOCA.

a.
Adequate navigation signals

b.
Adequate communications

c.
1,000-foot obstacle clearance

a.
The MEA at which the fix is approached

b.
The MRA at which the fix is approached

c.
The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.

a.
122.1, 126.4

b.
123.6, 122.65.

c.
122.2, 122.3

a.
All fixes that are labeled IAF

b.
Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix

c.
The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.

a.
15 feet

b.
18 feet

c.
22 feet

a.
3,000 feet MSL

b.
1,800 feet MSL.

c.
1,690 feet MSL

a.
At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach

b.
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.

c.
At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight

a.
Certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.

b.
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight

c.
1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight

a.
Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER

b.
Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart

c.
Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.

a.
Arrival at the DH on the glide slope

b.
Arrival at the middle marker

c.
Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.

a.
It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM

b.
It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured

c.
ItistheminimumvectoraltitudeforradarvectorsinthesectorsoutheastofPUCbetween020°and290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR

a.
Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability

b.
Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available

c.
Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability

a.
A

b.
B

c.
C

a.
To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.

b.
Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan

c.
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”

a.
200 feet per minute.

b.
400 feet per minute

c.
600 feet per minute

a.
Land straight in on runway 31.

b.
Comply with straight-in landing minimums

c.
Begin final approach without making a procedure turn

a.
Denver VORTAC

b.
Gandi outer marker

c.
Denver/Stapleton International Airport

a.
The 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.

b.
A radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.

c.
10 knots of the specified holding speed

a.
Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.

b.
Use Category B minim ums

c.
Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches

a.
180 knots IAS

b.
200 knots IAS

c.
250 knots IAS

a.
Take off minimums are 1 mile for aircraf thavingtwo engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines

b.
Instrument takeoffs are not authorized

c.
Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

a.
On tower frequency

b.
On approach control frequency

c.
One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency

a.
Astraight-inlanding may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.

b.
The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.

c.
Astraight-inlanding may be made if the pilot has the runway insight insufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.

a.
A procedure turn is not authorized.

b.
Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized

c.
Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.

a.
425 feet per minute

b.
530 feet per minute.

c.
635 feet per minute

a.
Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.

b.
Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure

c.
Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

a.
70 feet MSL

b.
54 feet MSL.

c.
46 feet MSL

a.
363 feet MSL

b.
365 feet MSL.

c.
396 feet MSL

a.
The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope

b.
The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.

c.
The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

a.
415 feet per minute

b.
480 feet per minute

c.
555 feet per minute

a.
1,200 fpm

b.
500 fpm.

c.
800 fpm.

a.
You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions

b.
You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions

c.
You must have the airport insight or a preceding aircraft to be followed ,and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

a.
As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

b.
Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix

c.
After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.

a.
4 DME miles from LABER.

b.
10 DME miles from the MAP

c.
12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.

a.
5,957 feet.

b.
7,000 feet

c.
7,900 feet.

a.
As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet

b.
As an RVR of 2,400 feet

c.
As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

a.
Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF

b.
When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.

c.
After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.

a.
Parallel ILS approach runway center lines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway

b.
Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

c.
Landing minimums to the adjacent runway willbe higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.

a.
RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility

b.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system

c.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

a.
Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver

b.
Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures

c.
Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first

a.
completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.

b.
CREAK outbound

c.
intercepting the glide slope.

a.
As soon as intercepting LOC inbound

b.
Immediately

c.
Only at the point authorized by ATC

a.
Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure

b.
Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.

c.
Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway