11589742
Questão 1
Questão
What is used for Oxacillin Screens?
Responda
-
MH + oxacillin
-
MH + 4% NaCl + oxacillin
-
MH with Sheep blood + 4% NaCl + oxacillin
-
MH with sheep blood + Oxacillin
Questão 2
Questão
What is used in a vancomycin screen?
Responda
-
BHI + vanc
-
BHI + vanc + 4% NaCl
-
MH + vanc + 4% NaCl
-
MH + vanc
Questão 3
Questão
If the MIC is 0.08ug/mL for a staphylococcus aureus organism, how should we report this?
Responda
-
report as resistant
-
report as susceptible
-
it is not relevant
-
confirm susceptibility with penicillin zone edge test
Questão 4
Questão
Which of these are associated with infection control significant VRE organisms?
Responda
-
vanC gene
-
vanA and VanB gene
-
yellow pigment of colonies
-
motility observed on wet prep
Questão 5
Questão
what should you expect to see on an MRSA select II agar?
Responda
-
magenta colonies
-
no growth
-
blue colonies
-
growth if it is MRSA
-
growth if it is MSSA
Questão 6
Questão
What additional testing should you do if you see growth on MRSA select II agar?
Responda
-
staphaurex
-
tube coagulase
-
PBP2' agglutination
-
oxacillin screen
-
vancomycin screen
-
oxidase
Questão 7
Questão
What are the next steps for growth on a brilliance VRE?
Responda
-
gram stain and catalase
-
gram stain
-
gram stain and oxidase
Questão 8
Questão
what do you expect to see with an VRE organism?
Responda
-
gram positive cocci in chains and pairs
-
catalase negative
-
PYR positive
-
DNase positive
Questão 9
Questão
What are the next steps after PYR is performed on a VRE suspect?
Responda
-
vitek GPI
-
vitek AST
-
vancomycin screen
-
oxacillin screen
-
penicillin screen
Questão 10
Questão
What will grow on a BEAA plate?
Responda
-
staphylococcus species
-
enterobacteriacaea species
-
haemophilus species
-
enterococcus species
Questão 11
Questão
A [blank_start]positive[blank_end] penicillin zone edge test will give a [blank_start]cliff[blank_end] edge.
Responda
-
positive
-
cliff
Questão 12
Questão
Penicillin zone edge test is more sensitive for [blank_start]beta lactamase[blank_end] detection.
Responda
-
beta lactamase
Questão 13
Questão
A negative penicillin zone edge test will have a beach edge.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 14
Questão
when do we call ICP (infection control practitioner)?
Responda
-
isolated a super bug i.e. MRSA
-
isolated GC
-
isolated S.pneumoniae
Questão 15
Questão
Methicillin [blank_start]resistant[blank_end] Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) isolated. Please follow [blank_start]infection control[blank_end] procedures. Further report to follow.
Responda
-
resistant
-
infection control
Questão 16
Questão
How do we differentiate between a class A ESBL and a class C ESBL?
Responda
-
Phenotypic confirmatory testing
-
PYR
-
Staphaurex
-
Bile Esculin hydrolysis
Questão 17
Questão
Class A ESBL organisms are inhibited by?
Responda
-
beta-lactamase inhibitors
-
clavulanic acid
-
penicillins
-
clindamycin
Questão 18
Questão
What classifies a class A ESBL?
Responda
-
potentiation when combined with clavulanic acid
-
susceptible to cefoxitin
-
resistance to cefoxitin
-
zone of >15mm on cefoxitin
Questão 19
Questão
class C ESBLs are resistant to 3rd generation cephalosporins, clavulanic acid and cephamycins such as cefoxitin.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 20
Questão
SPICE group are intrinsically resistant to ampicillin, cephalosporins and cefoxitin.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 21
Questão
What antibiotics are used in PCT?
Responda
-
cefotaxime
-
cefotaxime + clavulanic acid
-
ceftazidime
-
ceftazidime + clavulanic acid
-
cefoxitin
-
vancomycin + clavulanic acid
-
ampicillin + clavulanic acid
-
ampicillin
-
vancomycin
Questão 22
Questão
Escherichia coli class [blank_start]A[blank_end] ESBL. Please follow [blank_start]infection control[blank_end] procedures.
Responda
-
infection control
-
A
Questão 23
Questão
SPICE organisms are;
Responda
-
Serratia spp.
-
pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
indole positive proteus (morganella and providencia spp.)
-
citrobacter spp.
-
enterobacter spp.
Questão 24
Questão
Which antibiotics are reported as resistant with a class A ESBL?
Responda
-
all beta-lactam drugs
-
carbapenems
-
cephamycin
-
beta-lactam inhibitor combinations
Questão 25
Questão
Which antibiotics are not reported as resistant for a class A ESBL?
Responda
-
carbapenems
-
cephamycins
-
penicillin
-
oxacillin
Questão 26
Questão
Bacterial meningitis in neonates can be caused by
Responda
-
Group B streptococcus
-
E.coli
-
Listeria monocytogenes
-
Neisseria meningitidis
Questão 27
Questão
Bacterial meningitis in infants 6 months to 5 years old can be caused by?
Responda
-
Haemophilus influenza type b
-
Neisseria meningitidis
-
Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
E.coli
Questão 28
Questão
Bacterial meningitis in older children and adults can be caused by?
Responda
-
Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
Neisseria meningitidis
-
Listeria monocytogenes
-
Group B Streptococcus
Questão 29
Questão
What is normal skin flora?
Responda
-
Bacillus spp
-
Corynebacterium spp. diphtheroids, urea negative
-
coagulase negative Staphylococcus species except for S. lugdunensis
-
Proprionibacterium spp
-
Alpha hemolytic streptococcus
-
Nonpathogenic Neisseria spp
-
Bacteroides spp
-
Enterobacteriaceae spp
Questão 30
Questão
For an aerotolerance test, what disks do you use for a GPC?
Responda
-
bile
-
SPS
Questão 31
Questão
For an aerotolerance test, what disks would you use for a GNB?
Responda
-
bile
-
SPS
Questão 32
Questão
You must report AST for superficial ear and eye isolates.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 33
Questão
When do you use a NYC plate?
Responda
-
When GC is requested by doctor
-
When GC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1
-
When the patient is under 2 weeks old
-
When GPDC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1
Questão 34
Questão
Bodily fluids such as CSF or tympanocentesis fluid will contain some normal flora.
Responda
- True
- False
Questão 35
Questão
What organism is this? oxidase+, nitrate reduced to nitrite, GNDC, strict aerobic, on BA-sm, grey, NH, dry
Responda
-
Moraxella catarrhalis
-
Neisseria meningitis
-
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Questão 36
Questão
What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase-, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need V factor
Responda
-
Haemophilus parainfluenza
-
Haemophilus influenzae
Questão 37
Questão
What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase+, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need X and V factor
Responda
-
Haemophilus influenzae
-
Haemophilus parainfluenzae
Questão 38
Questão
What organism is this? strict anaerobe, large GPB, double zone hemolysis, reverse camp+, catalase-
Responda
-
Clostridium perfringens
-
Clostridium spp
-
Bacillus spp
Questão 39
Questão
what organism is this? large GPB, large tan colonies, BH, motile at RT and 35 degrees
Responda
-
Bacillus spp
-
Clostridium perfringens
-
corynebacterium spp
Questão 40
Questão
What organism is this? sm GNB, on BA-med grey NH, catalase+, strict anaerobe
Responda
-
Bacteriodes spp
-
Enterobacteriacaea spp
-
Listeria monocytogenes
Questão 41
Questão
What organism is this? facultative, sm GPB, urea negative, on BA-sm white NH
Responda
-
Corynebacterium diphtheroid
-
Corynebacterium ulcerans
-
Listeria monocytogenes
Questão 42
Questão
What causes the Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease?
Responda
-
Enterovirus
-
Hentavirus
-
Parvovirus
-
Rubivirus
Questão 43
Questão
What is the role of micro RNA?
Responda
-
keeps latent virus-infected cells alive
-
it is a part of prions
-
RNA codes for micro proteins
Questão 44
Questão
A 55-year old make just returned from a trip from Saudi Arabia. He was rushed to the ER with symptoms of acute respiratory illness. His condition rapidly progressed to pneumonitis and multi-organ failure. This patient has:
Responda
-
Tularemia
-
Cat Scratch disease
-
Rat bite fever
-
MERS
-
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Questão 45
Questão
What animals have been found to be carriers of MERS?
Responda
-
Bat
-
Rabbit
-
Camel
-
All of the above
-
Camel and Bats
Questão 46
Questão
Which of these viruses causes MERS?
Responda
-
Hantavirus
-
Coronavirus
-
Lentivirus
-
Enterovirus
Questão 47
Questão
What is the gold standard for laboratory diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Responda
-
Culture
-
Clinical presentation
-
Immunofluorescence
-
PCR
Questão 48
Questão
A 22-year old female was hiking in the Rocky Mountains. A few days later she had a headache, fever and flat pink macules on her trunk and ankles. The lab found Rickettsii rickettsia. What is the vector of this infection?
Responda
-
Mosquito
-
Tick
-
Black fly
-
Rat
Questão 49
Questão
What is the Gram stain and motility of the Rickettsii rickettsia infection?
Responda
-
GPB, motile
-
GPB, non-motile
-
GNB, motile
-
GNB, non-motile
Questão 50
Questão
What is the atmospheric preference of Brucella?
Responda
-
facultative anaerobe
-
strict anaerobe
-
strict aerobe
-
capnophile
-
strict aerobe and capnophile
Questão 51
Questão
Which of the following is NOT ta type of Brucella species?
Responda
-
Brucella suis
-
Brucella canis
-
Brucella abortus
-
Brucella melitensis
-
Brucella tigris
Questão 52
Questão
What clinical manifestation of Brucellosis?
Responda
-
arthritis
-
valve endocarditis
-
malta fever
-
Bieber fever
-
arthritis and malta fever
Questão 53
Questão
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for leptospirosis?
Responda
-
microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
-
MALDI
-
Latex agglutination
-
PCR
Questão 54
Questão
What does leptospirosis look like under dark-field microscopy?
Responda
-
tumbling motility
-
long bacilli
-
question mark/interrogation points
-
branching bacilli
Questão 55
Questão
A patient presents with meningoencephalitis with multi system involvement (jaundice, kidney failure). Chemistry results reveal elevated kidney and liver enzymes. Culturing the organism proved to be difficult. What bacterial disease is suspected?
Responda
-
Brucellosis
-
Leptospirosis
-
MERS
-
Plague
Questão 56
Questão
Which organism causes the plague?
Responda
-
Francisella tularensis
-
Leptospira interrogans
-
Yersinia pestis
-
Bartonella henselae
Questão 57
Questão
What is the main reservoir for the organism responsible for the plague?
Responda
-
birds
-
deer ticks
-
fleas of rats
-
cats
Questão 58
Questão
Which of the following correctly describes the Gram stain of the organism responsible for the plague?
Responda
-
GNB with 'safety pin' appearance
-
GPC pairs
-
Filamentous GPB
-
large GPB with subterminal spores
Questão 59
Questão
What organism causes Rat Bite Fever?
Responda
-
Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
-
Streptobacillus moniliformis
-
Pasteurella multocida
Questão 60
Questão
What is the virulence factor of Streptobacillus moniliformis?
Responda
-
inhibits phagocytosis
-
convert to D form allowing it to survive in the host
-
convert to L form allowing it to survive in the host
-
secretes pyogenic toxin
-
none of the above
Questão 61
Questão
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Streptocbacillus moniformis?
Responda
-
molar tooth
-
fried egg
-
dry, hockey puck
-
medusa head
-
no distinct characteristic
Questão 62
Questão
Laboratory diagnosis of hantavirus includes the following techniques except?
Responda
-
IgM antibody detection
-
PCR
-
Viral culture
-
Rising IgG antibody titre
-
Immunohistochemistry
Questão 63
Questão
Which zoonotic microorganism is associated with potentially fatal pulmonary symptoms which have been described as a sensation of ‘tight band around chest’ or ‘pillow over the face’?
Responda
-
Zika virus
-
Francisella tularensis
-
Bartonella henselae
-
Hantavirus
Questão 64
Questão
What is the primary strategy for preventing hantavirus infection?
Responda
-
Usage of insect repellent
-
Avoidance of contact with feral cats
-
Improved water quality and sanitation
-
Avoidance of pigeon droppings
-
Rodent control in and around the home
Questão 65
Questão
Which of the following causes microcephaly in infants?
Responda
-
Zika Virus
-
Cytomegalovirus
-
Rubella
-
All of the above
-
None of the above
Questão 66
Questão
Which of the following is not a mode of transmission for Zika virus?
Responda
-
Mosquito bite
-
Airborne
-
Sexual contact
-
Infected mother to child
-
Blood transfusion
Questão 67
Questão
What condition can be associated with Zika virus?
Responda
-
Malaria
-
West Nile Fever
-
Yellow Fever
-
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
-
Chikungunya
Questão 68
Questão
Bartonella henselae is the specific cause of:
Responda
-
Rat bite fever
-
Beaver fever
-
Cat Scratch Disease
-
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
-
Zika
Questão 69
Questão
A patient presents lack of appetite, wounds with lesions and has a history of working at an animal shelter. Biopsy of the lesion shows GNB but no growth or cultures was seen after 24 hours. What is the best reason for this?
Responda
-
Organism is an anaerobe
-
Organism is a slow grower
-
Organism requires special media
-
Organism is a capnophile
Questão 70
Questão
What is not a symptom of Cat Scratch Disease?
Responda
-
Papule or Pustule at bite on scratch site
-
Lymphadenpathy
-
Anorexia for 1-3 weeks
-
Tissue necrosis at wound area
Questão 71
Questão
Which form of oropharyngeal tularemia causes photophobia?
Responda
-
Pneumonic form
-
Oculoglandular form
-
Systemic typhoidal form
-
Exudative form
Questão 72
Questão
A patient at a clinic showed fevers, chills and headache. A swab of the lesions was sent for culture and sensitivity. After questioning, it was determined the patient was an avid rabbit hunter. The Gram showed GNB organism intracellularly in reticuloendothelial cells. It grew only aerobically and grew on special media containing iron and cysteine. What probable disease could have caused the infection?
Responda
-
Cat Scratch Disease
-
Tularemia
-
Zika virus
-
Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
Questão 73
Questão
What organism causes Tularemia?
Responda
-
Neisseria species
-
Legionella
-
Francisella
-
Salmonella
Questão 74
Questão
Scabies
Responda
-
itching
-
rash
-
Sarcoptes scabiei
Questão 75
Questão
Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
Responda
-
self limiting
-
sandfly
Questão 76
Questão
Herpes
Responda
-
latent, lifelong infection
-
neuronal ganglia
-
Type 1 - cold sores
-
Type 2 - sexually transmitted infections
Questão 77
Questão
Varicella zoster
Responda
-
chicken pox
-
shingles
-
highly contagious, rash, red spots
Questão 78
Questão
Fifth Disease
Responda
-
Parvovirus B19
-
slapped cheek
Questão 79
Questão
Actinomyces
Responda
-
sulphur granules
-
anaerobe
-
acid fast negative
-
chronic, granulomatous infectious disease
Questão 80
Questão
Nocardia
Responda
-
ubiquitous in nature
-
aerobic
-
acid fast negative
-
GPB, branching
-
modified acid fast positive
-
BA- white, chalky, dry, smooth
Questão 81
Questão
Madura Foot
Responda
-
Nocardia and S.aureus
-
Madurella mycetomi, Actinomadura, others
-
outdoor labourers
-
no person to person transmission
-
All of them
Questão 82
Questão
Tinea versicolor
Responda
-
Malassezia furfur
-
superficial skin infection
-
lipid loving fungus
-
spaghetti and meatballs under the microscope
-
All of the above
Questão 83
Questão
Bacillus anthracis
Responda
-
dormant spore form can survive for long periods of time and in harsh conditions
-
highly lethal
-
transmitted by inhalation, ingesting and contact with skin lesions
-
glutamic acid capsule - evades phagocytosis
-
lethal factor + edema factor + protective factor = becomes active
-
eschar - black ulcerative skin lesion
-
GPB with subterminal spores, aerobic, non-motile, NH, Cat+
Questão 84
Questão
Mycobacteria
Responda
-
thin bacilli, non-motile, aerobe
-
N-glucolymuramic acid and mycolic acids in cell wall
-
acid fast positive
-
All of the above
Questão 85
Questão
Mycobacterium leprae
Responda
-
mainly affects skin and nerves
-
claw hand and drop foot
-
Tuberculoid and Lepromatous form
-
not highly contagious
-
all of the above
Questão 86
Questão
what is rhabdomyolysis?
Responda
-
breakdown of skeletal muscle
-
overproduction of collagen
-
inflammation or swelling of muscles
Questão 87
Questão
how are diabetic patients affected in muscle disorders?
Responda
-
vascular insufficiency
-
poor blood supply
-
antibiotic ineffectiveness
-
insulin deficiency
-
increased in glucose makes them more prone
Questão 88
Questão
Osteomyelitis:
Responda
-
pyogenic organisms
-
occurs rapidly in children
-
occurs rapidly in adults
-
S.aureus is the most common cause
-
in children under 2, spreads into the diaphysis
Questão 89
Questão
Capnocytophaga canimorsus:
Responda
-
GNB
-
zoonotic
-
treat with cephalosporins
-
common in asplenic patients
-
all except for 'treat with cephalosporin'
Questão 90
Questão
Pasteurella multocida:
Responda
-
dog bites
-
can cause osteomyelitis or endocarditis
-
GPB
-
spot indole +
Questão 91
Questão
septic arthritis:
Responda
-
inflammation of synovial membrane
-
damage to cartilage
-
examining the joint fluid is diagnostic
-
this is not real
-
mild and preventable
Questão 92
Questão
what can cause septic arthritis?
Responda
-
S.aureus
-
Peptostreptococcus
-
Brucella
-
Mycobacteria
Questão 93
Questão
Reactive arthritis:
Responda
-
non-infectious inflammatory joint disease
-
Neisseria meningitidis
-
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
-
GAS
-
GBS
Questão 94
Questão
what do we make note of when inspecting synovial fluid?
Responda
-
volume
-
color
-
odor
-
turbidity
-
protein content
-
glucose content
-
WBC
Questão 95
Questão
Osteoarthritis:
Responda
-
the most common form of arthritis
-
thinning of cartilage
-
synovial hypertrophy
-
in both male and females
-
all of the options
Questão 96
Questão
Artificial arthritis:
Responda
-
biofilm formation
-
difficult to treat
-
normal skin flora is agent
-
cannot treat, will result in amputation
Questão 97
Questão
what can cause bacterial conjunctivitis?
Responda
-
Neisseria spp
-
S. pneumoniae
-
S. aureus
-
Candida spp
-
anaerobes
Questão 98
Questão
cause of viral conjunctivitis?
Responda
-
herpes simplex type 1 and 2
-
adenovirus
-
HIV
-
hentavirus
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