Anesthesiology 2019 Exam (NOTHING 2015 ONWARDS)

Question

The canogram below is a sign that your patient has just had:

Answer 1

a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest

Answer 2

Malignant hyperthermia

Answer 3

a severe bronchospasm

Answer 4

pulmonary embolism

Answer 5

congenital heart failure

Answer 6

respiratory problem

Answer 7

circulatory problem

Answer 8

congenital heart failure

Answer 9

abnormal heart rhythm

Answer 10

respiratory problem

Answer 11

vestibule ocular response

Answer 12

all of the above

Answer 13

Ultrasound of the carotid artery

Answer 14

cerebral angiography

Answer 15

cerebral CT

Answer 16

hyperkalemia

Answer 17

hypophosphatemia

Answer 18

hypocalcemia

Answer 19

Low CVP/ high CO / low SVR

Answer 20

Low CVP / low CO / high SVR

Answer 21

High CVP / low CO / low SVR

Answer 22

high CVP / low CO/ high SVR

Answer 23

Preload X Afterload

Answer 24

HR x Preload

Answer 25

Non-cardiogenic lung edema

Answer 26

increased respiratory system compliance

Answer 27

acute inflammatory reaction in the lungs, increased permeability of pulmonary vascular endothelium

Answer 28

Increased capillary permeability

Answer 29

Vasoconstriction

Answer 30

A low cardiac output

Answer 31

A high capillary artery occlusion pressure (PCWP, PAOP)

Answer 32

MAP 50 mmHg

Answer 33

MAP 65 mmHg

Answer 34

MAP 80 mmHG

Answer 35

MAP 100mmHg

Answer 36

hypothermia

Answer 37

hyperthermia

Answer 38

evoked potentials

Answer 39

arterial angiography

Answer 40

Transcranial Doppler

Answer 41

mild: 300 <pO2 /FiO2 ≤ 400 (previously called ALI – acute lung injury)

Answer 42

Moderate: 100 <pO2 /FiO2 ≤ 200

Answer 43

Severe: pO2 /FiO2 ≤ 150

Answer 44

Very severe: pO2 /FiO2 ≤ 500

Answer 45

not fully conscious

Answer 46

hemodynamically stable

Answer 47

non-cooperative

Answer 48

unable to take adequate tidal volumes

Answer 49

Pulmonary Artery Occlusion Pressure (PAOP) < 18mmhG; Cardiac Index > 2.21/min/m2

Answer 50

PAOP > 18mmHg; CI >2.2/min/m2

Answer 51

PAOP < 18mmHg; CI <2.2/min/m2

Answer 52

PAOP > 18mmHg; CI <2.2/min/m2

Answer 53

Septic patients are often hypoglycemic

Answer 54

the optimal management is to maintain glucose < 180mg/dL

Answer 55

insulin should not be given IV

Answer 56

the best and safest route of insulin administration is subcutaneous supply

Answer 57

lowest mortality was achieved when vasopressors were initiated 6-12 hours after or after at least 1 liter of fluid was given during first hour

Answer 58

first choice vasopressor was based SSC recommendations is Norepinephrine

Answer 59

First choice vasopressor based SSC recommendation is Vasopressin

Answer 60

Dopamine can be considered in patients with high risk of tachyarrhythmia’s

Answer 61

increased respiratory rate

Answer 62

alteration in cognition

Answer 63

low blood pressure

Answer 64

amount of oxygen in blood

Answer 65

amount of O2 delivered to tissues of the body per minute

Answer 66

cardiac output only

Answer 67

arterial partial pressure of oxygen

Answer 68

drugs that cause vasodilation

Answer 69

hemorrhage

Answer 70

anaphylaxis-vasodilation

Answer 71

adrenaline (epinephrine)

Answer 72

magnesium sulfate

Answer 73

ventilate using bag-valve-mask ventilation (BVM)

Answer 74

precordial thumb

Answer 75

defibrillate at 200 joules or manufacturer guidelines

Answer 76

have another colleague to double check the presence of the pulse

Answer 77

selecting the lowest FiO2 at which is it possible to SpO2 99-95%

Answer 78

Tidal volume 10 ml/kg

Answer 79

Plateu pressure in the airways <30 cm H20

Answer 80

increased respiratory frequency up to pH >7.30

Answer 81

levosimedan increases cardiac contractility by sensitizing his myofilaments to calcium

Answer 82

dopamine is a selective B1 receptor agonist

Answer 83

dobutamine increases heart rate and increases O2 mycardial O2 consumption

Answer 84

adrenaline infusion is accompanies by an increase in serum lactate

Answer 85

an acute sensory experience associated with local tissue damage

Answer 86

actual or potential tissue damage associated with unpleased experience

Answer 87

an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated wit actual or potential tissue damage

Answer 88

an unpleasant sensory or emotional experience described in terms of tissue damage

Answer 89

peridural continuous analgesia

Answer 90

pain control analgesia

Answer 91

perioperative control of pain

Answer 92

Patient controlled analgesia

Answer 93

disease on its own

Answer 94

cause usually defined

Answer 95

oft learned syndrome

Answer 96

increase of activity indicated

Answer 97

disability

Answer 98

drug misuse

Answer 99

dependency

Answer 100

1000 ml crystalloids infusion

Answer 101

intravenous antibiotics

Answer 102

100% oxygen via mask

Answer 103

dopamine I.V.

Answer 104

Hyperthermia

Answer 105

Malignant Hyperthermia

Answer 106

Hyperventilation

Answer 107

Thiopental

Answer 108

Sewofluran

Answer 109

Succinylcholine

Answer 110

Depolarizing relaxant drugs

Answer 111

I-1, II-2, III-5

Answer 112

I-2, II-3, II-5

Answer 113

I-2, II-3, III-6

Answer 114

I-2, II-4, III-5

Answer 115

non-availibity of patient’s consent

Answer 116

local infection or sepsis at the puncture site

Answer 117

during child birth

Answer 118

Thrombocytopenia

Answer 119

Thiopental

Answer 120

Bupivacaine

Answer 121

Ropivacaine

Answer 122

it is depolarizing relaxant drug

Answer 123

succinylcholine has short duration due to plasma cholinesterase

Answer 124

side effects include malignant hyperthermia, muscle pains, acute rhabdomyolysis with high blood levels of potassium

Answer 125

it is a medication used as a part of general anesthesia for long-term paralysis to help with tracheal intubation

Answer 126

mean pressure in VCS or RA

Answer 127

it is increased in hypovolemia

Answer 128

measurement performed with central venous catheter

Answer 129

to estimate the filling of vascular bed and preload of the right heart

Answer 130

SpO2 90% = 75mmHg

Answer 131

Falsely high SpO2 during CO inhalation

Answer 132

Normal value: SpO2 ≤96%

Answer 133

Falsely high SpO2 during hyperbilirubinemia

Answer 134

congestive heart failure

Answer 135

cardial tamponade

Answer 136

hypervolemia

Answer 137

respiratory alkalosis

Answer 138

respiratory acidosis

Answer 139

metabolic acidosis

Answer 140

metabolic alkalosis

Answer 141

administer 3mg of atropine each 2-5min of CPR

Answer 142

debibrilate the patient with 360J energy

Answer 143

administer 1mg of adrenaline each 2-5 mins of CPR

Answer 144

perform cardioversion with 150J energy

Answer 145

Arterial pH

Answer 146

Blood pressure

Answer 147

core temperature

Answer 148

serum lactate level

Answer 149

left ventricular failure

Answer 150

fluid overload

Answer 151

hypovolemia

Answer 152

Anesthetic – induced myocardial depression

Answer 153

Hypothermia

Answer 154

pulmonary embolism

Answer 155

massive hemorrhage

Answer 156

Minute volume 10 L/min

Answer 157

Do nothing until the AED arrives

Answer 158

start compressions at least 100 per minute but no more than 120 per minute

Answer 159

open the airway, deliver 4 breaths and await to the arrival of the AED

Answer 160

Deliver 2 breaths followed by 15 compressions

Answer 161

is characterized by low cardiac output

Answer 162

is characterized by a low systemic vascular resistance

Answer 163

may be caused by papillary muscle rupture

Answer 164

is inability of the heart to maintain the circulation

Answer 165

Obstetiric patients

Answer 166

transurethral resection of bladder tumors

Answer 167

total hip replacement

Answer 168

thrombocytopenia

Answer 169

hypertension

Answer 170

arrhythmia

Answer 171

hyperthyroidisms

Answer 172

Dopamine at 2mcg/kg/min

Answer 173

captoprin 6.5 mg q6h

Answer 174

metoprolol 25mmHg

Answer 175

Dobutamine 5mcg/kg/min

Answer 176

dobutamine

Answer 177

epinephrine

Answer 178

dopexamine

Answer 179

jugular internal vein

Answer 180

jubgular external vain

Answer 181

Subclavian vein

Answer 182

Femoral Vein

Answer 183

administer 500ug of digoxin IV

Answer 184

administration of 1mg of adrenaline after each defribrillation

Answer 185

administration of 3mg of atropine after each two loops of CPR

Answer 186

performing the first debribilliation with energy 150-200J (biphasic)

Answer 187

sepsis is a life-threatening organ failure caused by an incorrect response of the body to blood infection. Organ insufficiency is recognized on the basis of the SOFA score> 4

Answer 188

sepsis is a life threatening organ failure caused by an incorrect response of the body to infection. Organ failure is diagnosed based on a sudden change in SOFA> 2 due to infection.

Answer 189

sepsis is a life-threatening syndrome shaped by factors associated with the pathogen itself as well as factors related to the patient's body (eg. gender, race, and other genetic factors, age, coexisting disease, environment)

Answer 190

sepsis is a life-threatening organ failure diagnosed on the basis of a change in the SOFA scale> 4

Answer 191

compensated respiratory acidosis

Answer 192

compensated respiratory alkalosis

Answer 193

compensated metabolic acidosis

Answer 194

compensated metabolic alkalosis

Answer 195

temperature above 38 or below 36

Answer 196

breath above 22 / min

Answer 197

systolic pressure below 100

Answer 198

disturbances of consciousness

Answer 199

Pcwp > 18, CI > 2.1

Answer 200

Pcwp < 18, CI > 2.1

Answer 201

Pcwp > 18, CI < 2.1

Answer 202

Pcwp < 18, CI < 2.1

Answer 203

Loss of vascular capillary barrier function leading to extensive swelling of

Answer 204

expandable and blood-vessel tissues and 5 -stage vascular resistence

Answer 205

formation of thrombosis in incisions, perturbation disorders, organ ischaemia, organ damage and development of multiple organ failure syndrome

Answer 206

severe adhi leukocyte to vasomotor vessels with increased migration of leukocytes into tissues

Answer 207

vascular endothelial dysfunction leading to increased vascular permeability and extensive tissue swelling

Answer 208

haemostasis disorders, reduced energy production in the mitochondria

Answer 209

circulatory insufficiency and hypotension

Answer 210

impaired blood oxygenation (low PaO2 value)

Answer 211

low Hb levels (anemia)

Answer 212

reduced availability of haemoglobin for oxygen (carbon monoxide poisoning)

Answer 213

in the diagnosis of severe fungal infections

Answer 214

in the diagnosis of severe viral infections

Answer 215

in the diagnosis and monitoring of the treatment of thin bacterial infections

Answer 216

in the diagnosis and monitoring of treatment of severe coagulation disorders (eg disseminated intravascular coagulation)

Answer 217

Patients with cardiogenic shock have greater tachycardia

Answer 218

Patients with septic shock are more likely to have severe lactic acidosis

Answer 219

The diastolic pressure is very low in patients with cardiogenic shock

Answer 220

The septic shock patients are usually characterized by increased vasodilatation

Answer 221

Head bending and raising the chin

Answer 222

Oral pharyngeal tube

Answer 223

nasopharyngeal tube

Answer 224

All of the above

Answer 225

In systemic bacterial infections, procalcitonia is produced in all parenchymal devices and excreted into the bloodstream, which provide a high concentration.

Answer 226

In severe viral infections, procalcitonin is produced in all parenchymal vessels and excreted into the bloodstream, where it reaches a high concentration

Answer 227

outside of procalcitonin can grow after major surgery, reaching the highest values 24-48 hours. after treatment. PCT returns to normal values within a few days that they do not have

Answer 228

Continuity testing

Answer 229

Paracetamol

Answer 230

acetylsalicylic acid

Answer 231

It should be given only if there is no response to an earlier intravenous GCS supply

Answer 232

In adults with spontaneous circulation, it is injected into the lateral surface of the thigh

Answer 233

. It can be repeated every 5-15 minutes if there is no improvement or the blood pressure is still too low.

Answer 234

For adults with spontaneous circulation, the recommended dose is 0.5 mg

Answer 235

Any form of cardiac arrest

Answer 236

Only asystole

Answer 237

only the PEA

Answer 238

Ventricular fibrillation

Answer 239

Electrical activity without the presence of pulse on the carotid arteries, occurring in the form of tachycardia with narrow QRS syndromes

Answer 240

Any cardiac arrest, regardless of the electrical activity of the heart

Answer 241

ECG and echocardiographic examinations should be performed immediately on vomiting patients suspected of having cardiogenic shock

Answer 242

ECG monitoring and invasive blood pressure monitoring are recommended

Answer 243

intravenous inotropic drug (dobutamine) may be considered to increase cardiac output

Answer 244

in the first-line treatment, in the absence of symptoms of acute inflammation, urgent administration of fluids IV (saline or Ringer's solution,> 2000ml / 15-30min) is recommended

Answer 245

after tattooing

Answer 246

urinary tract infection (UTI)

Answer 247

from the mosquito bite

Answer 248

all of the above

Answer 249

fluid homeostasis, volumic control

Answer 250

elimination of cytokines

Answer 251

metabolism control

Answer 252

all mentioned

Answer 253

after each cycle of chest compressions

Answer 254

every 2 minutes

Answer 255

if the rescuer is tired

Answer 256

at the behest of the team leader

Answer 257

confirms and monitors the position of the tracheal tube

Answer 258

is used only in the case of a public airway device

Answer 259

may be an indicator of the quality of CPR and ROSC

Answer 260

correct answers a and c

Answer 261

the first-line drug in septic shock

Answer 262

during resuscitation we give 1mg IV every 2 minutes

Answer 263

by activating peripheral beta 1 receptors, it causes vasodilatation

Answer 264

has a positive inotropic, chronotropic, bathmotropic and non-tropic effect

Answer 265

Precordial thump may be effective while waiting for the defibrillator to be used?

Answer 266

In special cases, defibrillations may be performed in a sequence of three consecutive discharges when the defibrillator is immediately available

Answer 267

we give adrenaline after the third defibrillation

Answer 268

all correct

Answer 269

we always use 300 mg iv

Answer 270

we give after 3 defibrillations

Answer 271

we use when lidocaine is not available

Answer 272

. in recurrent PEA we give again after 5 defibrillations

Answer 273

hyperkaliernk

Answer 274

hyperthermia

Answer 275

thromboembolic lesions of coronary vessels

Answer 276

CPP = CVP + ICP

Answer 277

CPP = MAP- ICP

Answer 278

CPP = CVP- ICP

Answer 279

CPP = PCWP-I CP

Answer 280

recuperation of the patient in a semi-sitting position

Answer 281

osmotic treatment with mannitol

Answer 282

deepening analgosedation

Answer 283

Hypoventilation

Answer 284

hypercapnia

Answer 285

Hypoxia and hypocapnia

Answer 286

Reccuronium

Answer 287

all of the above

Answer 288

none of the above

Answer 289

The position of the patient during the administration of the local anasthetic

Answer 290

Anesthetic concentrations

Answer 291

The volume of the anesthetic agent given

Answer 292

Adjuqants administered together with the drug for local anesthesia

Answer 293

Urinary retention

Answer 294

Post-operative headaches

Answer 295

They extend the sympathetic blockade

Answer 296

All of the above

Answer 297

Diuresis hourly

Answer 298

The level of arterial lactate

Answer 299

Skin warmth

Answer 300

All listed

Answer 301

After transporting the patient to the recovery rooms

Answer 302

Anticipating the appearance of pain

Answer 303

After the patient reports discomfort and pain

Answer 304

With pain that cause blood pressure to rise

Answer 305

intra-abdominal abscesses

Answer 306

pleural empyema

Answer 307

acute pancreatitis

Answer 308

inflammation of the follicle and biliary tract

Answer 309

chest x-ray

Answer 310

) microbiological culture of bronchial tree and blood secretion and examination for legionella infection in the direction of chlamydia and mycoplasma from blood, for pneumococcal infection with blood or urine, sputum test or throat swab for viral infection by PCR in justified cases

Answer 311

blood biochemistry including markers of inflammation (leukocytosis, PCT, CRP)

Answer 312

all the answers are true

Answer 313

elevating the head of the bed at an angle of 30-50 degrees

Answer 314

vacuum suction and pressure control in the intubation / tracheotomy tube balloon

Answer 315

decolonizing the oral cavity with disinfectants

Answer 316

all the answers are true

Answer 317

you alert the duty team, you implement external heart massage, you defibrillate as soon as possible

Answer 318

you implement external cardiac massage, as soon as you perform intubations, and then defibrillation

Answer 319

you alert the duty team, you implement external heart massage, as soon as you give 1mg of adrenaline

Answer 320

you alert the duty team, implement the external cardiac massage, as soon as you perform intubations

Answer 321

thiopental

Answer 322

dobutamine

Answer 323

adrenaline

Answer 324

dopexamine

Answer 325

Respiratory problem

Answer 326

Circulatory problem

Answer 327

Congenital heart failure

Answer 328

Return of spontaneous circulation after stopping

Answer 329

Bronchial spasm

Answer 330

Malignant hyperthermia

Answer 331

Pulmonary embolism

Answer 332

This is the average pressure measured in the left atrium

Answer 333

The CVP measurement is performed using a zonal central catheter

Answer 334

It evaluates the vascular vessel fill and the assessment of the pre-load of the right ventricle

Answer 335

Valid values 0-5 mmHg

Answer 336

hypothermia

Answer 337

A reduced level of 2,3 DPG (2,3 diphosphoglycerate)

Answer 338

Lack of cerebrovascular reflex

Answer 339

Lack of corneal reflex

Answer 340

Lack of temperature sensation

Answer 341

Lack of motor reactions to a painful stimulus

Answer 342

after at least a 6-hour pre-observation period, two series of clinical trials should be performed with an interval of 12 hours

Answer 343

after at least a 24 - hour observation period, two series of clinical trials should be performed with an interval of 6 hours

Answer 344

in this case, brain death must be confirmed in EEG or cerebral artery angiography

Answer 345

after a minimum of 12 hours of preliminary observation, two series of clinical trials should be performed 24 hours apart

Answer 346

adrenaline

Answer 347

magnesium sulphate

Answer 348

the use of neuroleptics

Answer 349

malignant hyperthermia

Answer 350

primary hypothermia

Answer 351

inverting metabolic disorders

Answer 352

Left ventricular failure

Answer 353

Isolation with fluid

Answer 354

aspiration pneumonia

Answer 355

cardiac tamponade

Answer 356

pneumothorax

Answer 357

massive pleural hematoma

Answer 358

closed pneumothorax

Answer 359

diuretic therapy

Answer 360

intensive treatment of acidosis

Answer 361

salbutamol therapy

Answer 362

Rhabdomyolysis

Answer 363

maintaining correct volition and maintaining fluid balance

Answer 364

filtering cytokines

Answer 365

regulating metabolism

Answer 366

all the answers are correct

Answer 367

Every 30 seconds

Answer 368

As the order of the team leader

Answer 369

Every 2 minutes

Answer 370

How will a person get tired?

Answer 371

1.5mg / kg

Answer 372

Non compensated respiratory acidosis.

Answer 373

Non compensated respiratory alkalosis.

Answer 374

Non compensated metabolic acidosis.

Answer 375

Non compensated metabolic alkalosis.

Answer 376

Septic shock is defined as sepsis in which circulatory and cellular / metabolic disorders are so high that they significantly increase mortality. Patients in septic shock are diagnosed based on an occurrence 1) clinical symptoms of sepsis 2) persistent hypotension requiring vasopressor treatment to support MAP> 65 mmHg and serum lactate> 2mmol / L

Answer 377

Septic shock is defined as sepsis in which circulatory and cellular / metabolic disorders are so high that they significantly increase mortality. Patients in septic shock are diagnosed based on an occurrence 1) clinical symptoms of sepsis 2) hypotension requiring treatment with vasopressors to support MAP> 65 mmHg

Answer 378

Septic shock is defined as sepsis in which circulatory and cellular / metabolic disorders are so high that they significantly increase mortality. Patients in septic shock are diagnosed based on an occurrence 1) hypotension requiring treatment with vasopressin to support MAP> 85 mmHg and 2) serum lactate> 2.5mmol / L

Answer 379

Septic shock is defined as sepsis in which circulatory and cellular / metabolic disorders are so high that they significantly increase mortality. Patients in septic shock are diagnosed based on an occurrence 1) clinical symptoms of sepsis 2) persistent hypotension requiring treatment with vasopressors for maintenance systolic pressures> 100mmHg and serum lactate> 2.5mmol / L

	Criado por Adnan Javed quase 6 anos atrás

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Anesthesiology 2019 Exam (NOTHING 2015 ONWARDS)

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