Questão 1
Questão
62.1.5.0 (4705)
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
Responda
-
108.25 MHz
-
109.15 MHz
-
110.20 MHz
-
112.10 MHz
Questão 2
Questão
62.1.5.0 (4706)
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at
a groundspeed of 90 kt?
Responda
-
400 FT/MIN
-
450 FT/MIN
-
600 FT/MIN
-
700 FT/MIN
Questão 3
Questão
62.2.1.0 (4719)
The maximum range of primary radar depends on :
Questão 4
Questão
62.2.1.0 (4721)
The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary
radar is the:
Questão 5
Questão
62.2.1.0 (4725)
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by
the:
Questão 6
Questão
62.2.2.0 (4737)
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is
approximately:
Responda
-
100 NM
-
200 NM
-
300 NM
-
400 NM
Questão 7
Questão
62.2.1.0 (4725)
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by
the:
Questão 8
Questão
62.2.3.0 (4742)
Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather
radar when using the 'weather beam'?
Responda
-
cumulus
-
cirrocumulus
-
stratus
-
altostratus
Questão 9
Questão
62.2.3.0 (4743)
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant
radiation pattern.
Responda
-
WEATHER
-
MAPPING
-
CONTOUR
-
MANUAL
Questão 10
Questão
62.2.3.0 (4751)
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the
scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:
Responda
-
increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
-
increase in area and move to the top of the screen
-
decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
-
decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
Questão 11
Questão
62.2.3.0 (4754)
In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR)
is at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a
beam width of 5°)
Responda
-
0°
-
2.5° up
-
2.5° down
-
5° up
Questão 12
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4761)
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
Responda
-
The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
-
The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
-
The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
-
A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
Questão 13
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4762)
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
code:
Questão 14
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4763)
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight,
the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
Questão 15
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4766)
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
Responda
-
collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
-
continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and
collision avoidance using TCAS II
-
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic
separation between aircraft using TCAS II
-
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC
aircraft surveillance capability
Questão 16
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4770)
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to
indicate transponder malfunction?
Questão 17
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4774)
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance
Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
Questão 18
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4779)
The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
Questão 19
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4761)
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
Responda
-
The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
-
A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
-
The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
-
The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources
Questão 20
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4762)
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
code:
Questão 21
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4763)
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight,
the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
Questão 22
Questão
62.2.4.0 (4766)
The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
Responda
-
collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
-
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC
aircraft surveillance capability
-
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic
separation between aircraft using TCAS IIP
-
continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and
collision avoidance using TCAS II
Questão 23
Questão
62.5.1.0 (4786)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic
Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:
Questão 24
Questão
62.5.1.0 (4788)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
armed modes are coloured:
Responda
-
green
-
magenta
-
white
-
amber/yellow
Questão 25
Questão
62.5.1.0 (4789)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
selected data and values are coloured:
Responda
-
white
-
green
-
yellow
-
magenta
Questão 26
Questão
62.5.1.0 (4791)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
the active route/flight plan is coloured:
Responda
-
yellow
-
green
-
magenta
-
cyan
Questão 27
Questão
62.5.2.0 (4805)
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation
Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
Responda
-
corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
-
represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the
desired track, wind influence is compensated for
-
indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown
-
indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
Questão 28
Questão
62.5.2.0 (4809)
The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way
that the pilot can:
Responda
-
can modify the database every 28 days
-
insert navigation data between two updates
-
read and write at any time in database
-
only read the database
Questão 29
Questão
62.5.4.0 (4819)
Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area
Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
Responda
-
VOR/DME
-
DME/DME
-
NDB/VOR
-
VOR/VOR
Questão 30
Questão
62.6.1.0 (4835)
An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the
transmitter velocity will occur when:
Responda
-
the receiver moves towards the transmitter
-
the transmitter moves towards the receiver
-
the transmitter moves away from the receiver
-
both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
Questão 31
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4843)
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained
by:
Responda
-
timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to
reach and return from a satellite in a known position
-
timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the
aircraft's receiver
-
the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a
known position
-
the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a
minimum number of satellites
Questão 32
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4844)
In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS)
provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
Questão 33
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4847)
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional
operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any
faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The
number of satellites is:
Questão 34
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4848)
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation
without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The
number of satellites is:
Questão 35
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4849)
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of
the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
Responda
-
Satellite to ground time lag, atmospheric propagation, satellite clock
-
Satellite clock, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation
-
Satellite mutual interference, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation
-
Satellite mutual interference, frequency drift, satellite to ground time lag
Questão 36
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4853)
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
Responda
-
Latitude and longitude
-
Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
-
Latitude, longitude and time
-
Latitude, longitude and altitude
Questão 37
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4854)
Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the
most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
Questão 38
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4855)
The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
Responda
-
3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
-
4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
-
6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
-
6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a
geostationary orbital plane
Questão 39
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4857)
How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC)
of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
Questão 40
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4864)
The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
Questão 41
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4876)
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken
to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
Responda
-
12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
-
12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
-
24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
-
25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
Questão 42
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4885)
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an
accurate independent 3-D position fix?
Questão 43
Questão
62.6.5.0 (4901)
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
Questão 44
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4903)
Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently
long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft,
dry runway) within:
Responda
-
50% of the landing distance available.
-
60% of the landing distance available.
-
70% of the landing distance available.
-
80% of the landing distance available.
Questão 45
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4907)
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be
operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers
during at least :
Responda
-
15 minutes.
-
30 minutes.
-
60 minutes.
-
2 hours.
Questão 46
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4908)
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from
the shore by more than :
Responda
-
50 NM
-
100 NM
-
200 NM
-
400 NM
Questão 47
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4911)
The term decision height (DH) is used for :
Questão 48
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4913)
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance
that : (Annex 6, Part I)
Responda
-
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.
-
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with
only one engine operative.
-
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
-
Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
engine operative.
Questão 49
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4915)
When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking
the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)
Responda
-
The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
-
Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified
personnel on board.
-
All the flight crew be on board."s
-
Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
Questão 50
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4920)
The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a
coverage angle of :
Questão 51
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4921)
Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least
the last :
Responda
-
25 hours of operation.
-
flight.
-
30 hours of operation.
-
48 hours of operation
Questão 52
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4922)
For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the
conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :
Responda
-
flight.
-
25 hours of operation.
-
30 minutes of operation.
-
48 hours of operation.
Questão 53
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4923)
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed
with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is
greater than :
Responda
-
10 000 ft
-
11 000 ft
-
12 000 ft
-
13 000 ft
Questão 54
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4924)
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with
oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the
pressure altitude is between :
Responda
-
10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
-
10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
-
11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
-
11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
Questão 55
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4926)
For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board
any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :
Responda
-
10 000 ft
-
25 000 ft
-
13 000 ft
-
29 000 ft
Questão 56
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4928)
The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight
and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :
Questão 57
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4930)
The JAR-OPS is based on :
Questão 58
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4931)
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming
from the front right right, will first see the :
Responda
-
red steady light
-
green steady light
-
white steady light
-
green flashing light
Questão 59
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4932)
The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight
and located at the tip of the left wing is :
Questão 60
Questão
71.1.1.0 (4933)
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the
scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of :
Questão 61
Questão
71.1.2.0 (4936)
The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
Responda
-
the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.
-
the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport
aircraft.
-
the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.
-
the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft
Questão 62
Questão
71.1.2.4 (4953)
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
Responda
-
1500 m
-
1600 m
-
2400 m
-
3600 m
Questão 63
Questão
71.1.2.4 (4958)
When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories
according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal
to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing
weight multiplied by a factor of:
Questão 64
Questão
71.1.2.4 (4963)
In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision
instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but
no less than :
Questão 65
Questão
71.1.2.4 (4967)
For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be
used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
Responda
-
60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
-
30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
-
30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
-
60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable
Questão 66
Questão
71.1.2.4 (4971)
In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is
established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account
of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of
Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is
equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by
1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :
Questão 67
Questão
71.1.3.1 (4983)
On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily
have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
Responda
-
45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
-
30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
-
30 minutes at cruising speed
-
45 minutes at cruising speed
Questão 68
Questão
71.1.3.1 (4984)
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must
mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying
during :
Responda
-
2 hours with normal cruising consumption
-
2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
-
30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
-
30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
Questão 69
Questão
71.1.3.1 (4985)
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on
take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent
distance not exceeding :
Responda
-
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
-
1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
-
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
-
2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
Questão 70
Questão
71.1.3.1 (4988)
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can
be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the
regulations are effective for at least :
Responda
-
1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
-
2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
-
3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
-
3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
Questão 71
Questão
71.1.3.2 (5009)
During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in
degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :
Questão 72
Questão
71.1.3.2 (5010)
Astronomic precession is :
Responda
-
ndependent of the latitude
-
depending on the chart used
-
existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
-
zero when the aircraft is on the ground
Questão 73
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5017)
MNPS is the abbreviation for:
Responda
-
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
-
Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.
-
Military Network Performance Structure.
-
Minimum Navigation Positioning System
Questão 74
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5018)
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
Responda
-
Mach number.
-
true airspeed.
-
ground speed.
-
indicated airspeed.
Questão 75
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5020)
In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should
first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial
navigation system:
Responda
-
notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
-
request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.
-
set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
-
immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.
Questão 76
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5022)
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight
normally is :
Responda
-
10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
-
01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
-
11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
-
00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
Questão 77
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5023)
The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight
normally is :
Responda
-
11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
-
10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
-
01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
-
00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
Questão 78
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5026)
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without
restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least :
Responda
-
Two inertial navigation units.
-
Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.
-
Three inertial navigation units.
-
One inertial navigation unit.
Questão 79
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5027)
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the
same Mach number is :
Responda
-
5 minutes.
-
10 minutes.
-
15 minutes.
-
20 minutes.
Questão 80
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5028)
The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS
airspace is :
Responda
-
30 NM.
-
60 NM.
-
90 NM.
-
120 NM.
Questão 81
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5029)
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at
higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least :
Responda
-
5 minutes
-
10 minutes
-
15 minutes
-
20 minutes
Questão 82
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5031)
The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from
:
Responda
-
27° North to 90° North.
-
27° North to 70° North.
-
30° North to 90° North.
-
30° North to 70° North.
Questão 83
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5043)
Which errors in ""estimates"" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the
North Atlantic?
Responda
-
2 or more.
-
3 or more.
-
5 or more.
-
10 or more.
Questão 84
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5044)
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
Responda
-
60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
-
60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
-
90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
-
90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
Questão 85
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5045)
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM)
is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
Responda
-
60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
-
60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
-
90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
-
90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
Questão 86
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5050)
The abbreviation MNPS means :
Responda
-
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
-
Main Navigation Performance Specification
-
Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
-
Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
Questão 87
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5051)
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North
Atlantic is comprised within :
Responda
-
flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole
-
sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole
-
flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
-
flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole
Questão 88
Questão
71.1.3.3 (5056)
In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be
applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :
Responda
-
500 ft
-
1 000 ft
-
1 500 ft
-
2000ft
Questão 89
Questão
71.2.1.0 (5065)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the
holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is:
Questão 90
Questão
71.2.1.0 (5066)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
Questão 91
Questão
71.2.1.0 (5068)
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
Responda
-
the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
-
the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
-
the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
-
the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufactureri
Questão 92
Questão
71.2.1.0 (5069)
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative
when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed
accordingly. This list is prepared by:
Responda
-
the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
-
the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
-
the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
-
the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
Questão 93
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5072)
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:
Questão 94
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5073)
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check
that:
Responda
-
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.
-
external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane
performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight
manual.
-
external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
-
possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
Questão 95
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5074)
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:
Questão 96
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5075)
The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is :
Questão 97
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5076)
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will
cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution
of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the
stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all
the correct statements is :
Responda
-
1, 2, 3
-
1, 3, 5
-
2, 3, 5
-
2, 4, 5
Questão 98
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5080)
For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of
the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be
shortest ?
Responda
-
Freezing rain
-
Steady snow
-
Freezing fog
-
Frost
Questão 99
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5081)
During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time
starts:
Responda
-
at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
-
at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
-
at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
-
a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
Questão 100
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5085)
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free
at the latest when :
Responda
-
it is rotating (before taking-off).
-
it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
-
releasing the brakes in order to take-off.
-
leaving the icing zone.
Questão 101
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5086)
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the
protection time of the anti-icing fluid:
Responda
-
must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
-
need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
-
must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid
for take-off.
-
must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.
Questão 102
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5088)
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the
protection time:
Responda
-
when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.
-
during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.
-
when the airplane is into the wind.
-
when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.
Questão 103
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5089)
Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:
Responda
-
separate on each side of the runway.
-
stagnate on the runway.
-
separate to the right side.
-
separate to the left side.
Questão 104
Questão
71.2.2.0 (5091)
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary
considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions.
For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather
conditions of :
Questão 105
Questão
71.2.4.0 (5102)
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:
Responda
-
They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
-
Such procedures do not exist.
-
Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .
-
They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
Questão 106
Questão
71.2.3.0 (5093)
The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground,
ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt,
show that birds fly away :
Responda
-
about ten seconds beforehand
-
about two seconds beforehand
-
as soon as they hear the engines noise
-
from the beginning of the takeoff roll
Questão 107
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5113)
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes
are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
Questão 108
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5115)
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :
Responda
-
Begin an emergency descent.
-
Put on the mask and goggles.
-
Cut off all air conditioning units.
-
Determine which system is causing the smoke.
Questão 109
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5116)
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
Questão 110
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5117)
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
Responda
-
1, 2, 3
-
1, 2, 3, 4
-
2, 3
-
1, 4
Questão 111
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5118)
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :
Responda
-
Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.
-
Water may only be used for minor fires.
-
A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.
-
Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
Questão 112
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5119)
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is
generally the :
Questão 113
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5126)
You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 -
liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Responda
-
1,2,3
-
2,3,4
-
1,2,3,4
-
1,2,4
Questão 114
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5128)
After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:
Responda
-
apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.
-
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards.
-
release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.
-
apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.
Questão 115
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5130)
In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :
Responda
-
carry out a damp cranking.
-
carry out a dry cranking.
-
pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.
-
fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
Questão 116
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5135)
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23
- dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
Responda
-
2002-03-04
-
1 - 2 - 3 - 4
-
2
-
04-Mar2
Questão 117
Questão
71.2.5.0 (5138)
A class A fire is a fire of:
Responda
-
liquid or liquefiable solid
-
solid material, generally of organic nature
-
electrical origin
-
metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
Questão 118
Questão
71.2.6.0 (5143)
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :
Questão 119
Questão
71.2.6.0 (5146)
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at
which flying efficiency is not impaired is :
Responda
-
8000 ft
-
2500 ft
-
14000 ft
-
25000 ft
Questão 120
Questão
71.2.6.0 (5147)
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand
system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen
when the supply selector is at the ""normal"" position. At what approximate
altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
Responda
-
25000 ft
-
14000 ft
-
32000 ft
-
8000 ft
Questão 121
Questão
71.2.6.0 (5148)
The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised
aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall
be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a
minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :
Responda
-
14000 ft
-
15000 ft
-
13000 ft
-
25000 ft
Questão 122
Questão
71.2.7.0 (5153)
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:1. set the maximum
take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick
shaker3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. keep the airplane's current
configuration5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratioThe combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:
Responda
-
1, 2, 4
-
1, 3, 5
-
2, 3
-
3, 5
Questão 123
Questão
71.2.7.0 (5159)
In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind
which forces you to go around. You1- maintain the same aircraft configuration
(gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the
attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude changeThe
combination of correct statements is :
Questão 124
Questão
71.2.7.0 (5167)
In the ""worst case"" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having
increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be
necessary to :
Responda
-
climb away at Vat + 20 kt
-
increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below
this angle
-
reduce speed to V2 and hold
-
slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
Questão 125
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5170)
In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:
Responda
-
The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
-
The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
-
The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
-
The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence
Questão 126
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5172)
The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :
Responda
-
Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
-
Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
-
Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
-
Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
Questão 127
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5173)
To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
manoeuver :
Responda
-
Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
-
Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
-
Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
-
Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
Questão 128
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5174)
The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a
clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct
statement is:
Responda
-
1, 4
-
1, 2, 3
-
1, 2, 3, 4
-
2, 3, 4
Questão 129
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5175)
The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
Responda
-
high weight and high speed
-
high weight and low speed
-
low weight and low speed
-
low weight and high speed
Questão 130
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5176)
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An
aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation
or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing
gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Questão 131
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5177)
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the
following is established :
Responda
-
lift
-
drag
-
spin up
-
lift destruction
Questão 132
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5178)
Wake turbulence risk is highest :
Responda
-
following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
-
if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy
crosswind.
-
when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel
runway with a light crosswind.
-
when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.
Questão 133
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5182)
The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body
aircraft during take-off is about:
Responda
-
1 minute.
-
3 minutes.
-
30 seconds.
-
10 minutes.
Questão 134
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5183)
The wake turbulence:
Responda
-
starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the
ground.
-
starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it
crosses this height before landing.
-
starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to
a stop at landing.
-
starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.
Questão 135
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5184)
An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :
Questão 136
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5185)
The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :
Questão 137
Questão
71.2.8.0 (5198)
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be
based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the
maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :
Questão 138
Questão
71.2.9.0 (5199)
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful
interference (hijacked) is :
Questão 139
Questão
71.2.9.0 (5202)
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the
commander should submit a report of the act to :
Responda
-
the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the
unlawful interference
-
both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
-
the Autority of the State of the operator only
-
the local authority only
Questão 140
Questão
71.2.9.0 (5204)
What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which
is being subjected to unlawful interference :
Responda
-
code 7500
-
code 7600
-
code 7700
-
code 2000
Questão 141
Questão
71.2.10.0 (5211)
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in
case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,2.
head resting against the back of the front seat,3. forearms on the armrests,4. seat
belt very tightly fastened,5. head resting on the forearms.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:
Responda
-
2, 3, 4
-
1, 4, 5
-
1, 2, 3, 4
-
2, 4, 5
Questão 142
Questão
71.2.11.0 (5218)
In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning
sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :
Responda
-
15 minutes
-
30 minutes
-
60 minutes
-
90 minutes
Questão 143
Questão
71.2.12.0 (5227)
ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document
dealing with :
Responda
-
the air transport of live animals
-
the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
-
the noise pollution of aircraft
-
the technical operational use of aircraft
Questão 144
Questão
71.2.12.0 (5228)
In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the
regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the :
Responda
-
sender.
-
captain.
-
station manager.
-
aerodrome manager.
Questão 145
Questão
71.2.12.0 (5232)
From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid
kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous
Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's
for operating reasons :
Responda
-
1,2 and 3 only
-
1,2 and 5 only
-
3,4 and 5 only
-
2,3 and 4 only
Questão 146
Questão
71.2.12.0 (5235)
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
Responda
-
national aviation administration permission has been granted
-
government permission has been granted
-
the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
-
no passenger is carried on the same flight
Questão 147
Questão
71.2.13.0 (5237)
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :
Responda
-
aircraft's weight.
-
depth of the standing water on the runway.
-
strength of the headwind.
-
amount of the lift off speed.
Questão 148
Questão
71.2.13.0 (5238)
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for
landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be
increased by:
Questão 149
Questão
71.2.13.0 (5240)
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of
water and:
Responda
-
is very smooth and clean.
-
is very smooth and dirty.
-
is rough textured.
-
the tyre treads are not in a good state
Questão 150
Questão
71.2.13.0 (5242)
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
Responda
-
wet.
-
flooded.
-
contaminated.
-
damp.
Questão 151
Questão
71.2.13.0 (5243)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity
of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of
water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does
not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to
make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears
stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
Questão 152
Questão
71.2.13.0 (5245)
The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a :
Responda
-
percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.
-
combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.
-
zero followed by two decimals.
-
letter falling between A and E
Questão 153
Questão
71.2.13.0 (5252)
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre
pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :
Responda
-
80 kt
-
100 kt
-
114 kt
-
129 kt
Questão 154
Questão
81.1.1.1 (5262)
Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F),
acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
Responda
-
F=m. a
-
m=F.a
-
a=F. m
-
F=m / a
Questão 155
Questão
81.1.1.1 (5265)
Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?
Responda
-
The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.
-
The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.
-
The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
-
The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
Questão 156
Questão
81.1.1.1 (5267)
Bernoulli's equation can be written as:(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and
q=dynamic pressure)
Responda
-
pt = ps - q
-
pt = ps + q
-
pt = q - ps
-
pt = ps / q
Questão 157
Questão
81.1.1.1 (5270)
The total pressure is:
Responda
-
static pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
-
½ rho V²
-
static pressure minus the dynamic pressure.
-
can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.
Questão 158
Questão
81.1.1.1 (5273)
The difference between IAS and TAS will:
Responda
-
increase at increasing air density.
-
decrease at decreasing altitude.
-
increase at decreasing temperature.
-
decrease at increasing speed.
Questão 159
Questão
81.1.1.1 (5279)
Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are
correct?1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are
equal.2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
Responda
-
1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
-
1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
-
1 and 2 are correct.
1 and 2 are incorrect.
-
1 and 2 are incorrect.
Questão 160
Questão
81.1.1.3 (5283)
Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:
Responda
-
relative wind/airflow.
-
horizon.
-
chord line.
-
longitudinal axis.
Questão 161
Questão
81.1.1.3 (5284)
The correct drag formula is:
Responda
-
D= CD 2 RHO V² S
-
D= CD 1/2 RHO V S
-
D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S
-
D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S
Questão 162
Questão
81.1.1.4 (5289)
The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:
Responda
-
the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative
wind/airflow.
-
the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing
-
the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio
-
the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.
Questão 163
Questão
81.1.1.4 (5290)
Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?
Responda
-
for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal to 0
-
for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
-
for an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0
-
for an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
Questão 164
Questão
81.1.1.4 (5291)
The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:
Questão 165
Questão
81.1.1.4 (5292)
""A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and
lower surface of a aerofoil"". This definition is applicable for :
Questão 166
Questão
81.1.2.0 (5298)
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which
location will the highest flow velocities occur ?
Questão 167
Questão
81.1.2.5 (5304)
The lift force, acting on an aerofoil :
Responda
-
is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.
-
increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.
-
is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.
-
is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.
Questão 168
Questão
81.1.3.2 (5316)
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between :
Responda
-
CL and CD
-
Angle of attack and CL
-
TAS and stall speed
-
CD and angle of attack
Questão 169
Questão
81.1.3.2 (5322)
Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly the
Responda
-
glide distance from a given altitude.
-
glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind.
-
distance for climb up to a certain altitude
-
distance for horizontal flight.
Questão 170
Questão
81.1.4.1 (5324)
Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?
Responda
-
Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
-
The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip
direction.
-
The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root
direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction.
-
The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.
Questão 171
Questão
81.1.4.2 (5326)
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of
tip vortices will eventually : (flap span less than wing span)
Questão 172
Questão
81.1.4.2 (5334)
The induced drag:
Responda
-
increases as the lift coefficient increases.
-
has no relation to the lift coefficient.
-
increases as the aspect ratio increases.
-
increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.
Questão 173
Questão
81.1.4.2 (5339)
Winglets
Responda
-
decrease the induced drag.
-
increase the manoeuvrability.
-
decrease the static lateral stability.
-
create an elliptical lift distribution
Questão 174
Questão
81.1.4.2 (5340)
Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag ?
Responda
-
Engine cowling
-
Wing root junction
-
Wing tip
-
Landing gear
Questão 175
Questão
81.1.5.2 (5345)
The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies
linearly with the:
Questão 176
Questão
81.1.5.5 (5351)
Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and
level flight is correct?
Responda
-
The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.
-
At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.
-
The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft
weight
-
The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases
Questão 177
Questão
81.1.8.1 (5363)
The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:
Responda
-
a turbulent stream pattern around the wing.
-
the normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
-
a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream
velocity, due to friction.
-
suction at the upper wing side.
Questão 178
Questão
81.1.8.1 (5364)
A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:
Responda
-
the vortices are weak.
-
no velocity components exist, normal to the surface.
-
the temperature varies constantly
-
the velocity is constant.
Questão 179
Questão
81.1.8.2 (5376)
Increase of wing loading will:
Responda
-
increase the stall speeds.
-
decrease the minimum gliding angle.
-
increase CLmax.
-
decrease take off speeds.
Questão 180
Questão
81.1.8.2 (5374)
Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
Responda
-
increasing altitude.
-
increasing air density.
-
decreasing weight.
-
increasing load factor.
Questão 181
Questão
81.1.8.2 (5378)
When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed :
Responda
-
increases with flap extension
-
decreases with increasing bank angle
-
increases with the square root of load factor
-
increases with the load factor squared
Questão 182
Questão
81.1.8.2 (5380)
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load
factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
Responda
-
70 kt
-
141 kt
-
282 kt
-
200 kt
Questão 183
Questão
81.1.8.2 (5384)
By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal
coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° ?
Questão 184
Questão
81.1.8.2 (5385)
An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the
aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
Responda
-
122 kt.
-
141 kt.
-
82 kt.
-
150kt
Questão 185
Questão
81.1.8.2 (5386)
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Responda
-
May increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream
from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wing
-
Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft
-
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing
conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward
-
Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
Questão 186
Questão
81.1.8.2 (5388)
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Responda
-
Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location
-
Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
-
Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps
-
May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn
Questão 187
Questão
81.1.8.5 (5395)
On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the ""pitch up"" phenomenon:
Responda
-
is caused by wingtip stall.
-
is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.
-
never occurs, since a swept wing is a ""remedy"" to pitch up.
-
is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.
Questão 188
Questão
81.1.8.5 (5399)
Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?
Responda
-
Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
-
Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..
-
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
-
Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.
Questão 189
Questão
81.1.8.5 (5408)
The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
Questão 190
Questão
81.1.9.0 (5410)
Trailing edge flap extension will:
Responda
-
increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
-
decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
-
decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
-
increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
Questão 191
Questão
81.1.9.0 (5412)
An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge
(L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the
wings is:
Responda
-
Wing roots: slatsWing tips: L.E. flaps
-
Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: slats
-
Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: no devices
-
Wing roots: slatsWing tips: no devices
Questão 192
Questão
81.1.9.0 (5413)
An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be
selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative
influence on the CL/CD ratio?
Responda
-
The slats.
-
Flaps from 0° to 15°.
-
Flaps from 30° to 45°.
-
Flaps from 15° to 30°.
Questão 193
Questão
81.1.9.1 (5416)
The trailing edge flaps when extended :
Responda
-
increase the zero lift angle of attack
-
worsen the best angle of glide
-
significantly lower the drag
-
significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
Questão 194
Questão
81.1.9.1 (5417)
When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch
moment will be:
Questão 195
Questão
81.1.9.1 (5426)
Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the :
Questão 196
Questão
81.1.9.2 (5436)
Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and
slats is correct?
Responda
-
Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
-
Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
-
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
-
Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.
Questão 197
Questão
81.1.9.2 (5439)
A deployed slat will:
Responda
-
increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part
of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack.
-
increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the
wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack.
-
decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that
CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack.
-
increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that
CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack.
Questão 198
Questão
81.1.9.2 (5440)
What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of :
Questão 199
Questão
81.1.9.2 (5444)
A slat will
Responda
-
increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
-
increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
-
increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of
attack.
-
provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing.
Questão 200
Questão
81.1.9.3 (5445)
Vortex generators:
Responda
-
change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.
-
reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.
-
transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
-
take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation.