698 (Refer to figure 37.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is
a. 2,365 feet MSL
b. 2,400 feet MSL
c. 3,000 feet MSL.
699 The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when
a. Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach , or communications equipment, occurring in flight
b. Requested to contact a new controlling facility
c. Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes
700 (Refer to figure 35.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?
a. One VOR receiver
b. One VOR receiver and DME
c. Two VOR receivers and DME
701 Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are
a. Used to separate IFR and known VFR traffic.
b. To facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures
c. Used at certain airports to relieve traffic congestion
702 While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
a. Reaching the FAF
b. Advised to begin descent
c. Established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure.
703 (Refer to figure 34.) The symbol [9200] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
a. Denver VORTAC
b. Dymon outer marker
c. Cruup I-AQD DME fix
704 What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
a. A procedure turn is not authorized.
b. Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized
c. Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized
705 A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn when
a. Maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes
b. Receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix
c. Maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes
706 On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the
a. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach
b. Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot
c. Aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.
707 Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
a. Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used
b. Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
c. Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.
708 (Refer to figure 38) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?
a. 1,420 feet
b. 1,340 feet
c. 1,121 feet.
709 For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
a. Ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
b. Ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
c. Ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM
710 For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums.
a. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision
b. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision
c. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.
711 (Refer to figure 32, point 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
a. Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL
b. 8,000 feet MSL
c. 2,100 feet AGL.
712 VFR is the same as VMC and IFR is the same as IMC
a. True, they are both the same
b. False, one is the type of flight plan and the other the designation as per Ops. Specs.
c. False, but they are correlated
713 Hypoxia is the result of:
a. The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream
b. The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen
c. All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic
714 A DME arc should be flown within ____ from the center of the arc:
a. 1.0 DME
b. 2.0 DME to either side of the arc
c. 0.0. (No deviations are allowed)
715 If you are flying at 18.000 Ft. and your DME reads 6.0 Nm, you are:
a. 6.0 Nm from the VOR
b. 4.5 Nm from the VOR
c. 3.0 Nm from the VOR
716 TERPs are a US standard used for:
a. All ICAO special charts
b. IFR departure design criteria
c. Non Jeppesen stars
717 When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:
a. Continue flying the DP as published
b. Return for a landing
c. Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included
718 Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:
a. True, except as published on STARs
b. False, every airport is different
c. True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs
719 Departure Procedures must:
a. Be flown if available for that airport
b. Be flown and no change request for another DP is allowed if on an IFR flight plan
c. Be flown if accepted but may be declined or changes made if coordinated with ATC
720 On a Jeppesen or NOA chart what does V344 mean
a. V stands for “very high speed” and 344 is the max. speed allowed in Kts for that direction of flight
b. V stands for VOR (VHF signal) and 344 is the airway allocation
c. V stands or “VictorCollins” who min1935 invented the airways between VOR sand 344 is the airway allocation
721 MEA guarantees adequate terrain clearance and:
a. Navigation signal
b. Both navigation and communications
c. 1.500 ground clearance around mountains
722 When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need
a. Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side
b. Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway
c. Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line
723 1.000 Ft clearance from terrain and 2.000 Ft in mountainous areas is guaranteed on:
a. MVA, MEA and MOCA
b. MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA and MEA
c. Neither,astheradioaltimeterisneveractivated(2.500Ftorless)whentheaircraftfliesinmountainousterrain
724 In order to fly a route where you plan to fly with an IFR approved GPS as the primary means of navigation from airport A direct to airport B, you need
a. A Hi or Lo enroute chart
b. A GPS navigation chart since airways will not be used
c. A WAC VFR chart since GPS is not certified for enroute navigation
725 When departing an airport in class B airspace you should advice ATC upon initial contact once handed off from TWR:
a. Your altitude assigned level/alt, squak code
b. Aircraft ID, present altitude, squak code
c. Aircraft ID, present altitude, limiting altitude assigned and squak code
726 When in radar contact, your aircraft DME equipment becomes unserviceable, you should:
a. Write a maintenance report at your next stop
b. Advice ATC so he/she if required may make alternate arrangements
c. Check the MEL to ensure the equipment is not required for the type of flight you are executing
727 Position reports when required should include:
a. Aircraft ID, position, ETA over next PT and following point
b. Nothing if you were advised to be in radar contact since in this condition ATL always knows where you are
c. Aircraft ID, position, time, altitude, ETA at next point, following compulsory point, remarks if any
728 You are in radar contact and ATC clears you to a lower altitude at pilot’s discretion, you should:
a. Report leaving present altitude
b. Just descend at will since ATC will know your altitude at all times
c. Descend as quickly as possible to relieve ATC of your traffic
729 You gave a position report and you recognize that your ETA at the following point is off, you should
a. Advice ATC if more than 5 % error or 10 miles
b. If off by more than 3 minutes advice ATC of revised time
c. Do nothing as you are on an IFR Flt
730 In a no wind condition you are asked at 12:00 Hrs. to hold at 8.000 Ft. until 12:12 Hrs.
a. You will fly two complete racetrack patterns
b. You will fly three complete racetrack patterns
c. The # of circuits you fly depends on the speed you are holding at.
731 If on a descent clearance you are cleared to hold at a fix, you should
a. Slow down and enter the hold at VMC + 10 Kts
b. Reach the fix at or below the speed for your aircraft type/category
c. Maintainthespeedupsoastoholdatthefastestspeedpossibletobethefirsttoleavethefixandexpedite ATC
732 When is an IFR flight plan required?
a. When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace
b. In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.
c. In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace
733 Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?
a. Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace
b. Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists
c. Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist
734 To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to
a. Entering controlled airspace
b. Entering weather conditions below VFR minimums
c. Takeoff.
735 To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
a. Controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments
b. Entering weather conditions in any airspace
c. Entering controlled airspace
736 When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
a. When operating in the Class E airspace
b. When operating in the Class A airspace.
c. When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet
737 When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before
a. Takeoff.
b. Entering IFR conditions
c. Entering Class E airspace.
738 No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
a. And receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff
b. Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway
c. And receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.
739 During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
a. Then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
b. Then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c. And then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
740 What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing
a. And fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
b. Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c. Fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
741 What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
a. 800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.
b. 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
c. 1,000-footceilingandvisibilitytoallowdescentfromminimumenroutealtitude(MEA),approach,andlanding under basic VFR
742 What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
a. 400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
b. 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
c. 800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
743 When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?
a. Ceiling200feetabovetheapproachminimumsandatleast1statutemilevisibility,butnotlessthantheminimum visibility for the approach
b. 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility
c. Ceiling200feetabovefieldelevationandvisibility1statutemile,butnotlessthantheminimumvisibilityfor the approach
744 What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?
a. The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively
b. The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
c. The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR
745 When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?
a. 600-1 if the airport has an ILS
b. Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum, visibility 2 miles.
c. The landing minimums for the approach to be used.
746 If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the
a. Minimums specified for the approach procedure selected
b. Alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.
c. Minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”
747 When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?
a. Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
b. The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport
c. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.
748 An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will
a. Allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions
b. Be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
c. Allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions
749 Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
a. The established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.
b. An instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors
c. Direct route only.
750 The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
a. The ATIS broadcast.
b. The FSS.
c. Notices to Airmen (Class II).
751 What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
a. The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach
b. The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach
c. The point of first intended landing
752 For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?
a. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively
b. Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively
c. Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
753 For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
a. 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA
b. 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.
c. 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA
754 For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?, TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
a. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
b. No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively
c. Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
755 For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
a. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles
b. From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles
c. From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles
756 What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
a. Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.
b. Advise departure control upon initial contact
c. Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan
757 Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
a. MOCA.
b. MRA.
c. MCA.
758 ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within
a. 22 NM of a VOR.
b. 25 NM of a VOR
c. 30 NM of a VOR
759 For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigation aids used to describe the “route of flight” should be
a. 40 NM apart
b. 70 NM apart
c. 80 NM apart
760 At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?
a. Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last
b. When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.
c. When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.
761 MEA is an altitude which assures
a. Obstacleclearance,accuratenavigationalsignalsfrommorethanoneVORTAC,andaccurateDMEmileage.
b. A 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage
c. Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements
762 To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?
a. 230 knots
b. 265 knots
c. 200 knots
763 What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?
a. 1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility
b. 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
c. 500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility
764 When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?
a. Whenthewingsarelevelandthewinddriftcorrectionangleisestablishedaftercompletingtheturntothe outbound heading.
b. When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first.
c. When abeam the holding fix
765 (Refer to Figures 39 and 40.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?
a. It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.
b. The localizer has an additional navigation function
c. GRICEintersectionalsoservesastheFAFfortheILSapproachproceduretoHarryP.WilliamsMemorial
766 To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum indicated airspeed above 14,000 feet?
a. 220 knots
b. 265 knots.
c. 200 knots.
767 What is the definition of MEA?
a. The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
b. The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage
c. Analtitudewhichmeetsobstacleclearancerequirements,assuresacceptablenavigationsignalcoverage, two-way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.
768 To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?
a. 230 knots.
b. 200 knots
c. 210 knots
769 What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?
a. Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later
b. Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound
c. Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.
770 Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only
a. 12 NM
b. 22 NM.
c. 25 NM
771 Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
a. IFR Planning Chart
b. IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart
c. IFR High Altitude En Route Chart
772 When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made
a. At pilot’s discretion
b. Only in an emergency
c. Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves
773 (Refer to Figure 41.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is
a. 6,400 feet
b. 6,500 feet.
c. 7,000 feet.
774 Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
a. MRA
b. MCA
c. MOCA.
775 Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)
a. Adequate navigation signals
b. Adequate communications
c. 1,000-foot obstacle clearance
776 If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?
a. The MEA at which the fix is approached
b. The MRA at which the fix is approached
c. The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.
777 (Refer to Figure 42.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?
a. 122.1, 126.4
b. 123.6, 122.65.
c. 122.2, 122.3
778 How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?
a. All fixes that are labeled IAF
b. Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix
c. The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.
779 (Refer to Figures 43 and 43A.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?
a. 15 feet
b. 18 feet
c. 22 feet
780 (Refer to Figure 44.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
a. 3,000 feet MSL
b. 1,800 feet MSL.
c. 1,690 feet MSL
781 When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
a. At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach
b. As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
c. At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight
782 Aircraft approach categories are based on
a. Certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.
b. 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight
c. 1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight
783 (Refer to Figure 45.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3,000 feet
a. Proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER
b. Proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart
c. Proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.
784 If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon
a. Arrival at the DH on the glide slope
b. Arrival at the middle marker
c. Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.
785 (Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?
a. It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM
b. It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured
c. ItistheminimumvectoraltitudeforradarvectorsinthesectorsoutheastofPUCbetween020°and290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR
786 (Refer to Figure 43A.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?
a. Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability
b. Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available
c. Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability
787 (Refer to Figures 47 and 48.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 27?
a. A
b. B
c. C
788 Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
a. To all pilots wherever STAR’s are available.
b. Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the “Remarks” section of the flight plan
c. When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “No STAR.”
789 (Refer to Figure 49.) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?
a. 200 feet per minute.
b. 400 feet per minute
c. 600 feet per minute
790 (Refer to Figure 50.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should
a. Land straight in on runway 31.
b. Comply with straight-in landing minimums
c. Begin final approach without making a procedure turn
791 (Refer to Figure 51.) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
b. Gandi outer marker
c. Denver/Stapleton International Airport
792 Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
a. The 1 minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
b. A radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.
c. 10 knots of the specified holding speed
793 Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?
a. Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
b. Use Category B minim ums
c. Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches
794 When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
a. 180 knots IAS
b. 200 knots IAS
c. 250 knots IAS
795 What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
a. Take off minimums are 1 mile for aircraf thavingtwo engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines
b. Instrument takeoffs are not authorized
c. Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
796 When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?
a. On tower frequency
b. On approach control frequency
c. One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency
797 When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
a. Astraight-inlanding may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.
b. The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.
c. Astraight-inlanding may be made if the pilot has the runway insight insufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
798 What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
c. Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
799 (Refer to Figure 43A.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground speed.)
a. 425 feet per minute
b. 530 feet per minute.
c. 635 feet per minute
800 Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?
a. Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.
b. Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure
c. Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF
801 (Refer to Figure 52.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4?
a. 70 feet MSL
b. 54 feet MSL.
c. 46 feet MSL
802 (Refer to Figure 53.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
a. 363 feet MSL
b. 365 feet MSL.
c. 396 feet MSL
803 What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight-in IAP Charts, represent?
a. The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope
b. The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
c. The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.
804 (Refer to Figure 53) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?
a. 415 feet per minute
b. 480 feet per minute
c. 555 feet per minute
805 (Refer to Figure 54.) With a ground speed of 120 knots, approximately what minimum rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO 4 DME fix?
a. 1,200 fpm
b. 500 fpm.
c. 800 fpm.
806 What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
a. You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions
b. You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions
c. You must have the airport insight or a preceding aircraft to be followed ,and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.
807 Assume this clearance is received: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver?
a. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
b. Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix
c. After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.
808 (Refer to Figure 55.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at LABER?
a. 4 DME miles from LABER.
b. 10 DME miles from the MAP
c. 12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.
809 (Refer to Figure 54.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?
a. 5,957 feet.
b. 7,000 feet
c. 7,900 feet.
810 If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
a. As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet
b. As an RVR of 2,400 feet
c. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.
811 (Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?
a. Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF
b. When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.
c. After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.
812 Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
a. Parallel ILS approach runway center lines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway
b. Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course
c. Landing minimums to the adjacent runway willbe higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.
813 The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?
a. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility
b. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system
c. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.
814 If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.
a. Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver
b. Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures
c. Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first
815 (Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to
a. completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.
b. CREAK outbound
c. intercepting the glide slope.
816 (Refer to Figure 57.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet commence?
a. As soon as intercepting LOC inbound
b. Immediately
c. Only at the point authorized by ATC
817 If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
a. Required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure
b. Permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
c. Permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway
